UKPSC JE 2013: Uttarakhand Combined Junior Engineer Selection Examination, JE CIVIL ENGINEERING (PAPER-I)
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S '- S
r. .,
CIVIL ENGINEERING
PAPER-I
1. Under-reamed piles are generally
(a) Driven piles (b) Bored cast-in situ piles
(c) Precast piles (d) None of these
2. By means of compaction, the following properties of the soil increase:
(a) mass density (b) shear strength (c) stability (d) All of these
3. In friction piles, the load is transferred through
(a) skin friction (b) their bottom tips
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) None of these
4. Trapezoidal combined footings are required when
(a) the space outside the exterior column is limited.
(b) the exterior column is heavier.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
5. The angle of the failure plane with the major principal plane is given by
(a) 450 + (b) 450 + (c) 450 — (d) 45 0 — 4)
(where 4)' is the angle of shearing resistance)
6. Undisturbed soil samples are required for conducting
(a) Hydrometer test (b) Shrinkage limit test
(c) Consolidation test (d) Specific gravity test
7. The critical gradient for all soils is normally
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 1.5 (d) 2.5
8. The relationship between air content of soil (ac) and its degree of saturation (Sr) is
expressed as
(a) a I + Sr (b) a = Sr — I (c) a = I — Sr (d) None of these
9. If d and n are the effective depth and depth of neutral axis of a singly reinforced beam, the
lever arm of the beam is
(a) (b) n—d (c) d+ (d) d-
10. The maximum area of tension reinforcement in beams should not exceed
(a) 0.15% (b) 1.5% (c) 4% (d) 1%
11. If E and E are modulus of elasticity of concrete and steel respectively, then the modular
ratio (in) will be
E 4E
(a) (b) (c) (d)
—
12. In case of a reinforced concrete beam, as the percentage of tension steel increases
(a) depth of neutral axis decreases
(b) depth of neutral axis increases
(c) there is no effect on neutral axis
(d) None of the above
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13. In a singly reinforced beam, if the stress in concrete reaches its permissible limit earlier
than that in steel, the beam section is called
(a) under-reinforced section (b) over-reinforced section
(c) economic section (d) critical section.
14. Which of the following square slab will behave as one-way slab?
(a) Simply supported along two opposite edges
(b) Simply supported along three edges
(c) Simply supported along all the four edges
(d) None of the above
15. The shear reinforcement in a reinforced concrete beam is provided to resists
(a) bending moment (b) compression force
(c) diagonal compression (d) diagonal tension
16. Equivalent area of a reinforced cement concrete column section is
(a) m A + A (b) A + m (c) A + (d) (A + m A)a
(Notations have their usual meaning.)
17. The diameter of longitudinal bars in a column should not be less than
(a) 8 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 12 mm (d) 16 mm
18. The minimum number of longitudinal bars provided in RCC circular column is
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
19. According to IS 456 — 2000, side face reinforcement is provided in RCC beams, when
depth of beam exceeds
(a) 450 mm (b) 750 mm (c) 1000 mm (d) 1250 mm
20. As per IS : 456 — 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced cement
concrete is
(a) M5 (b) M1O (c) M20 (d) M25
21. In pre-stressed concrete member, it is advised to use
(a) low strength concrete only.
(b) high strength concrete only.
(c) low strength concrete but high strength steel.
(d) high strength concrete and high strength steel.
22. As per IS : 456-2000, the maximum spacing of shear reinforcement along the axis of the
beam for vertical stirrups should be less than
(a) 0.75 d (b) 0.80 d (c) 0.70 d (d) 0.75 D
(where D is total depth of beam and d is effective depth of beam)
23. In limit state design method, the partial safety factor for steel as per IS : 456-2000 is
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.85 (c) 1.15 (d) 3.2
24. The nominal shear stress (tv) in a reinforced concrete beam is given by
bd V . Vb
(a) . (b) (c) V bd (d)
(Notations have their usual meaning.)
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25. The formwork including the props can be removed from beams only after
(a) 1 day (b) 3 days (c) 4 days (d) 14 days
26. When shear stress exceeds the permissible limit in a slab, then it is reduced by
(a) increasing the depth of slab (b) providing shear reinforcement
(c) using high strength steel (d) using thinner bars but more in number
27. In limit state design of concrete for flexure, the area of stress block is taken as
(a) 0.53 ck X (b) 0.446 ck X (c) 0.420 X (d) 0.36 X
28. and are characteristic strength of concrete and yield stress of steel respectively and
E is modulus of elasticity of steel, the ultimate flexural strain in concrete can be taken as
(a) 0.002 (c) 0.0035
(b) 1000 (d) l.1E+0.002
29. Spacing of stirrups in a simply supported rectangular beam is
(a) kept constant throughout the length of beam.
(b) decreased towards the centre of beam.
(c) increased at ends.
(d) increased towards centre of beam.
30. The minimum grade of concrete for pre-tensioned member is
(a) M30 (b) M35 (c) M40 (d) M60
31. High strength concrete possesses
(a) higher modulus of elasticity (b) small creep strain
(c) Both (a) ançl (h) (d) None of these
32. In reinforced concrete. lap splice should not be used for bars having diameter larger than
(a) 16mm (h) 20mm (c) 10mm (d) 36mm
33. Torsional reinforcement is provided in slabs when
(a) corners are held down.
(b) slab makes monolithic construction with wall.
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
•34. Method used to make an estimate is
(a) thin wall and thick wall method (b) centre line method
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) centre of gravity method
35. The unit for measurement of damp proof course is
(a) m (b) m2 (c) m3 (d) None of these
36. While submitting a tender, the contractor is to deposit a certain amount of money of the
estimated cost. It is called
(a) Security money (b) Contract money
(c) Earnest money (d) None of these
37. The most reliable estimate is
(a) Detailed estimate (b) Preliminary estimate
(c) Plinth-area estimate (d) Cube rate estimate
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38. In a construction project, the time corresponding to minimum total project cost is
(a) normal time (b) crash time
(c) between normal and crash time (d) None of these
39. Number of bricks needed for I cu.m. brick work will be
(a) 1350 (b) 650 (c) 500 (d) 550
40. The water absorption capacity of first class bricks should not be more than of
its weight.
(a) 30% (b) 25% (c) 16.6% (d) 50%
41. Lime concrete is prepared by using aggregate and as binding material.
(a) slaked lime (b) quick lime
(c) mixture of quick lime and cement (d) lime stone powder
42. The age of a tree may be ascertained by the
(a) radius of its stem (b) number of branches
(c) circumference of its stem (d) number of annual rings
43. Which of the following is not the constituent of a paint?
(a) iron oxide (b) Sodium chloride
(c) Turpentine oil (d) Linseed oil
44. The vertical member used in a door frame is called
(a) Post (b) Sill (c) Rail (d) Bracing
45. Soundness of cement is tested by
(a) •Vicat's apparatus (b) Le-Chatelier's apparatus
(c) Compression testing machine (d) None of these
46. The type of bond in which every course contains both header and stretcher is called
(a)' English bond (b) Flemish bond (c) Mixed bond (d) Russian bond
47. The critical activity has
(a) zero float (b) minimum float (c) maximum float (d) positive float
48. The base material for distemper is
(a) Lime putty (b) Lime (c) Cement wash (d) Chalk
49. Per capita consumption of water per day for domestic purpose should be
(a) 85 litres (b) 100 litres (c) 115 litres (d) 135 litres
50. Fire demand of water according to Kuichling's formula, in litres/minute, is given by
(where P is population in thousands)
(a) Q = 3182 P (b) Q (c) Q = 3182 '\1i (d)
Q=
51. Maximum permissible amount of fluoride for domestic consumption of water should be
(a) 0.15 ppm. (b) 1,5 ppm (c) 15 ppm (d) 150 ppm
52. The velocity of flow of sewage in a combined sewer should not be less than
(a) 0.3 rn/s (b) 0.75 rn/s (c) 1.0 rn/s (d) 6.0 rn/s
53. The time interval of cleaning of septic tank should not be more than
(a) 5 years (b) 1 year (c) 6 months (d) 2 years
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54. Alum is a
(a) Coagulant (b) Flocculent (c) Catalyst (d) Disinfectant
55. Turbidity in water is due to
(a) Organic salts (b) Suspended and colloidal particles
(c) Algae (d) Fungi
56. The trap used for an Indian water closet is called
(a) Gully trap• (b) P-trap
(c) Intercepting trap (d) Anti-syphon trap
57. Sewage treatment units are generally designed for
(a) maximum flow only (b) minimum flow only
(c) average flow only (d) Both (a) and (b)
58. Bleaching powder is
(a) Ca(OH), (b) dO2 (c) CaC17 (d) CaC/(OC1)
59. Separate soil pipe and waste pipe system is known as
(a) Single stack system (b) One-pipe system
(c) Single syphon system (d) Two-pipe system
60. Wet latrine is also known as
(a) Earth privy (b) Bore-hole privy (c) Aqua privy (d) Can privy
61. In small towns, the most appropriate system of sewerage is
(a) Separate system (b) Combined system
(c) Conservancy system (d) Partially separate system
62. To sustain high external and internal pressures, the most appropriate sewer material is
(a) C.I. pipe (b) Steel pipe (c) Vitrified clay pipe (d) R.C.C. pipe
63. The sewerage system originates from
(a) Main sewer (b) House sewer (c) Outfall sewer (d) Sub-main sewer
64. In house plumbing system, the leakage of different pipes is tested by
(a) Smoke test (b) Air test (c) Water test (d) All of these
65. The number of independent equations to be satisfied for static equilibrium in a space
structure is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
66. The relationship between Young's modulus of elasticity (E), Bulk modulus (K) and
Poisson ratio (j.t) is given by
(a) E=2K(l —2M) (b) E=3K(l+,.t)
(c) E=3K(l —2j.t) (d) E=2K(l +ji)
67. For a circular cross-section, the relationship between the maximum shear stress (q111.1) and
average shear stress (q) is gives as
3
(a) qiax = q (b) qrnax = (c) q max (d)
= 2 qa
68. The number of points of contraflexure in a cantilever beam are
(a) zero (b) one (c) two (d) None of these
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69. The maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of length (L) with a point load (W) at the
free end is
W L3 WI) WL3
____ WL3
(a) (b) (c)
3 El 16 El (d) 48 El
70. The load shared by the member BC of the structure shown in figure below is:
2t
(a) 2'jt (b) 3'Jt (c) 4t (d) 3t
71. Slenderness ratio of an RC column is the ratio of its length to its
(a) shortest side of a column (b) long side of a column
(c) area of cross section (d) None of these
72. A steel rod of 2 cm2 area and 1 metre in length is subjected to a pull of 40,000 N. If
Young's modulus is 2 x N/mm2. the elongation of the rod will be
(a) 10mm (b) 100mm (c) 1 mm (d) 0.1 mm
73. A cantilever beam of span L is subjected to a u.d.l. of W per unit length intensity
throughout its length. The maximum deflection in the beam will be
WL4 WL4 WL4 WL4
(a) (b)
6 El 8 El (c) 48 El (d) 96 El
74. If Poisson's ratio for a material is 0.5,. then the elastic modulus for the material is
(a) three times its shear modulus (b) four times its shear modulus
(c) three times its bulk modulus (d) two times its bulk modulus
75. A simply supported beam carries two equal point loads 'W' at a distance of L/3 from
either supports. The bending moment at mid span is
5WL 2WL WL
(a) (b) (c) (d) zero
76. The Euler's crippling load for a 2 m long slender steel rod of uniform cross-section hinged
at both the ends is 1 kN. The Euler's crippling load for a 1 m long steel rod of the same
cross-section and hinged at both the ends will be
(a) 2kN (b) 4kN (c) 6kN (d) 8kN
77. The force iii the vertical member of the truss shown in figure will be
T 5t
2 ni
I
2m 2m -H
(a) 2t (b) 5t (c) 8t (d) zero
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78. The shear force diagram for a simply supported beam of span L is shown in figure. The
maximum bending moment in the beam is
T
w +Ve
±
T
—Ve w
±
L
WL
(a) (b) Wa_a) (c) Wa (d) W(L—a)
2
79. The ratio of the moment of inertia of a rectangular section about its base and an axis
parallel to its base and passing through its centre of gravity is
(a) 1.0 (b) 2.0 (c) 3.0 (d) 4.0
80. The maximum value of Poisson's ratio for an elastic material is
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.75 (d) 1.0
81. If a material has identical properties at all locations, the material is assumed as
(a) Isotropic (b) Elastic (c) Homogeneous (d) None of these
82. When a solid shaft is subjected to torsion, the shear stress induced at its centre is
(a) zero (b) maximum (c) minimum (d) average
83. If the shear force at a section of a simply supported beam is zero, the bending moment at
the section is
(a) zero (b) maximum
(c) minimum (d) average of maximum and minimum
84. The simple bending equation is
MRf I Ef MEtS MR
(a) (b) = = j (c) (d)
T=±= f
(Notations have their usual meaning)
85. The thickness of slab base for steel column is given by
W
(a) t=\ / (A — B2) (b) t =
3Fb (A_B)
Iw( ., B2'\ /3W( ., B2
(c) t= -\/A - -T) (d) t=-A--
where, symbols have their normal meaning.
86. For a column of length L having one end fixed and other free, the effective length of the
column is
(a) 2L (b) L (c) (d)
87. The maximum bending moment, for a simply supported beam of span L and having a
uniformly distributed load 'W' per unit length all over its length, is
WL2 WL2 WL2 WL2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 8 12
88. The ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal strain is called
(a) Strain ratio (b) Modular ratio (c) Poisson's ratio (d) Young's modulus
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89. If the end stations of a line are free from local attraction, then the difference between fore
bearing and back bearing of that line should be
(a) 1200 (b) 180° (c) 360° (d) 90°
90. The angle between the two plane mirrors of an optical square should be
(a.) 30° (b) 450 (c) 60° (d) 90°
91. The whole circle bearing of line AB and AC are 18° — 15' and 335° — 45' respectively.
What is the value of the included angle CAB?
(a) 307° — 30' (b) 354° — 0' (c) 1770 — 0' (d) 42° — 30'
92. The two point problem or three point problem is method of
(a) Orientation (b) Resection (c) Traversing (d) (a) and (b)
93. Working edge of an Alidate is known as
(a) Ebonite edge (b) Fiducial edge (c) Straight edge (d) Graduated edge
94. A correction for error due to refraction is
(a) 0.01 d- m (b) 0.001 d- m (c) 0.01122 d2 m (d) 0.078 d2 m
(where d is horizontal distance in km.)
95. Length of long chord in a simple circular curve having central angle 0 is
(a) Rsin (b) 2Rsin' (c) Rcos (d) 2Rcos 0
(where R is radius of the curve)
96. Planimeter is used for measuring
(a) Volume (b) Area (c) Slope angle (d) Contour gradient
97. The first reading from a level station is
(a) Fore sight (b) Intermediate sight
(c) Back sight (d) Straight sight
98. Correction for pull or tension in a tape is given by
(P—P0)L (P - P0)
(a) Ce— (b) C — LAE
AE
(P — P0)AE L
(c) C= (d)
L C = AE(P— P)
99. The fore bearing of a line is 150° 40'. Its back bearing will be
(a) 105° 50' (b) 330° 40' (c) 220° 30' (d) 209° 20'
100. The size of a theodolite is specified by
(a) the length of telescope. (b) the diameter of vertical circle.
(c) the diameter of lower plate. (d) the diameter of upper plate.
101. The correction of sag is
(a) always additive
(b) always subtractive
(c) always zero
(d) sometimes additive sometimes subtractive
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e
102. If the quadrantal bearing of a line is N 25° W, then the whole circle bearing of the line is
(a) S 25° E (b) 205° (c) 3350 (d) 295°
103. The R.L. of a point A on the floor is 100 m. The back-sight reading on A is 2.455 m. If the
fore-sight reading on the point B on the ceiling is 2.745 m, the R.L. of the point B will be
(a) 94.8m (b) 99.71 m (c) 100.29m (d) 105.20m
104. The following consecutive readings were taken with a dumpy level and a 3 m staff on a
continuous sloping ground:
0.425, 1.035, 1.950, 2.360. 2.950, 0.750, 1.565, 2.450
Which of the above readings are back-sights?
(a) 0.425, 2.950, 0.750 (b) 0.425, 2.360, 0.750
(c) 0.425, 0.750 (d) 0.425, 2.950, 0.750, 1.565
105. The distance of the visible horizon from a height of 36 m above msl is given by
(a) km (b) 36\jO635 km (c) km (d) 36-J0.06735 km
\J035 \J006735
106. The radial offset at a distance x from the beginning of circular curve of radius R is given
by
______
(a) ..s,JR2 — 2 - R (b) R - .\1R2 - x2 (c) R - ,JR2 + x2 (d) \1R2 + - R
107. The length and breadth of a field of area 33600 m2, on map is 12 cm and 7 cm
respectively. The R.F. of the scale will be
(a) I : 400 (b) 1: 20 (c) I : 800 (d) 1: 2000
108. If 0 and 0, are the angles of deviation from A to the top and bottom of a vertically held
rod of length 'S' at B. The horizontal distance AB is
S S
(a) (b)
(tan 0, - tan 02) (tan 0, + tan 0,)
S S
(c) (d)
(tan 97 -tan 0,) (tanO, xtan9,)
109. An invar tape is made of an alloy of
(a) Copper and Steel (b) Brass and Nickel
(c) Nickel and Steel (d) Brass and Steel
110. The principle of "working from whole to part" is used in surveying because
(a) plotting becomes easy. (b) survey work can be completed quickly.
(c) accumulation of error is prevented. (d) All of these
111. For a well conditioned triangle, no angle should be less than
(a) 20° (b) 30° (c) 450 (d) 60°
112. The statement "included angle is affected by local attraction" is
(a) true (b) partially true (c) false (d) partially false
113. If the magnetic quadrantal bearing of a line is S 46° 30' W and magnetic declination at that
place is 2° 30' E, then true whole circle bearing of that line will be
(a) 229° (b) 224° (c) 148° (d) 48°
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114. Contour interval within the limits of a map
(a) may be constant.
(b) may not be kept constant.
(c) must be kept constant.
(d) may vary according to the configuration.
115. Closed contours with higher values outwards, represent a
(a) Hill (b) Pond (c) Plain surface (d) None of these
116. The process of turning the telescope about the vertical axis in horizontal plane is known as
(a) Transiting (b) Reversing (c) Plunging (d) Swinging
117. Plotting of inaccessible points on a plane table is done by
(a) Intersection (b) Traversing (c) Radiation (d) None of these
118.. The Standard Meridian of India is
(a) 35°E (b) 84°E (c) 640W (d)
119. Which of the following closely represents the shape of the earth?
(a) Spheroid (b) Ellipsoid
(c) Oblatespheroidofrevolution (d) Prolate spheroid
120. Which of the following instrument is generally used for base line measurements?
(a) Chain (b) Steel tape (c) Metallic tape (d) Invar tape
121. Two theodolite method to set a simple curve does not require
(a) linear measurements (b) angular measurements
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
122. The three-point problem can be solved by
(a) Tracing paper method (b) Basset's method
(c) Lehmann's method (d) All of these
123. How many links are there in a Gunter's chain?
(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 150 (d) 200
124. The true length of a line is known to be 200 m. When measured with a 20 rn tape, the
length is 200.80 m. The correct length of the 20 m tape is
(a) 19.92 m (b) 19.98 m (c) 20.04 m (d) 20.08 in
125. The following figure shows entries in a field book for chain line AB. What is the distance
between trees T1 and T,?
() o
0 9T1
(a) 4 in (b) 5 in (c) 7m (d) 12rn
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126. The contour lines
(a) never intersect each other.
(b) always intersect each other.
(c) intersect in case of an overhanging cliff.
(d) None of the above
127. Minimum pitch of rivets should not be less than
(a) 3d (b) 1.5d (c) 2.od (d) 2.5d
128. The effective throat thickness of a fillet weld is
(a) equal to the size of the weld.
(b) a function of the angle between the fusion sides.
(c) length of the hypotenuse of the triangle formed.
(d) 0.7 times the size of weld.
129. For a steel member in tension, the permissible stress in axial tension is given by
(a) 0.5 f (b) 0.6 f (c) 0.66 f, (d) 0.75 f
130. For a steel column, the permissible stress in axial compression depends mainly on
(a) effective length (b) sectional area
(c) radius of gyration (d) slenderness ratio
131. For simply supported steel beam, the maximum deflection should be
(a) of the span (b) of the span
(c) ofthe span (d) ofthe span
132. The member of a roof truss which supports the purlins is known as
(a) Principal rafter (b) Principal tie (c) Main strut (d) Sag tie
133. Most economical section for a steel column is
(a) Square section (b) Circular section (c) Tubular section(d) Hexagonal section
134. The structural member in which the tensile force is acting parallel to its longitudinal axis
is called
(a) Tension member (b) Tie
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) None of these
135. The load on a lintel is assumed as uniformly distributed, if the height of the masonry
above it is upto a height of
(a) the effective span (b) 1.25 times the effective span
(c) 1 .50 times the effective span (d) 2.0 times the effective span
136. The difference between gross diameter and nominal diameter for the rivets upto 25 mm
diameter is
(a) 1.0mm (b) 1.5 mm (c) 2.0 mm (d) 2.5mm
137. The thickness of the gusset plate for column base should not be less than
(a) 6 mm (b) 8 mm (c) 12 mm (d) 40 mm
138. The angle of inclination of lacing bar with the longitudinal axis of the column should
preferably be between
(a) 10° to 30° (b) 30° to 40° (c) 40° to 70° (d) 80° to 90°
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139. The effective length of battened column is increased by
(a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 15% (d) 25%
140. If strength of joint per pitch length is equal to 2556 kg and original strength of plate per
pitch length is 4260 kg, joint efficiency will be
(a) 60% (b) 52.75% (c) 53% (d) 53.25%
141. Minimum size of weld for a 9.5 mm thick plate will be
(a) 4.0mm (b) 5.0mm (c) 6.0mm (d) 8.0mm
142. The tensile strength of M25 grade concrete will be
(a) 3.5 N/mm2 (b) 5.0 N/mm2
(c) 25.0 N/mm2 (d) 35.0 N/mm2
143. The live load taken for the design of roof of an industrial building using truss which is
accessible, is
(a) 0.75 kN/m2 (b) 1.5 kN/m2 (c) 2.0 kN/m2 (d) 5.0 kNIm2
144. The slenderness ratio of a steel column supported throughout its length by a masonry wall is
(a) zero (b) 10 (c) 100 (d) infinity
145. A strut is a
(a) flexible member (b) compression member
(c) tension member (d) torsion member
146. Which operation cannot be done easily on mild steel?
(a) Drilling (b) Punching (c) Cutting (d) Hardening
147. Two angles are placed back to back and are connected by only one leg of each angle to the
same side of a gusset plate. The net effective area is A 1 + K A2 where K is taken as
5A1 3A1 5A1 +A2 3A1 +A,
(a) 5A1+A7 (b) 3A1 +A, (c) (d) 3A1 -
5A1
148. In Unwin's formula d = ô'sji, units of d and t is taken as
(a) Millimeter (b) Meter (c) Centimeter (d) Decimeter
149. As compared to field rivets, the shop rivets are
(a) Stronger (b) Weaker (c) Equally strong (d) None of these
150. The ratio of volume of voids (vs ) in the soil to its total volume (v) is defined as
(a) Porosity (b) Void ratio
(c) Degree of saturation (d) Mass density
151. Density of the soil may be increased by
(a) Compaction (b) Consolidation (c) (a) and (h) both (d) Stabilization
152. Uniformity coefficient is the ratio of the following:
(a) D10 and D70 (b) D30 and D60 (c) D40 and D50 (d) None of these
153. The relation between void ratio (e) and degree of saturation (s) of soil is given by
S WG WS G
(a) e— (b) e— (c) ej (d) WS
where, symbols have their usual meaning.
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154. When c is cohesion, is the applied normal stress 4) is angle of internal friction, the shear
strength of the soil t will be equal to
(a) t=c—otan4) (b) t=c+atan4) (c) t=a+ctan4) (d) t=—ctan4)
155. A soil sample has a porosity of 40%. If G = 2.70, the dry density of soil will be
(7=9.8l kN/m3)
(a) 15.89 kN/rn3 (b) 31.78 kN/m3 (c) 17.85 kN/m3 (d) 19.81 kN/m3
156. Load carrying capacity of the foundation on sand, mainly depends upon
(a) length of the foundation (b) depth of foundation
(c) breadth of foundation (d) size of foundation
157. The dry unit weight of a soil sample is 1.9 gm/cc and the specific gravity is 2.65, what
will be the porosity of the soil?
(a) 29.91% (b) 28.30% (c) 2.83% (d) None of these
158 The liquid limit and plastic limit of a soil are 35% and 15% respectively. If the flow index
is 10%, then toughness index is
(a) 1.0 (b) 1.5 (c) 2.0 (d) 2.5
159. The liquid limit and plastic limit of a cohesive soil are determined in laboratory as 40%
and 20% respectively. The plasticity index of the soil will be
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 40%
160. When water content in a soil is reduced beyond the shrinkage limit
(a) the total volume of soil will reduce.
(b) the total volume of soil will remain constant.
(c) the total volume of soil will increase.
(d) None of these
161. The permeability of cohesive soil is best determined by using
(a) Falling-head permeameter (b) Constant-head permeameter
(c) Oedometer (d) None of these
162. The Darcy's law states as
(a) VocA (b) VocQ (c) Voch (d) Voci
(Notations have their usual meaning)
163. Coefficient of consolidation is measured in
(a) cm2/g (b) cm2/sec (c) g/cm2 /sec (d) g-cm/sec
164. Sheep foot roller is mostly used for the compaction of which type of soil?
(a) Clays (b) Silt (c) Sand (d) Gravel
165. The relationship between void ratio (e) and porosity (n) is
l+e 1—c e e
(a) n= e (b) (c) n- l+e (d) i —e
e
166. A pile which obtains most of its load carrying capacity at the base of pile is known as
(a) end bearing pile (b) friction pile
(c) composite pile (d) None of these
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S
167. A soil has bulk density 2.3 g/cc and water content 15%. The dry density of the soil sample
is
(a) 1.0 g/cc (b) 1.5 g/cc (c) 2.0 g/cc (d) 2.5 glcc
168. Undisturbed soil sample is obtained by
(a) Direct excavation (b) Thin walled samplers
(c) Thick walled samplers (d) Augers
169. The largest value of stability number for soil is
(a) 0.26 (b) 0.13 (c) 2 (d)
170. Maximum size of silt size particles as per 1.S. classification is
(a) 0.425 mm (b) 2 mm (c) 0.75 mm (d) 0.075 mm
171. Lime stabilisation technique is very effective to improve properties of
(a) Silty soil (b) Sandy soil
(c) Plastic clayey soil (d) Non-plastic soil
172. Coefficient of consolidation of a soil is affected by
(a) Compressibility (b) Permeability
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) None of these
173. The action of negative skin friction on the pile is to
(a) increase the ultimate load on the pile (b) reduce the allowable load on the pile
(c) maintain the working load on the pile (d) reduce the settlement
174. Which test is carried out to determine the safe tension for a pile?
(a) pull-out test (b) lateral load test (c) cyclic load test (d) none of these
175. For uniformly graded soil, the value of uniformity coefficient (ca ) is approximately
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
176. In a cohesion-less soil deposit having a unit weight of 1.5 t/m3 and an angle of internal
friction of 30°, the active and passive lateral earth pressure intensities (in tim2) at a depth
of 10 m will, respectively be
(a) l5and5 (b) 5and45
(c) 10 and 20 (d) 20 and 10
177. If K is coefficient of permeability, m is coefficient of volumetric change and is- unit
weight of water, then coefficient of consolidation will be
K m,xy Kxy,
(a) C,, — m < (b) C,, — K (c) C — m (d) None of these
178. Density index of soil is
emax
—e emax+e emax
—e
(a) 'D e (c) 'D — e
+ e (d) None of these
— e - (b) 'D — e
max—mm
e max mm
max mm
179. A pycnometer is used to determine
(a) Void ratio (b) Dry density (c) Water content (d) Density index
180. The maximum pressure which a soil can carry without shear failure is called
(a) Safe bearing capacity (b) Net safe bearing capacity
(c) Net ultimate bearing capacity (d) Ultimate bearing capacity
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Source: Uttarakhand Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Uttarakhand Public Service Commission.