UKPSC JE 2024: Uttarakhand Combined State Junior Engineer Service Examination, Mechanical Engineering (Paper-II)
Text of page 2
1. Which of the following is not the part of the carriage of a lathe ?
(a) Saddle (b) Cross-slide (c) Tool post (d) Tail-stock
2. For turning steep and short taper, which taper turning method is used ?
(a) Compound rest method (b) Tail-stock set over method
(c) Taper turning attachment method (d) Forming tool method
3. High rate of material removal is in :
(a) EDM (b) LBM (c) USM (d) ECM
4. In AJM process, nozzles are made of the following material :
(a) WC (b) low carbon steel (c) SS (d) HSS
5. For USM, liquid used should not have following property :
(a) Good wetting characteristics (b) High thermal conductivity
(c) Anti-corrosive property (d) High viscosity
6. Which of the following is not a drilling and boring tool ?
(a) Auger (b) Bradawl (c) Gimlet (d) Spoke
7. Forging temperature of brass is
(a) 550 °C to 900 °C (b) 100 °C to 550 °C
(c) 550 °C to 1200 °C (d) 900 °C to 1200 °C
8. Spigot and Socket joint is a type of :
(a) Pipe joint (b) Weld joint (c) Soldering (d) Wood joint
9. In thread cutting process, which tap is used in last ?
(a) Plug tap (b) Bottoming tap (c) Taper tap (d) None of these
10. Gear finishing operation is called
(a) Shaping (b) Milling (c) Hobbing (d) Burnishing
11. Buffing process is employed.
(a) to remove the material by CBN abrasive.
(b) to remove the material by diamond abrasive.
(c) to improve dimensional accuracy.
(d) to get perfectly flat surface.
12. A mortise gauge is a
(a) striking tool (b) planing tool (c) boring tool (d) marking tool
13. Lap joint employed on plate having thickness :
(a) less than 3 mm (b) 5 to 10 mm (c) 12.5 mm (d) above 25 mm
14. The taper in the lathe spindle is :
(a) 1:10 (b) 1:12 (c) 1:15 (d) 1:20
Series-A 2 JME-II
Text of page 3
1. ?
(a) (b) - (c) (d) -
2. ?
(a) (b) -
(c) (d)
3. :
(a) ... (EDM) (b) ... (LBM)
(c) ... (USM) (d) ... (ECM)
4. AJM :
(a) .. (WC) (b) (c) .. (SS) (d) ... (HSS)
5. USM :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
6. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7.
(a) 550 °C 900 °C (b) 100 °C 550 °C
(c) 550 °C 1200 °C (d) 900 °C 1200 °C
8.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
10.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
11. ?
(a) CBN (b)
(c) (d)
12.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
13.
(a) 3 mm (b) 5 10 mm (c) 12.5 mm (d) 25 mm
14. ()
(a) 1:10 (b) 1:12 (c) 1:15 (d) 1:20
JME-II 3 Series-A
Text of page 4
15. Core print is used in moulding for :
(a) supporting the core (b) making hollow space in mould
(c) removing the core (d) making core
16. Which one of the following is not an advantage of timber reasoning ?
(a) Wood becomes hard. (b) Wood density decreases.
(c) Wood density increases. (d) Wood becomes sensitive to fire.
17. Draw cut type shaper cuts in
(a) forward stroke (b) backward stroke (c) both the strokes (d) None of these
18. Involute gear on a milling machine is cut by using
(a) spiral cutter (b) slab milling cutter
(c) angle milling cutter (d) differential indexing head
19. Trepanning operation is for
(a) a large hole without drilling (b) a finished drilled hole
(c) enlarged hole after drilling (d) None of these
20. For high tensile strength material the abrasive recommended for grinding is :
(a) Al2O3 (b) SiO2 (c) Ceramic sand (d) Sand stone
21. The degrees of freedom of a rigid body in space is :
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 18
22. Several machine tools can be controlled by a central computer in case of :
(a) DNC machine tool (b) CNC machine tool
(c) NC machine tool (d) ACS machine tool
23. Which of the following jig is used for easily drilling a number of holes on a component from
different angles ?
(a) Ring Jig (b) Box Jig (c) Plate Jig (d) Leaf Jig
24. Binding material used in cemented carbide cutting tool is
(a) Graphite (b) Lead (c) Carbon (d) Cobalt
25. In a machine tool, cutting force and power involved can be measured by :
(a) Comparator (b) Dynamometer (c) Transducer (d) Pyrometer
26. What is the variation of cutting speed with tool life on log-log scale ?
(a) Parabolic (b) Straight line (c) Elliptical (d) Hyperbolic
27. The suitable cutting fluid for machining of alloy steel is
(a) Kerosene (b) Water
(c) Dry (d) Sulphurised mineral oil
28. A drill bit with zero rake angle is known as
(a) Flat drill (b) Straight fluted drill
(c) Blind drill (d) Parallel shank twist drill
29. The hardness of a grinding wheel is expressed by
(a) Letter/Alphabet (b) Brinell hardness number
(c) Diameter of indentor (d) Rockwell hardness number
Series-A 4 JME-II
Text of page 5
15. ?
(a) () (b)
(c) (d)
16. () ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
17.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
18.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
19. :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
20.
(a) Al2O3 (b) SiO2 (c) (d) -
21. ,
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 18
22. - ?
(a) DNC - (b) CNC -
(c) NC - (d) ACS -
23. ,
?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
24. ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
25. -
(a) (b) (c) (d)
26. - - ?
(a) (b) (c) - (d)
27.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
28. , ,
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
29.
(a) / (b) (c) (d)
JME-II 5 Series-A
Text of page 6
30. Which among the following, looks similar to planer type milling machine ?
(a) Universal housing planing machine (b) Single housing planing machine
(c) Rotary table planing machine (d) Double housing planing machine
31. Which standard taper is generally used in milling machine spindle ?
(a) Brown and sharp taper (b) Seller’s taper
(c) Chapman taper (d) Morse taper
32. String milling machine is used for
(a) small work-pieces (b) large work-pieces
(c) heavy and hollow work-pieces (d) All of these
33. If L = length of cut, N = rpm, f = feed/rev, then machining time in boring operation is
expressed as :
N
(a) (f × N)/L (b) (f × L)/N (c) L/(N × f) (d)
(f × L)
34. While performing thread cutting operation using a lathe machine, a single point thread
cutting tool has
(a) any value of rake angle (b) zero rake angle
(c) positive rake angle (d) negative rake angle
35. In a metal machining operation, surface roughness is expressed as
(a) Feed2/4 × nose radius (b) Feed2/8 × nose radius
(c) Feed2/12 × nose radius (d) Feed2 / nose radius
36. For machining operation of Elbow pipe, which combination is used as work holding device ?
(a) Face plate with angle plate (b) Face plate with dog plate
(c) Angle plate with dog plate (d) None of these
37. Which one among the following cannot be a specification of lathe machine ?
(a) Size of chuck (b) Distance between centres
(c) Length of bed (d) Swing over diameter
38. In shaper, feed on the work-piece is provided by moving
(a) vice (b) quick return mechanism
(c) ram (d) table
39. Which cutting tool is used in the planer machine ?
(a) Profile tool (b) Single point cutting tool
(c) Double point cutting tool (d) Multipoint cutting tool
40. The cutting velocity is minimum for following machining operation :
(a) Turning (b) Drilling (c) Grinding (d) Milling
Series-A 6 JME-II
Text of page 7
30. , ?
(a) ()
(b)
(c)
(d)
31. : ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
32. - :
(a) - (b) -
(c) - (d)
33. L = , N = , f = /,
?
N
(a) (f × N)/L (b) (f × L)/N (c) L/(N × f) (d)
(f × L)
34. ,
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
35. , ?
(a) 2/4 × (b) 2/8 ×
(c) 2/12 × (d) 2/
36. , ?
(a) , (b) ,
(c) , (d)
37. , ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
38. - :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
39. , ?
(a) (b)
(c) - (d) -
40. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
JME-II 7 Series-A
Text of page 8
41. Lathe bed is usually made of
(a) structural steel (b) stainless steel (c) cast iron (d) mild steel
42. Lip angle of a single point tool is of the order of :
(a) 10°-20° (b) 30°-45° (c) 50°-60° (d) 60°-80°
43. The locating and clamping elements are generally made from
(a) epoxy concrete (b) steel (c) brass (d) aluminium
44. Which of the following is not a lathe fixture ?
(a) Four jaw chuck (b) Collet (c) Mandrels (d) Arbor
45. To machine a hole or groove shape, which machine is used ?
(a) Slotting machine (b) Milling machine
(c) Broaching machine (d) Cylindrical grinding machine
46. Which one of the following is not a mechanism for the conversion of rotatory into translatory
motion ?
(a) Slider-crank mechanism (b) Rack and pinion mechanism
(c) Pitch mechanism (d) Screw and nut mechanism
47. Which one of the following is not a type of maintenance of machine tool ?
(a) Corrective maintenance (b) Progressive maintenance
(c) Preventive maintenance (d) Predictive maintenance
48. Interchangeability can be achieved by
(a) Standardisation (b) Better process planning
(c) Simplification (d) Better product planning
49. Internal gears are made through
(a) hobbing (b) shaping with pinion cutter
(c) shaping with rack cutter (d) milling
50. Which one of the following is not a type of grinding wheel failure mode ?
(a) Attritious wear (b) Erosive wear (c) Grain fracture (d) Bond fracture
51. In terms of cutting tool material, CBN stands for :
(a) Carbon Boron Nitride (b) Cubic Boron Nitride
(c) Cubic Borox Nitrogen (d) Carbon Boron Nitrogen
52. The type of flow in which the velocity at any given time does not change with respect to
space is called
(a) steady flow (b) unsteady flow (c) rotational flow (d) compressible flow
53. The co-efficient of discharge of an orificemeter in comparison with a venturimeter is
(a) equal (b) much smaller (c) much more (d) None of these
Series-A 8 JME-II
Text of page 9
41.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
42.
(a) 10°-20° (b) 30°-45° (c) 50°-60° (d) 60°-80°
43.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
44. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
45. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
46. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
47. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
48.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
49.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
50. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
51. ... (CBN)
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
52. ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
53. :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
JME-II 9 Series-A
Text of page 10
54. The channel flow is subcritical when Froude Number (Fr) :
(a) Fr < 1 (b) Fr = 1 (c) Fr > 1 (d) Fr = –1
55. Maximum discharge over a broad crested weir is given by : (where the symbols have
standard meanings)
(a) Q = Cd L H3/2 (b) Q = 0.5 Cd LH5/2
(c) Q = 1.705 Cd LH3/2 (d) Q = 1.705 Cd LH5/2
56. In case of laminar flow, the loss of pressure head is proportional to
(a) Velocity (b) (Velocity)2 (c) (Velocity)0.5 (d) (Velocity)1.5
57. Which property of mercury is the main reason for use in barometers ?
(a) High density (b) Negligible capillary effect
(c) Very low vapour pressure (d) Low compressibility
58. Multistage centrifugal pumps are used for :
(a) High discharge (b) High head (c) Pump viscous fluids (d) All of these
59. The relation between hydraulic efficiency (h), mechanical efficiency (m) and overall
efficiency (o) is :
(a) h = o × m (b) m = o × h (c) o = h × m (d) None of these
60. The unit of surface tension is :
(a) N/m (b) N/m2 (c) N/m3 (d) N-m
61. Impulse turbine is used for
(a) low head (b) high head (c) medium head (d) high flow
62. Froude’s number is the ratio of Inertia force to
(a) pressure force (b) elastic force
(c) gravity force (d) surface tension force
63. One poise is equal to
(a) 0.1 N-s/m2 (b) 1 N-s/m2 (c) 10 N-s/m2 (d) 100 N-s/m2
64. A piezometer tube is used for measuring
(a) temperature (b) humidity (c) pressure (d) None of these
65. If the flow is irrotational as well as steady, it is known as
(a) unsteady flow (b) rotational flow (c) non-uniform flow (d) potential flow
66. Which of the following equation is known as momentum principle ?
d(m2v) dv d(mv) d(mv)
(a) F = (b) F = (c) F = 2 (d) F =
dt dt dt dt
67. According to Chezy’s formula, the discharge through an open channel is :
Where
A = Area of flow
C = Chezy’s constant
m = hydraulic mean depth
i = uniform slope in bed
(a) A m × i (b) C m × i (c) AC m × i (d) mi A × C
Series-A 10 JME-II
Text of page 11
54. (Fr) :
(a) Fr < 1 (b) Fr = 1 (c) Fr > 1 (d) Fr = –1
55. : ( )
(a) Q = Cd L H3/2 (b) Q = 0.5 Cd LH5/2
(c) Q = 1.705 Cd LH3/2 (d) Q = 1.705 Cd LH5/2
56. :
(a) (b) ()2 (c) ()0.5 (d) ()1.5
57. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
58. :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
59. (h), (m) (o)
(a) h = o × m (b) m = o × h (c) o = h × m (d)
60.
(a) N/m (b) N/m2 (c) N/m3 (d) N-m
61.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
62. ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
63. :
(a) 0.1 N-s/m2 (b) 1 N-s/m2 (c) 10 N-s/m2 (d) 100 N-s/m2
64. :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
65. - ,
(a) (b) (c) - (d)
66. ?
d(m2v) dv d(mv) d(mv)
(a) F = (b) F = (c) F = (d) F =
dt dt dt2 dt
67. , :
A =
C =
m =
i =
(a) A m × i (b) C m × i (c) AC m × i (d) mi A × C
JME-II 11 Series-A
Text of page 12
68. The critical depth for a channel is given by :
Where q = unit discharge through channel and g = gravitational acceleration
1 1 1
1
q 2 q2 3 q3 4 q4 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
g g g g
69. The efficiency of a hydraulic press is given by :
where
W = Weight lifted by Ram
P = Force applied on plunger
A = Area of Ram
a = Area of plunger
W A P a W a P A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
P a W A P A W a
70. The loss of head at entrance in the pipe is equal to
(Where = velocity of liquid in the pipe)
(a) 2/2g (b) 0.5 2/2g (c) 0.375 2/2g (d) 0.75 2/2g
71. Stoke is the unit of
(a) Kinematic viscosity in C.G.S. unit (b) Kinematic viscosity in M.K.S. unit
(c) Dynamic viscosity in M.K.S. unit (d) Dynamic viscosity in S.I. unit
72. The maximum hydraulic efficiency of an impulse turbine
(Where = angle of blade tip at outlet)
1 cos θ 1 cos θ 1 sin θ 1 sin θ
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 2 2
73. In case of fluid flow through pipes, cavitation is caused by :
(a) low pressure below a limit (b) weak material of pipe
(c) high pressure (d) high velocity
74. For what value of depth of flow, the discharge over a broad crested weir is maximum ?
(Where H is the available head)
(a) H/3 (b) H/2 (c) H (d) 2 H/3
75. The metacentric height of a ship is 0.1 m and the radius of gyration is 5 m. What would be
the time of rolling of the ship ? (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 10 sec (b) 5 sec (c) 20 sec (d) 15 sec
76. Vapour compression cycle is modification of :
(a) Reversed Carnot cycle (b) Rankine cycle
(c) Bell-Colman cycle (d) None of these
77. The boiling point of Ammonia is :
(a) – 100 °C (b) – 50 °C (c) – 33.3 °C (d) 0 °C
Series-A 12 JME-II
Text of page 13
68. :
q = g =
1 1 1 1
q 2 q 2 3 q3 4 q4 5
(a) (b) (c) (d)
g g g g
69. :
W =
P =
A =
a =
W A P a W a P A
(a) (b) (c) (d)
P a W A P A W a
70. :
( = )
(a) 2/2g (b) 0.5 2/2g (c) 0.375 2/2g (d) 0.75 2/2g
71. :
(a) ... (b) ...
(c) ... (d) S.I. (..)
72. :
( = )
1 cos θ 1 cos θ 1 sin θ 1 sin θ
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 2 2
73.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
74. ?
( H )
(a) H/3 (b) H/2 (c) H (d) 2 H/3
75. 0.1 5
? (g = 10 m/s2 )
(a) 10 sec (b) 5 sec (c) 20 sec (d) 15 sec
76. - :
(a) (b)
(c) - (d)
77.
(a) – 100 °C (b) – 50 °C (c) – 33.3 °C (d) 0 °C
JME-II 13 Series-A
Text of page 14
78. One Ton refrigeration is equal to :
(a) 50 kcal/min (b) 50 kcal/hr (c) 80 kcal/min (d) 1000 kcal/day
79. In a refrigerator, the flow of refrigerant is controlled by :
(a) Compressor (b) Condenser (c) Evaporator (d) Expansion valve
80. Which of the following refrigeration plant requires no electricity ?
(a) Vapour absorption (b) Vapour compression
(c) Air refrigeration (d) None of these
81. On psychrometric chart, wet bulb temperature lines are
(a) horizontal lines (b) vertical lines
(c) straight inclined lines (d) None of these
82. The sensible heat factor is given by :
(Where S = Sensible heat, L = Latent heat)
S L S L S
(a) (b) (c) (d)
S L S L S S L
83. The most suitable refrigerant for commercial ice plant is :
(a) Brine (b) Ammonia (c) Freon (d) Air
84. The humidifying efficiency is given by :
(Where B = Bypass factor during sensible cooling)
1 1
(a) 1 – B (b) B – 1 (c) (d)
B 1–B
85. The working fluid used for absorption refrigerators working on heat from solar collectors is
a mixture of water and _______.
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Sulphur dioxide (c) Lithium Bromide (d) Freon – 12
86. In vapour compression refrigeration system, at entrance to which component, the working
fluid is super-heated vapour ?
(a) Evaporator (b) Condenser (c) Compressor (d) Expansion valve
87. Which of the following is undesirable property of refrigerant ?
(a) Low viscosity (b) Low freezing point
(c) Low latent heat of vaporization (d) Satisfactorily miscible with lubricating oil
88. Chemical formula for R22 refrigerant is
(a) Mono chloro di fluoro methane (b) Tri chloro mono fluoro methane
(c) Di chloro mono fluoro methane (d) Di chloro di fluoro methane
Series-A 14 JME-II
Text of page 15
78.
(a) 50 kcal/min (b) 50 kcal/hr (c) 80 kcal/min (d) 1000 kcal/day
79. :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
80. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
81.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
82. :
( S = , L = )
S L S L S
(a) (b) (c) (d)
S L S L S S L
83.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
84. :
( B = )
1 1
(a) 1 – B (b) B – 1 (c) (d)
B 1–B
85.
, _____
(a) (b)
(c) (d) – 12
86. , ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
87. , ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
88. R22
(a) - (b) -
(c) - (d) -
JME-II 15 Series-A
Text of page 16
89. In vapour compression refrigeration system, the sub-cooling of refrigerants in the condenser
results in :
(a) Decrease in COP of the system (b) Decrease in the size of the condenser
(c) Increase in the size of the evaporator (d) Increase in the size of the compressor
90. When discharge pressure is too high in refrigeration system, why is high pressure control
installed ?
(a) To stop the cooling fan (b) To stop water circulating pump
(c) To regulate the flow of cooling water (d) To stop the compressor
91. COP of air refrigerator is related with COP of vapour compression refrigerator as
(a) (COP) air > (COP) vap. C. (b) (COP) air < (COP) vap. C.
(c) (COP) air = (COP) vap. C. (d) None of these
92. In an ideal vapour absorption system, the absorber pressure is equal to the pressure of :
(a) Generator (b) Condenser (c) Evaporator (d) Expansion device
93. If air is heated without changing its moisture content, the dew point will _______.
(a) increase (b) decrease (c) remain the same (d) be unpredictable
94. If air is passed over the cooling coils, this process is termed as :
(a) sensible heating (b) cooling with humidification
(c) cooling with dehumidification (d) None of these
95. In a psychrometric process, if the sensible heat added is 30 kJ/s and latent heat added is
20 kJ/s, then the sensible heat factor will be :
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.6 (c) 0.67 (d) 1.5
96. The relative Coefficient Of Performance (COP) is :
(a) actual COP / theoretical COP (b) theoretical COP / actual COP
actual COP
(c) actual COP × theoretical COP (d) 1 –
theoretical COP
97. The higher temperature in vapour compression refrigeration cycle occurs at :
(a) evaporator (b) condenser discharge
(c) compressor discharge (d) expansion valve
98. Pick up the correct statement about giving up of heat from one medium to other in ammonia
absorption refrigeration system.
(a) strong solution to weak solution (b) ammonia vapour to weak solution
(c) weak solution to strong solution (d) ammonia vapour to strong solution
99. The normal boiling point of refrigerant R-11 in comparison to refrigerant R-12 is :
(a) higher (b) lower (c) equal (d) None of these
Series-A 16 JME-II
Text of page 17
89.
(a) COP (b)
(c) (d)
90. , ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
91. :
(a) (COP) air > (COP) vap. C. (b) (COP) air < (COP) vap. C.
(c) (COP) air = (COP) vap. C. (d)
92. , ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
93. , , ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
94. ,
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
95. 30 kJ/s 20 kJ/s
,
(a) 0.3 (b) 0.6 (c) 0.67 (d) 1.5
96. (COP)
(a) .../ ... (b) .../ ...
...
(c) ... ... (d) 1 –
...
97. -
(a) (b) (c) (d)
98.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
99. R-12 , R-11
(a) (b) (c) (d)
JME-II 17 Series-A
Text of page 18
100. Vertical lines on pressure-enthalpy chart shows :
(a) Constant pressure lines (b) Constant temperature lines
(c) Constant enthalpy lines (d) Constant entropy lines
101.
On psychrometric chart, OC line represents
(a) dehumidifying (b) heating (c) cooling (d) humidifying
102. The value of sensible heat factor quite common in air-conditioning practice in a normal dry
climate is :
(a) 0.35 to 0.40 (b) 0.45 to 0.55 (c) 0.65 to 0.70 (d) 0.75 to 0.80
103. Centrifugal compressor is a type of _____ compressor.
(a) reciprocating (b) rotary (c) Both (d) None of these
104. Which one of the following is a boiler mounting ?
(a) Feed pump (b) Fusible plug (c) Superheater (d) Economiser
105. Which of the following is not true about steam engine ?
(a) These may be used in locomotive trains.
(b) They run on coal.
(c) They are a type of I.C. engine.
(d) Piston cylinder arrangement is there in a steam engine.
106. Which of the following is a water tube boiler ?
(a) Lancashire boiler (b) Babcock & Wilcox boiler
(c) Locomotive boiler (d) Cochran boiler
107. Which of the following is not a boiler mounting ?
(a) Blow off cock (b) Feed check valve (c) Economiser (d) Fusible plug
108. The isothermal efficiency of a compressor is defined as
(a) Isothermal work / Actual work (b) Adiabatic work / Actual work
(c) Actual work / Isothermal work (d) Actual work / Adiabatic work
109. Which of the following is a high pressure boiler ?
(a) Lancashire boiler (b) Benson boiler
(c) Locomotive boiler (d) Cochran boiler
110. In which coal firing system coal is fed through compressed air ?
(a) Pulverized firing (b) Stoker firing
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
Series-A 18 JME-II
Text of page 19
100. -
(a) (b) (c) (d)
101.
, OC :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
102. ,
(a) 0.35 0.40 (b) 0.45 0.55 (c) 0.65 0.70 (d) 0.75 0.80
103. _____
(a) (b) (c) (d)
104. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
105. - ?
(a) (b)
(c) I.C. (d)
106. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
107. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
108.
(a) / (b) /
(c) / (d) /
109. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
110. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (a) (b) (d)
JME-II 19 Series-A
Text of page 20
111. Arrange Pelton, Francis and Kaplan turbines in the decreasing order of specific speed.
(a) Kaplan, Francis, Pelton (b) Francis, Kaplan, Pelton
(c) Pelton, Francis, Kaplan (d) Francis, Pelton, Kaplan
Heat converted into useful work
112. The ratio in turbine is called
Total adiabatic heat drop
(a) Rankine efficiency (b) Blade efficiency
(c) Overall efficiency (d) Internal efficiency
113. In which type of turbine, the expansion of steam does not take place in the moving blade ?
(a) Impulse turbine (b) Reaction turbine (c) Mixed turbine (d) None of these
114. Which stroke is not there in a 2-stroke engine ?
(a) Compression (b) Expansion (c) Exhaust (d) Both (a) and (b)
115. Which of the following refrigerant is not harmful for ozone layer ?
(a) R – 12 (b) R – 11 (c) R – 22 (d) R – 134 a
116. Hot air engine is an example of
(a) Internal combustion engine (b) Rotary engines
(c) Rotary and reciprocating engines (d) External combustion engine
117. The thermodynamic cycle on which the petrol engine works is :
(a) Otto cycle (b) Joule cycle (c) Rankine cycle (d) Stirling cycle
118. The Frictional Power (F.P.) is given by :
Where
(B.P. = Brake Power, I.P. = Indicated Power)
(a) F.P. = B.P. – I.P. (b) F.P. = I.P. – B.P.
(c) F.P. = B.P. / I.P. (d) F.P. = I.P. / B.P.
119. The octane number of petrol, generally available is :
(a) 20 to 40 (b) 40 to 60 (c) 60 to 80 (d) 80 to 100
120. Piston rings are usually made of
(a) Cast iron (b) Aluminium (c) Brass (d) Carbon Steel
121. The spark plug gap normally in petrol engine is :
(a) 0.1 to 0.2 mm (b) 0.2 to 0.4 mm (c) 0.6 to 1.8 mm (d) 2 to 3 mm
122. Calorific value of diesel oil is :
(a) 3000 kcal/kg (b) 5000 kcal/kg (c) 7500 kcal/kg (d) 10000 kcal/kg
123. In forced circulation boilers, about 90% of water is recirculated without evaporation. The
circulation ratio is :
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.9 (c) 9 (d) 10
Series-A 20 JME-II
Text of page 21
111. , :
(a) , , (b) , ,
(c) , , (d) , ,
112. / ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
113. ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
114. 2- ?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b)
115. ?
(a) R – 12 (b) R – 11 (c) R – 22 (d) R – 134 a
116.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
117. :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
118. (F.P.) :
( B.P. = , I.P. = )
(a) F.P. = B.P. – I.P. (b) F.P. = I.P. – B.P.
(c) F.P. = B.P. / I.P. (d) F.P. = I.P. / B.P.
119. :
(a) 20 40 (b) 40 60 (c) 60 80 (d) 80 100
120. : :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
121. : :
(a) 0.1 0.2 mm (b) 0.2 0.4 mm (c) 0.6 1.8 mm (d) 2 3 mm
122.
(a) 3000 kcal/kg (b) 5000 kcal/kg (c) 7500 kcal/kg (d) 10000 kcal/kg
123. , 90
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.9 (c) 9 (d) 10
JME-II 21 Series-A
Text of page 22
124. Critical pressure for steam is :
(a) 184 bar (b) 163 bar (c) 221 bar (d) 252 bar
125. If vb = blade speed
v = Absolute velocity of steam entering the blade
= nozzle angle
The efficiency of an impulse turbine is maximum when :
(a) vb = 0.5 v cos (b) vb = v cos
(c) vb = 0.5 v2 cos (d) vb = v2 cos
126. Throttle governing in steam turbines :
(a) leads to significant pressure loss (b) increases the efficiency
(c) increases heat loss (d) decreases steam temperature
127. Morse test is conducted for
(a) single cylinder engine only
(b) single cylinder and multi cylinder engine both
(c) multi cylinder engine only
(d) None of these
128. The order of values of thermal efficiency of Otto, Diesel and Dual Cycles, when they have
equal compression ratios and heat rejections, is given by
(a) otto > diesel > dual (b) diesel > dual > otto
(c) dual > diesel > otto (d) otto > dual > diesel
129. The part load and thermal efficiency of two stroke cycle engines as compared to four stroke
cycle engines is :
(a) higher (b) equal (c) unpredictable (d) lower
130. The efficiency of an Otto cycle is 60% and = 1.5, determine the compression ratio.
(a) 5.15 (b) 6.25 (c) 7.25 (d) 8.25
131. Which one of the following types of swirls is generated by a pre-combustion chamber in the
diesel engine ?
(a) Squish (b) Compression swirl
(c) Induction swirl (d) Combustion induced swirl
132. An engine produces 10 kW brake power, while working with a brake thermal efficiency of
30%. If the calorific value of the fuel used is 40,000 kJ/kg, then what is the fuel
consumption ?
(a) 1.5 kg/hr (b) 3.0 kg/hr (c) 0.3 kg/hr (d) 1.0 kg/hr
Series-A 22 JME-II
Text of page 23
124.
(a) 184 bar (b) 163 bar (c) 221 bar (d) 252 bar
125. vb =
v =
=
,
(a) vb = 0.5 v cos (b) vb = v cos
(c) vb = 0.5 v2 cos (d) vb = v2 cos
126.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
127. :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
128. , ,
, :
(a) otto > diesel > dual (b) diesel > dual > otto
(c) dual > diesel > otto (d) otto > dual > diesel
129. -
(a) (b) (c) (d)
130. 60 = 1.5 ,
(a) 5.15 (b) 6.25 (c) 7.25 (d) 8.25
131. () ()
?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
132. 30 10 kW
40,000 kJ/kg , ?
(a) 1.5 kg/hr (b) 3.0 kg/hr (c) 0.3 kg/hr (d) 1.0 kg/hr
JME-II 23 Series-A
Text of page 24
133. Phenomenon of choking in compressor means
(a) no flow of air.
(b) fixed mass flow rate regardless of pressure ratio.
(c) reducing mass flow rate with increase in pressure ratio.
(d) increased inclination of chord with air stream.
134. The work input of a compressor is minimum when the law followed by compression is :
(a) isentropic : PV = C (b) isothermal : PV = C
(c) PV1.35 = C (d) PV1.25 = C
135. Convert pressure head of 10 m of water in terms of liquid with specific gravity of 0.8.
(a) 8.5 m (b) 10.5 m (c) 11.5 m (d) 12.5 m
136. The ratio of work done to the energy supplied to rotor in a turbine stage is called
(a) Blade efficiency (b) Stage efficiency
(c) Nozzle efficiency (d) None of these
137. A single stage impulse turbine with diameter of 120 cm runs at 3000 rpm. If the blade speed
ratio is 0.42, the inlet velocity of steam will be :
(a) 200 m/s (b) 450 m/s (c) 900 m/s (d) 80 m/s
138. In a surface condenser used in a steam power station, undercooling of condensate is
undesirable as this would :
(a) not absorb the gases in steam (b) reduce efficiency of the plant
(c) increase the cooling water requirements(d) increase thermal stresses in the condenser
139. Formation of steam bubbles on the surface of boiler water is due to :
(a) low surface temperature of the water (b) high surface temperature of the water
(c) high surface tension of the water (d) low surface tension of the water
140. Equivalent evaporation may be defined as the amount of water evaporated from water at
100 °C to :
(a) wet and dry steam at 100 °C (b) wet and saturated steam at 100 °C
(c) dry and saturated steam at 150 °C (d) dry and saturated steam at 100 °C
141. In Jet condensers :
(a) cooling water passes through tubes and steam surrounds them.
(b) steam passes through tubes and cooling water surrounds them.
(c) steam and cooling water mix.
(d) steam and cooling water do not mix.
Series-A 24 JME-II
Text of page 25
133.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
134. , :
(a) : PV = C (b) : PV = C
(c) PV1.35 = C (d) PV1.25 = C
135. 10 m 0.8
(a) 8.5 m (b) 10.5 m (c) 11.5 m (d) 12.5 m
136.
(a) (b) (c) () (d)
137. 120 .. 3000 ... (rpm)
0.42 , ?
(a) 200 m/s (b) 450 m/s (c) 900 m/s (d) 80 m/s
138. ,
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
139. :
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
140. , 100 C ,
?
(a) 100 C (b) 100 C
(c) 150 C (d) 100 C
141.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
JME-II 25 Series-A
Text of page 26
142. In resistance welding, the current in comparison to Arc welding is :
(a) less (b) more
(c) equal (d) Current does not flow in resistance welding
143. In Tungsten Inert Gas Welding (TIG) which of the gas can be used ?
(a) Acetylene (C2H2) (b) Oxygen (O2)
(c) Helium (He) (d) All of these
144. The speed at which electrode moves or deposition takes place is known as
(a) Electrode speed (b) Operation speed (c) Machine speed (d) Welding speed
145. The ability of sand to take up the desired shape is known as
(a) Adhesiveness (b) Cohesiveness (c) Binding (d) Flowability
146. To completely burn one mole of Acetylene, how many moles of oxygen are required ?
(a) 1.0 (b) 1.2 (c) 0.8 (d) 2.5
147. Match plate pattern is used in _____ moulding.
(a) Floor (b) Machine (c) Three-box (d) Plate
148. Part produced by powder metallurgy is often termed as ______ part.
(a) cast (b) sintered (c) machined (d) None of these
149. In a rolling process, the roll separating force can be reduced by
(a) increasing friction between roll & work-piece
(b) providing the back-up roll
(c) decreasing the roll diameter
(d) increasing the roll diameter
150. Which one of the following options describes the disadvantage of the cold forging
process ?
(a) Enhanced surface finish (b) Residual stresses are generated
(c) Elimination of wasted material (d) Improvement in mechanical properties
151. In press working operation, if the sheet metal punched out portion is the required product,
then the name of operation is
(a) Piercing (b) Lancing (c) Shaving (d) Blanking
152. In powder metallurgy, the desirable compression ratio for making product from metallic
powder is :
(a) 3:1 (b) 5:1 (c) 7:1 (d) 9:1
153. Which of the following is not true about centrifugal casting ?
(a) It produces hollow products. (b) Core is used.
(c) Mould is used. (d) The mould is rotating.
Series-A 26 JME-II
Text of page 27
142.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
143. ... (TIG) ?
(a) (C2H2) (b) (O2)
(c) (He) (d)
144. ,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
145.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
146. (mole) ?
(a) 1.0 (b) 1.2 (c) 0.8 (d) 2.5
147. _____
(a) (b) (c) - (d)
148. - : _____
(a) (b) (c) (d)
149. ,
(a) - (b) -
(c) (d)
150. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
151. , ,
(a) (b) (c) , (d)
152. -
(a) 3:1 (b) 5:1 (c) 7:1 (d) 9:1
153. ?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
JME-II 27 Series-A
Text of page 28
154. What is the input material of a cupola furnace ?
(a) Cast Iron (b) Pig Iron (c) Steel (d) Mild steel
155. In which casting process, the pattern is not removed before pouring the liquid metal ?
(a) Investment casting (b) Lost foam casting
(c) Ceramic mould casting (d) Shell casting
156. Self lubricating bearing is produced by which process ?
(a) Machining (b) Die casting (c) Powder metallurgy(d) Investment casting
157. Which of the following is not a refractory material ?
(a) Zirconia (ZrO2) (b) Alumina (Al2O3)
(c) Titanium carbide (TiC) (d) Iron oxide (FeO)
158. The water content in green sand for moulding is
(a) 0-1% (b) 1-4% (c) 11-13% (d) 6-8%
159. In which welding process, the work-piece is kept in vacuum ?
(a) Laser Beam Welding (b) Electron Beam Welding
(c) Plasma Arc Welding (d) All of these
160. In explosive welding which plate is kept at an angle to the horizontal ?
(a) Target plate (b) Flyer plate (c) Base plate (d) Both (a) & (b)
161. Which chemicals are used during thermit welding ?
(a) Fe + Al2O3 (b) FeO + Al (c) FeO + Al2O3 (d) Fe + Al
162. In SMAW/MMAW process if the electrode is not removed after touching quickly then
(a) the welding transformer gets burnt (b) electrode sticks to the work-piece
(c) arc is initiated easily (d) the welder’s hand may get burnt
163. Among the following, the welding of which material is most difficult ?
(a) Mild steel (b) Low carbon steel
(c) Cast Iron (d) All are equally difficult
164. If metal is poured at a low temperature in mould, which type of defect may occur ?
(a) Misrun (b) Pinhole (c) Drop (d) Blow hole
165. In shell moulding, the pattern is made up of which material ?
(a) Metal (b) Wood (c) Plastic (d) Any of these
166. Penetration of weld is _____ to power density.
(a) inversely proportional (b) equal
(c) proportional (d) has no relation
167. In arc welding, the ratio of weight of metal actually deposited with the weight of metal of
electrode consumed is known as
(a) Electrode metal ratio (b) Consumption ratio
(c) Consumption efficiency (d) Electrode efficiency
Series-A 28 JME-II
Text of page 30
168. The material of the lapping tool is _____ the work-piece material.
(a) harder than (b) softer than
(c) as hard as (d) Any material can be used
169. Which one is not related to the shop layout ?
(a) Accurate size of land (b) Area of shop
(c) Cost of product (d) Number of machines
170. Radial lines of wood cells are
(a) Annual rings (b) Pith (c) Medullary rays (d) Cambium layer
171. Gullet angle of the teeth of rip saw is upto
(a) 30° (b) 40° (c) 50° (d) 60°
172. In ultrasonic machining process, the tool material should have
(a) low toughness & low ductility (b) high toughness & low ductility
(c) low toughness & high ductility (d) high toughness & high ductility
173. Which chemical is used for making acetylene in an acetylene generator ?
(a) CaCO3 (b) CaC2 (c) BaCO3 (d) BaO
174. Which material is generally used for making swage block ?
(a) Mild steel (b) High strength steel (c) Pig iron (d) Cast iron
175. If the silica sand particles are rounded in the moulding sand, which of the following increases ?
(a) Strength (b) Porosity
(c) Shrinkage allowance (d) All of these
176. In Galvanized Iron Sheet (GI), zinc is used
(a) to make it flexible (b) to make it corrosion resistant
(c) to make it cheap (d) All of these
177. Which instrument is not used for the measurement of the thickness of the metal sheet ?
(a) Wire gauge (b) Screw gauge (c) Steel scale (d) Vernier callipers
178. A universal chuck used on lathe machine has
(a) three jaws (b) four jaws (c) two jaws (d) six jaws
179. The tendency for built-up edge formation in chips can be reduced by :
(a) decreasing the cutting speed (b) increasing the depth of cut
(c) increasing the rake angle (d) avoiding the use of cutting fluid
180. The thrust force in drilling does not depend on :
(a) strength of the work-piece material (b) feed
(c) drill diameter (d) type of drilling machine used
Series-A 30 JME-II
Text of page 32
Space For Rough Work / Series-A 32 JME-II
Page 1 of 32
Source: Uttarakhand Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Uttarakhand Public Service Commission.