UKPSC JE 2024: Uttarakhand Combined State Junior Engineer Service Examination, Agriculture Engineering (Paper-I)


Text of page 2
1. Diesel cycle efficiency is more due to following reasons :
(a) High compression ratio (b) Early cut-off
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Less load
2. Full cylinder volume is equal to
(a) Sum of piston displacement and clearance volume
(b) Difference of piston displacement and clearance volume
(c) Swept volume only
(d) Piston displacement only
3. Draft is generally measured in S.I. units are
(a) Newton (b) kg (c) N/cm2 (d) kg/cm2
4. Overheating of tractors might be due to following reasons :
(a) Radiator choked
(b) Defective water pump or thermostat valve
(c) Dirt and scale on cooling surface
(d) All of these
5. The diesel engine works on the principle of
(a) Otto cycle (b) Diesel cycle
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Carnot cycle
6. Which of the following can be used for measurement of engine power ?
(a) Prony brake dynamometer (b) Hydraulic dynamometer
(c) Strain gauge dynamometer (d) All of these
7. What are the main disadvantages of wind mills ?
(a) Construction cost is high.
(b) Minimum wind speed should be 15 km/hr.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) It can be used for all type situations.
8. The unit of wind velocity is
(a) m/s (b) kg.m/s (c) m/s2 (d) kg/m3
9. A wind mill is machine used for energy conversion of
(a) Solar energy (b) Biomass (c) Wind energy (d) Biogas
10. Electric energy is mainly used in agriculture in following operations :
(a) Pumping water (b) Operate threshing machines
(c) Chaff cutters (d) All of these
11. Which of the following is not a source of non-conventional energy ?
(a) Solar energy (b) Wind energy (c) Coal (d) Biomass
12. Renewable energy is mainly obtained from
(a) Biomass (b) Wind
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Coal
13. Solar energy can be utilized to produce electricity by the application of
(a) Solar water heater (b) Solar pond
(c) Solar cooker (d) Solar cells
Series-A 2 JAE-I
Text of page 3
1.
(a) (b) -
(c) (a) (b) (d) ()
2. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
3. .. :
(a) (b) (c) / .. (d) / ..
4.
(a)
(b)
(c) () ()
(d)
5. ?
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d)
6. () ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
7. ?
(a) (b) 15 ../
(c) (a) (b) (d)
8.
(a) / (b) ..-/ (c) / (d) ../
9.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
10. ( )
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
11. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
12. _______
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d)
13. ,
(a) (b) (c) - (d)
JAE-I 3 Series-A
Text of page 4
14. Wind energy is available in the form of
(a) Pressure energy (b) Potential energy
(c) Kinetic energy (d) Pressure & potential energy only
15. The Biogas may be used for
(a) Cooking (b) Lighting (c) In IC engines (d) All of these
16. Main limitations of solar cooker are
(a) More time consuming (b) Can not produce higher temperature
(c) Cannot be used at night (d) All of these
17. Solar cells are made of
(a) Aluminium (b) Germanium (c) Silicon (d) Silver
18. In fixed dome type biogas plant as compared to floating type biogas unit, the dimensions of
inlet and outlet are
(a) smaller (b) bigger (c) equal (d) None of these
19. In fixed dome type biogas plant, the shape of gas tank is
(a) square (b) round (c) dome type (d) rectangular type
20. Biogas in a biogas digest is produced by a chemical process known as
(a) Pyrolysis (b) Fermentation (c) Radiation (d) Heating
21. Gobar gas contains which gas in a larger proportion ?
(a) Methane (b) Ethane (c) Acetylene (d) Carbon monoxide
22. Use of biogas in diesel engine is limited to
(a) Mobile engines (b) Tractor engines
(c) Stationary engines (d) External combustion engines
23. To feed even the smallest size of biogas plant (2 m3), the minimum cattle requirement is
(a) 2 – 4 (b) 5 – 6 (c) 7 – 8 (d) 9 – 10
24. Main components of biogas plant are
(a) Mixing tank (b) Digester (c) Gas holder (d) All of these
25. In fixed dome type biogas unit, digester and gas holder forms an
(a) Above ground unit (b) Underground unit
(c) Separate unit (d) Both above and below ground unit
26. Which of the following gases are present in biogas ?
(a) O2 (b) CO2 (c) CH4 (d) Both (b) and (c)
27. Approximate heat content in biogas ranges from _____ in MJ/m3
(a) 5-20 (b) 30-40 (c) 40-50 (d) 50-60
28. Biogas is popularly known as
(a) Waste gas (b) Neutral gas (c) Gobar gas (d) Nitrogen gas
29. The optimum C : N ratio for maximum production of Biogas is
(a) 10 : 1 (b) 20 : 1 (c) 40 : 1 (d) 30 : 1
30. The Janta model of a biogas plant is a
(a) Floating drum type (b) Fixed dome type
(c) Combined type (d) Compost pit type
31. Deen Bandhu Biogas plant was developed at
(a) Lucknow (b) Bhopal (c) Patna (d) New Delhi
Series-A 4 JAE-I
Text of page 5
14. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
15.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
16. -
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
17.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
18.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
19.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
20.
(a) (-) (b) ()
(c) (d) ()
21. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
22.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
23. (2 .) _______
(a) 2 – 4 (b) 5 – 6 (c) 7 – 8 (d) 9 – 10
24.
(a) (b) () (c) (d)
25. _______
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
26. ?
(a) O2 (b) CO2 (c) CH4 (d) (b) (c)
27.
(a) 5-20 (b) 30-40 (c) 40-50 (d) 50-60
28.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
29. C : N
(a) 10 : 1 (b) 20 : 1 (c) 40 : 1 (d) 30 : 1
30.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
31. _______
(a) (b) (c) (d)
JAE-I 5 Series-A
Text of page 6
32. Minimum distance of Biogas plant from well should be
(a) 10 m (b) 15 m (c) 20 m (d) 25 m
33. National Institute of wind energy is located at
(a) Punjab (b) Rajasthan (c) Gujarat (d) Tamil Nadu
34. Wind energy is a clean energy source which helps in
(a) Reduction in carbon-dioxide production (b) Production of pollution free energy
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Obstruction on the farm
35. Characteristics of a good wind power site are
(a) Should have high wind speed
(b) There should not be obstruction for a radius of 3 km
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Less energy production in plain site
36. Blade surface of sail type wind mill is made from
(a) Cloth (b) Nylon or plastic
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Metal
37. The convertible wind power or energy by wind mill is proportional to the
(a) square of wind speed (b) cube of wind speed
(c) cube root of wind speed (d) equal to wind speed
38. National Institute of Solar Energy is located at
(a) Rajasthan (b) Punjab (c) Haryana (d) Gujarat
39. The ratio of power of wind rotor to the power available in the wind is called
(a) Ideal co-efficient (b) Power co-efficient
(c) Rotor co-efficient (d) Friction co-efficient
40. With increase in height, wind speed _____.
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains the same (d) no effect on wind speed
41. The best suited site for wind mill installation are found in
(a) Mountains (b) Plain
(c) Sea coast & off-shore (d) At farmstead
42. The contour lines of the constant wind power is called
(a) Isovent (b) Isodyne (c) Isowind (d) Isoheight
43. Wind energy is a
(a) Conventional energy (b) Non-conventional energy
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Fossil fuel
44. Which is component of wind mill ?
(a) Head (b) Tower (c) Rotor (d) All of these
45. Solar water heater consists of flat plate absorber can offer hot water with 35 – 65 C at the
rate of per m2.
(a) 50 litres (b) 40 litres (c) 30 litres (d) 20 litres
46. Which one of the following is not a component of solar cooker ?
(a) External box (b) Internal cooking box
(c) Storage tank (d) Double glass cover
Series-A 6 JAE-I
Text of page 7
32.
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25
33.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
34.
(a)
(b)
(c) (a) (b)
(d)
35. ?
(a) (b) 3 .. -
(c) (a) (b) (d)
36. _________
(a) (b)
(c) (a) (b) (d)
37.
(a) (b)
(c) - (d)
38.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
39.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
40. /
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
41.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
42.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
43. , ________
(a) (b) - (c) (a) (b) (d)
44. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
45. 35 – 65 C
(a) 50 (b) 40 (c) 30 (d) 20
46. - ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
JAE-I 7 Series-A
Text of page 8
47. Solar panels are used in agriculture for
(a) Ploughing (b) Solar water pump
(c) Biogas (d) Both (a) and (b)
48. Solar flat plate collector can be used for a variety of applications in which temperature
required ranges from
(a) less than 40 C (b) 40 – 100 C
(c) more than 106 C (d) 105 C
49. The temperature on the surface of the sun is approximately
(a) 2000 K (b) 3000 K (c) 4000 K (d) 6000 K
50. Instrument used to measure direct beam of solar irradiance is called
(a) Pyranometer (b) Net Radiometer (c) Pyrheliometer (d) Hygrometer
51. The value of air mass, when the sun is at zenith
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
52. Solar radiations received at any point of earth is called
(a) Insolation (b) Beam radiation
(c) Panel (d) Radiations per unit time
53. The typical value of voltage factor for solar cell is
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.0 (d) 3.0
54. In a solar dryer hot air enters from _____ of dryer.
(a) top (b) bottom (c) middle (d) side
55. A solar pond consists of _____ zone.
(a) four (b) three (c) two (d) one
56. Conversion of solar energy into DC electricity can be done by
(a) Solar cell (b) Fuel cell
(c) Solar thermal power plant (d) Lead acid battery
57. How many clear sunny days in a year are observed in India ?
(a) 240 days (b) 200 days (c) 300 days (d) 280 days
58. Rate of drying is influenced by _____
(a) Air temperature (b) Air humidity
(c) Air velocity (d) All of these
59. Microwave oven as dryer is an example of _____
(a) Vacuum drying (b) Dielectric drying
(c) Radiation drying (d) Freeze drying
60. The recommended temperature for drying of grain for seed purpose is
(a) 45 C (b) 60 C (c) 90 C (d) 100 C
61. Most cereals foods contains mainly _____
(a) protein (b) fat (c) starch (d) vitamins
62. Controlled atmosphere storage is used for storage of
(a) Jams (b) Juices (c) Dried product (d) Fresh fruits
63. Henderson equation is used to determine _____
(a) temperature (b) moisture content (c) pressure (d) volume
Series-A 8 JAE-I
Text of page 9
47.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b)
48.
:
(a) 40 C (b) 40 – 100 C (c) 106 C (d) 105 C
49.
(a) 2000 (b) 3000 (c) 4000 (d) 6000
50.
(a) (b) - (c) (d)
51. ,
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
52.
(a) (b) /
(c) (d)
53.
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.0 (d) 3.0
54.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
55. _______
(a) (b) (c) (d)
56. ..
(a) () (b) (c) (d)
57. ?
(a) 240 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 280
58. _________
(a) (b) (c) (d)
59. ________
(a) (b) (c) (d)
60.
(a) 45 (b) 60 (c) 90 (d) 100
61.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
62. _________
(a) (b) (c) (d)
63. _______
(a) (b) (c) (d)
JAE-I 9 Series-A
Text of page 10
64. S.I. unit of specific heat is _____
(a) kJ/kg (b) kJ/kg C (c) kJ/m (d) kJ/kg.m2
65. 400 kg of paddy is at 14 moisture content (wet basis), the dry matter of paddy is _____
(a) 320 kg (b) 330 kg (c) 370 kg (d) 344 kg
66. The ratio of mass of water vapour to mass of dry air is called _____
(a) Absolute humidity (b) Relative humidity
(c) Enthalpy (d) Percentage humidity
67. If the thickness of grain’s layer is 10 cm, which mechanical drying will be suitable ?
(a) Thin layer drying (b) Deep bed drying
(c) Hot bed drying (d) Cool bed drying
68. LSU dryers are used for which crop ?
(a) Maize (b) Mustard (c) Wheat (d) Paddy
69. Kick’s Law is _____ Law.
(a) Drying (b) Crushing (c) Storage (d) Cleaning
70. Angle of repose of wheat is in the range of
(a) 23 – 28 (b) 30 – 40 (c) 41 – 45 (d) 46 – 50
71. Manometer is used for measuring _____
(a) velocity (b) pressure (c) temperature (d) volume
72. CFTRI method is used for _____
(a) Parboiling (b) Hulling (c) Screening (d) Storage
73. A type of modern permanent storage structure is
(a) Squat silo (b) Mud Kothi (c) Kothar type structures (d) Pusa bin
74. Which of the following treatment is given in paddy parboiling ?
(a) Thermal (b) Chemical (c) Hydrothermal (d) Electrical
75. The removal of husk and bran in paddy together is known as
(a) Hulling (b) Shelling (c) Milling (d) Polishing
76. Size reduction of grains is caused by impact in which machine ?
(a) Gyrator (b) Crushing roll (c) Hammer mill (d) Jaw crusher
77. Rotary screens are commonly used in
(a) Cleaning of grains (b) Cleaning of fruits
(c) Grading of grains (d) Removal of stones
78. Soaking time in pressure steaming in paddy is approximately
(a) 20 minutes (b) 30 minutes (c) 40 minutes (d) 60 minutes
79. What is the higher temperature for seed drying ?
(a) 50 C (b) 65 C (c) 70 C (d) 80 C
80. What is the moisture content range for cold storage ?
(a) 3-6 (b) 6-10 (c) 11-12 (d) 13-15
81. In rubber roll Sheller, breakage is
(a) less (b) more
(c) No breakage (d) equal to other machines (huller)
Series-A 10 JAE-I

Text of page 12
82. What is the capacity of large size RPEC dryer ?
(a) Half ton/hr (b) One ton/hr
(c) Two ton/hr (d) More than two ton/hr
83. Which law is applicable in fine grinding ?
(a) Bond’s law (b) Kick’s law (c) Rittinger’s law (d) Henderson theory
84. Husk percentage in paddy is approximately
(a) 15 – 17 (b) 18 – 22 (c) 23 – 25 (d) 26 – 30
85. What is the oil percentage in Rice bran ?
(a) 10 – 12 (b) 14 – 16 (c) 18 – 20 (d) 22 – 24
86. In Jadhavpur university method, paddy is soaked in hot water for
(a) 1 – 3 hrs (b) 4 – 5 hrs (c) 6 – 8 hrs (d) 9 – 12 hrs
87. The material which is retained over a screen surface is called as
(a) Over size (b) Plus size (c) Under size (d) Both (a) and (b)
88. Which type of screen is used for cleaning grains ?
(a) Revolving (b) Shaking (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Stationary
89. The spiral separator separates the grain as per its
(a) volume (b) weight (c) roundness (d) moisture content
90. LSU dryer was developed at
(a) Lucknow State University (b) Ludhiana State University
(c) Lusiana State University (d) London State University
91. To remove field heat from vegetables immediately after harvesting should be
(a) pre-cooled (b) refrigerated
(c) stored at ambient temperature (d) kept open
92. The juice extraction capacity of bullock drawn sugarcane crushers ranges between
(a) 30 – 45 (b) 50 – 70 (c) 75 – 90 (d) More than 90
93. In a three roller vertical bullock driven sugarcane crusher, the position of _____ roller is
fixed.
(a) Crushing (b) King (c) Extraction (d) Drive gear
94. If the operating speed of the bullock is about 3.2 km/hr, a pair of bullocks can crush _____
sugar canes at a time.
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 6
95. The metal of construction of three rollers in vertical sugarcane crusher is
(a) Cast iron (b) Semi steel (c) Gunmetal (d) High grade steel
96. Diameter of crushing roller in a 3 roller vertical sugarcane crusher varies from
(a) 12 – 14 cm (b) 15 – 18 cm (c) 19 – 21 cm (d) More than 21 cm
97. The method of separating grain into two or more fractions according to size alone is called
(a) Cleaning (b) Grading (c) Screening (d) Sorting
98. The nature of crop grain is
(a) Aerodynamic (b) Hygroscopic (c) Wet and dry (d) Humid
99. In bullock run (wooden) ghani, how much oil loss takes place ?
(a) 7 – 8 (b) 10 – 12 (c) 13 – 15 (d) 16 – 18
Series-A 12 JAE-I
Text of page 13
82. () .... ?
(a) (b)
(c) 2 (d) 2
83. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
84.
(a) 15 – 17 (b) 18 – 22 (c) 23 – 25 (d) 26 – 30
85.
(a) 10 – 12% (b) 14 – 16% (c) 18 – 20% (d) 22 – 24%
86. , ?
(a) 1-3 (b) 4-5 (c) 6-8 (d) 9-12
87.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b)
88. ?
(a) () (b) ()
(c) (a) (b) (d)
89. _______
(a) (b) (c) (d)
90. ...
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
91.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
92.
(a) 30-45 (b) 50-70 (c) 75-90 (d) 90
93. _______
(a) (b) (c) (d)
94. 3.2 . , ______
()
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 6
95.
(a) (b) () (c) (d)
96. 3
(a) 12-14 .. (b) 15-18 .. (c) 19-21 .. (d) 21 ..
97.
(a) () (b)
(c) (d)
98. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
99. ?
(a) 7 – 8 (b) 10 – 12 (c) 13 – 15 (d) 16 – 18
JAE-I 13 Series-A
Text of page 14
100. Running life of rubber roller pair is about
(a) 80 ton (b) 90 ton (c) 100 ton (d) 120 ton
101. In deep bed drying method, following is used.
(a) Baffle type dryer (b) Batch type dryer
(c) LSU dryer (d) Cabinet dryer
102. Hammer mill works on the principle of
(a) Centrifugal (b) Impact (c) Abrasive (d) Gravitational
103. Important advantages of farm mechanization are
(a) Saving in time (b) Increased cropping intensity
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) More drudgery of workers
104. Movement of soil without sticking of the tool surface is called
(a) Grading (b) Slipping (c) Cohesion (d) Scouring
105. Tractor and agricultural implements are helpful for increase in agriculture production in
following way :
(a) Timeliness in completing farm operations (b) Reduced agricultural worker’s drudgery
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Reduced production
106. Which one of the following is not a land tillage implement ?
(a) Rotavator (b) Disc plough
(c) Seed-cum-fertilizer drill (d) Disc harrow
107. Coulter is used in
(a) Disc harrow (b) Disc plough (c) M.B. Plough (d) Seed drill
108. Rotavator can be used for
(a) Incorporation of straw (b) Green manuring
(c) Puddling (d) All of these
109. The disc spacing in a disc harrow is maintained by
(a) Gang angle (b) Spool (c) Disc angle (d) Control lever
110. The useful life of a tractor operated seed-cum-fertilizer drill is
(a) 8 yrs (b) 10 yrs (c) 12 yrs (d) 15 yrs
111. Sowing of seed can be done by
(a) Plough with seeding attachment (b) Seed sowing drill
(c) Seed-cum-fertilizer drill (d) All of these
112. Horizontal cell plate type planters have
(a) More seed damage
(b) Dropping of variable quantity of seed occurs
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Drilling in a row
113. Zero till drill is generally used in which crop rotations in India ?
(a) Paddy – Wheat (b) Cotton – Wheat
(c) Bajra – Wheat (d) Bajra - Paddy
114. Reaper is a machine used for harvesting of
(a) Grasses (b) Wheat only (c) Paddy only (d) All cereal crops
Series-A 14 JAE-I
Text of page 15
100. ?
(a) 80 (b) 90 (c) 100 (d) 120
101. , (-)
(a) (b) (c) ... (d)
102. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
103.
(a) (b)
(c) (a) (b) (d)
104.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
105.
(a) (b)
(c) (a) (b) (d)
106. ?
(a) (b) (c) - (d)
107.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
108. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
109. () :
(a) (b) (c) (d) ()
110. -
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 15
111. ?
(a) (b)
(c) - (d)
112.
(a) () (b)
(c) (a) (b) (d)
113. - - ?
(a) - (b) - (c) - (d) -
114. :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
JAE-I 15 Series-A
Text of page 16
115. In a self propelled reaper crop is guided by
(a) Star wheel (b) Lugged belt (c) Fly wheel (d) Cutter-bar
116. To reduce the breakage of grains from thresher, what adjustment is done ?
(a) Increase the feed rate
(b) Increase the clearance between drum and concave
(c) Increase the blower speed
(d) Increase the drum speed
117. The recommended threshing cylinder speed for wheat in m/s is given as
(a) 20 – 25 m/s (b) 15 – 20 m/s (c) 10 – 15 m/s (d) 5 – 10 m/s
118. The prime mover used in a power thresher is
(a) Electric motor (b) Engine (c) Tractor (d) All of these
119. Crawler type of tractors are commonly used in
(a) Earth moving (b) Land clearing (c) Harrowing (d) Both (a) and (b)
120. Which of the following are primary tillage implements ?
(a) Disc plough (b) M.B. plough (c) Sub soiler (d) All of these
121. Bull dozer is generally used for
(a) Cutting soil (b) Carrying soil upto small distance
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Seed-bed preparation
122. A harvesting machine which cuts the crop and ties them in a suitable size bundles is known
as
(a) VCR (b) Reaper binder (c) Combine (d) Straw reaper
123. The seed box of a seed drill is made of
(a) G.I. sheet (b) Mild steel (c) Wood (d) All of these
124. For better threshing efficiency for wheat the optimum moisture content should be
(a) 10 – 11 (b) 12 – 15 (c) 16 – 18 (d) 19 – 21
125. In mould board plough, vertical suction influences
(a) Width of cut (b) Depth of cut (c) Inversion (d) Pulverization
126. The depth of penetration of a disc harrow is increased by
(a) increasing tilt angle (b) highering hitch point
(c) increasing disc angle (d) reducing additional weight
127. Seed drill is calibrated for
(a) Area covered per hour (b) Seed rate per hectare
(c) Width of drill (d) Length of drill
128. Which is not the main function of combine ?
(a) Harvesting (b) Feeding crops to the threshing drum
(c) Separating the seed from straw (d) Making bhusha from straw
129. The most popular wood equipment for land levelling operation is
(a) Blade Hoe (b) Grubber
(c) Wooden logs (d) Indigenous plough
130. Share is a part of
(a) Disc plough (b) Chisel plough (c) Mould board plough (d) Sub soiler
Series-A 16 JAE-I
Text of page 17
115.
(a) (b) (c) (d) -
116. ?
(a) (b) ()
(c) (d)
117.
(a) 20 – 25 (b) 15 – 20
(c) 10 – 15 (d) 5 – 10
118.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
119.
(a) (b)
(c) () (d) (a) (b)
120. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
121.
(a) (b)
(c) (a) (b) (d)
122. ,
(a) ... (b) - (c) (d) -
123.
(a) .. (b) (c) (d)
124.
(a) 10 – 11 (b) 12 – 15 (c) 16 – 18 (d) 19 – 21
125. ( )
(a) (b) (c) (d) -
126. () ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
127.
(a) (b) ( )
(c) (d)
128. ?
(a) (b)
(c) () (d)
129.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
130.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
JAE-I 17 Series-A
Text of page 18
131. The size of a combine is given by
(a) width of cut it makes (b) area harvested per hour
(c) crop feed rate (d) capacity
132. Coulter in mould board plough does
(a) cut the furrow slice only (b) cut the furrow slice and to cut trash
(c) loosen the soil (d) cut trash only
133. Transplanting of crop is done only in case of
(a) Rice (b) Potato (c) Maize (d) Wheat
134. Hand hoe is used for which operation ?
(a) Ploughing (b) Sowing
(c) Intercultural operations (d) Harvesting crops
135. Scraper is used for the purpose of _____
(a) Ploughing (b) Sowing
(c) Harvesting crops (d) Levelling of the field
136. A dynamometer is used to measure _____ of a tractor.
(a) depth of cut (b) draft (c) speed (d) weight
137. Tandem type harrow is also called _____
(a) Single action harrow (b) Double action harrow
(c) Off- set harrow (d) Peg-tooth harrow
138. The optimum operating speed of a rotavator ranges between
(a) 150 rpm (b) 150 – 300 rpm (c) 400 – 500 rpm (d) More than 500 rpm
139. Sub soiler is the _____ tillage implement.
(a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Ordinary (d) Ditching
140. The parts of MB plough are _____
(a) Share (b) Mould board (c) Land side & frog (d) All of these
141. The horizontal component of pull perpendicular to the direction of motion is called
(a) Unit draft (b) Draft (c) Side draft (d) Force
142. The top portion of turned soil mass is called
(a) Dead furrow (b) Heel (c) Back furrow (d) Crown
143. True point of hitch of the tractor is also known as
(a) Centre of power (b) Centre of pull
(c) Centre of resistance (d) Pull of tractor
144. Doubling the speed of disc plough increases the draft about
(a) 10 to 15 (b) 15 to 20 (c) 20 to 25 (d) 25 to 30
145. Ferrule is associated with
(a) Reaper (b) Mower (c) Sickle (d) Combine
146. Registration and alignment are related with
(a) Tillage machinery (b) Harvesting machinery
(c) Cultivator (d) Harrows
147. The total draft per unit area of cross section is called
(a) Draft (b) Force (c) Torque (d) Unit draft
Series-A 18 JAE-I
Text of page 19
131.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
132.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
133. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
134. ?
(a) (b) (c) - (d)
135. _______
(a) (b) (c) (d)
136. ________
(a) (b) (c) (d)
137. ()
(a) (b) (c) (d) -
138. ()
(a) 150 (b) 150 – 300
(c) 400 – 500 (d) 500
139. - ( ) ________
(a) (b) (c) (d)
140.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
141.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
142.
(a) (b) () (c) (d)
143.
(a) (b)
(c) (d) ()
144.
(a) 10 15 (b) 15 20 (c) 20 25 (d) 25 30
145.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
146.
(a) - (b) (c) (d)
147.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
JAE-I 19 Series-A
Text of page 20
148. If the draft applied by animal is F (Newton) and speed of operation is V(m/s) then power
(kW) developed by animal would be
F·V F·V F·V F·V
(a) Power = (b) Power = (c) Power = (d) Power =
4500 1000 75 275
149. Extent of fuel wasted due to selection of wrong gear with tractor
(a) 10-15 (b) 16-20 (c) About 25-30 (d) More than 30
150. Drop arm is a component of
(a) Hydraulic system (b) Steering
(c) Transmission (d) Lubrication system
151. Engine block is made of
(a) Cast iron (b) Cast aluminium (c) Welded steel (d) All of these
152. SI engine uses the fuel like
(a) Petrol (b) Diesel (c) Petrol and diesel both (d) LPG Gas
153. Various farm operations which can be satisfactorily accomplished by power tiller are
(a) Puddling (b) Water pumping (c) Transportation (d) All of these
154. Oil pressure gauge in tractor is meant for indicating
(a) Compression pressure (b) Hydraulic oil pressure
(c) Oil pressure in lubricating system (d) Fuel injection pressure
155. Engine bore is also known as cylinder diameter which is measured in
(a) Metre2 (b) Centimetre (c) Feet (d) Centimetre2
156. Tillage system in which only isolated bands of soil are tilled is called
(a) Zero tillage (b) Minimum tillage (c) Conservation tillage (d) Strip tillage
157. Stationary work operations performed on a farm is
(a) Tractive work (b) Harvesting (c) Transportation (d) Threshing
158. The operating cost of a tractor include
(a) Fixed cost (b) Variable cost
(c) Fixed cost and variable cost (d) Only purchase value of the tractor
159. Lowest position of piston in a cylinder is called as
(a) T.D.C. (b) B.D.C. (c) Stroke (d) Bore
160. Main components of variable cost of tractor and implements are
(a) Expenditure on fuels
(b) Cost of repair and maintenance of tractors and implements
(c) Wages of labour
(d) All of these
161. The power available at the crank shaft of an engine is
(a) I.H.P. (b) F.H.P. (c) B.H.P. (d) B.H.P. + F.H.P.
162. During intake stroke in diesel engine, the pressure inside the cylinder is
(a) reduced (b) increased (c) becomes zero (d) vacuum
163. Engine weight per unit HP is more in case of
(a) Petrol engine (b) Diesel engine
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Petrol engine of mist blower (knep sack type)
Series-A 20 JAE-I
Text of page 21
148. F() V (./.) ,
() (kW)
F·V F·V
(a) () = (b) () =
4500 1000
F·V F·V
(c) () = (d) () =
75 275
149.
(a) 10-15% (b) 16-20% (c) 25-30% (d) 30%
150. ()
(a) (b) (c) (d)
151.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
152. ..
(a) (b)
(c) (d) ...
153.
(a) ( ) (b) (c) (d)
154.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
155.
(a) 2 (b) (c) (d) 2
156. -
(a) (b) (c) (d)
157.
(a) () (b)
(c) (d)
158.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
159.
(a) ... (b) ... (c) (d)
160.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
161.
(a) ... (b) ... (c) ... (d) ... + ...
162.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
163. () ( )
(a) (b)
(c) (a) (b) (d) ( )
JAE-I 21 Series-A
Text of page 22
164. The part of engine to which connecting rod is attached is
(a) Skirt (b) Sleeve (c) Main Journal (d) Crank Journal
165. The ratio of total cylinder volume to the clearance volume is called
(a) Swept volume (b) Stroke-bore ratio (c) Compression ratio (d) Clearance ratio
166. The electrolyte used in a lead acid battery is
(a) H2SO4 (b) HNO3 (c) HCl (d) NaCl
167. The clearance between rocker arm and valve stem is called
(a) Valve clearance (b) Sleeve
(c) Tappet clearance (d) Tappet movement
168. Most used power outlet of tractor is
(a) Drawbar in the rear (b) P.T.O. shaft
(c) Belt pulley (d) Mechanical steering
169. Within a given HP range, the selection of tractor is based on
(a) Primary cost (b) Resale value (c) Running cost (d) All of these
170. Pistons are attached with crank shaft with the help of
(a) Cam shaft (b) Timing gear (c) Connecting rod (d) Fly wheel
171. Compression rings are placed in the piston at
(a) Groove above the piston skirt (b) Piston grooves near piston head
(c) Lowest groove (d) Sleeve
172. The ignition timing of 4-stroke cycle engine is controlled by
(a) Cam (b) Crank (c) Connecting rod (d) Timing gear
173. Optimal annual use of tractor on farm is
(a) 750 hrs (b) 1000 hrs (c) 12000 hrs (d) 15000 hrs
174. When toe-in of front wheels of a tractor should be checked ?
(a) 120 hrs (b) 250 hrs (c) 500 hrs (d) 750 hrs
175. For complete combustion of petrol in S.I. (petrol) engine air fuel ratio should be :
(a) 12 : 1 (b) 15 : 1 (c) 18 : 1 (d) 22 : 1
176. Engine horse power of a tractor is less than
(a) P.T.O. HP (b) B.H.P. HP (c) I.H.P. HP (d) F.H.P. HP
177. Gears used in tractors are usually made of :
(a) Alloy steel (b) Cast iron (c) Cast steel (d) Chrome
178. Which type of cooling system of a tractor is suitable for hot climate ?
(a) Air cooled (b) Water cooled
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
179. If area of top of the piston is 100 cm2 and stroke length of piston is 11 cm, the piston
displacement volume will be
(a) 100 cm (b) 110 cm (c) 1100 cm3 (d) 500 cm
180. The most practicable and used method of estimation of depreciation of tractor is
(a) Straight line method (b) Declining balance method
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Zero depreciation
______________
Series-A 22 JAE-I
Text of page 23
164. ( )
(a) (b) () (c) (d)
165.
(a) (b) - (c) (d)
166. -
(a) H2SO4 (b) HNO3 (c) HCl (d) NaCl
167. ?
(a) (b) () (c) (d)
168.
(a) - (b) ... (c) (d)
169. .. ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
170. ________
(a) (b) (c) (d)
171.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
172. 4-
(a) (b) (c) (d)
173.
(a) 750 (b) 1000 (c) 12000 (d) 15000
174. - ?
(a) 120 (b) 250 (c) 500 (d) 750
175. (S.I.)
(a) 12 : 1 (b) 15 : 1 (c) 18 : 1 (d) 22 : 1
176. :
(a) ... (b) ...
(c) ... (d) ...
177. :
(a) () (b)
(c) (d)
178. ( ) ?
(a) (b)
(c) (a) (b) (d)
179. 100 .. 11 .. ,
(a) 100 .. (b) 110 .. (c) 1100 .. (d) 500 ..
180.
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (d)
______________
JAE-I 23 Series-A
Text of page 24
Space For Rough Work / Series-A 24 JAE-I




Page 1 of 24
Source: Uttarakhand Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Uttarakhand Public Service Commission.