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UKPSC UKPSC Computer Staff 2014: SYSTEM ANALYST 2019

  • Language: Bilingual
  • 40 pages
UKPSC UKPSC Computer Staff 2014 question paper, UKPSC Computer Staff Exam, SYSTEM ANALYST 2019, page 1 of 40
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1.    Package of drawstringO method is
       (a) Java.applet (b) Java. io               (c) Javax.swing           (d) Java.awt

 2.    Which method is used to perform DML statements in JDBC?
       (a) executeØ       (b) executeupdateO (c) executeQuery() (d) None of these

 3.    The JDBC-ODBC bridge is
       (a) multithreaded (b) singlethreaded (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

4.     Choose the form in which Postback occurs.
       (a) HTML forms (b) Web forms              (c) Win forms          (d) None of these

5.     Default session data is stored in ASP.NET:
       (a) State server (b) Session object (c) In Process               (d) All of these

6.    Default scripting language in ASP is
      (a) Ecma script (b) VBScript                (c) PERL              (d) JavaScript

7.    Which of the following cannot be declared static?                       D
      (a) Class                                 (b) Member function
      (c) Functions                             (d) Member vanables

8.    Which of the following is not a primitive data type in language C?
      (a) Boolean         (b) Byte                (c) String             (d) Double

9.    Which of the following are standard stream objects?
      (a) pipe            (b) cout              (c) buff                (d) None of these

10.   The vector class is a / an
      (a) template class                          (b) container class
      (c) virtual class                           (d) abstract base class

11.   To create a combo box (drop down box), which tag will you use?
      (a) <list>                              (b) <select>
      (c) <input type = "dropdown">           (d) All of these

12.   Which of the following language can be used to write server side scripting in ASP.NET ?
      (a) C#              (b) C                 (c) Visual basic         (d) Java
13.   Which of the following is not a member of a class?
      (a) Static fimction                       (b) Friend function
      (c) Const function                        (d) Virtual function
14.   Which of the following concept means determining at runtime, what method to invoke?
      (a) Data hiding                           (b) Dynamic typing
      (c) Dynamic binding                       (d) Dynamic loading
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15. *ptr++ is equivalent to
    (a) ptr-H-           (b)                        (c)   ++*ptr          (d)   None of these

16. Which of the keyword must be used to inherit a class?
    (a) super         (b) this               (c) extent                   (d)   extends

17. Which device is suitable to input a series of co-ordinate positions?
    (a) Locator         (b) Valuator             (c) Stroke              (d)    None of these

18. Hue of color is related to
    (a) Luminance (b) Wavelength                    (c)   Incandescence   (d)   None of these

19. Two consecutive translation transformations t1 and t2 are
    (a) Multiplicate (b) Additive              (c) Subtractive            (d)   None of these

20.   Vector graphics is composed of
      (a) Paths           (b) Palette               (c)   Pixels          (d)   None of these

21. The refresh rate below which a picture flicker is:
    (a) 35               (b) 30                 (c) 25                    (d)   60

22. Shadow mask method is usually used in
    (a) Random scan display                         (b)   LCD
    (c) Raster scan display                         (d)   None of these

23. Intensity representation of an image is called
    (a) Picture definition                       (b)      Display list
    (c) Brightness                               (d)      None of these

24. A triangular strip connected with 50 triangles connects           vertices
    (a) 48               (b) 50                  (c) 52                    (d) None of these

25.          is known as standard graphics objects.
      (a)   Octree       (b) Polygon surfaces (c)         Quadtree        (d)   None of these

26. A transformation that slants the shape of an objects is called
    (a) Reflection      (b) Distortion           (c) Shear                (d)   None of these

27. A method used to test lines for total clipping is equivalent to the
    (a) Logical OR (b) Logical AND                (c) Logical XOR         (d)   None of these

28.   A surface of revolution is generated by a / an         of a 2D curve.
      (a) Rotational sweep                         (b)    Translation sweep
      (c) Intersection                             (d)    None of these

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29.   The command used to modif' the linetype of an object is
      (a) LINETYPE (b) DDMODIFY (c) MODIFY                                 (d) None of these

30.   The command used to edit text placed on a drawing is
      (a) EDIT          (b) EDIT-TEXT (c) DDEDIT                           (d) TEXTEDIT

31.   The CIRCLE-2P option prompts the user for the
      (a) endpoints of the circle's diameter. (b) radius of the circle.
      (c) perimeter of the circle.            (d) None of these.

32.   A tensor quantity in three-dimensional space has
      (a) 6 components (b) 9 components (c) 12 components (d) 27 components

33.   Contour plots are used to display
      (a) intersections (b) isolines                (c) gridlines          (d) None of these

34.   The random midpoint displacement method is used to calculate
      (a) grid surface (b) grid position      (c) grid elevation           (d) None of these

35.   An improvement on the Weiler-Atherton algorithm is the
      (a) Sutherland-Hodgeman Algorithm        (b) Atherton Algorithm
      (c) Weller Algorithm                     (d) None of these

36.   A fast and simple technique for identifying visible surface
      (a) BSP-tree method                         (b) depth-buffer method
      (c) back-face detection                     (d) None of these

37. WLAN service uses:
     (a) 802.11 protocol and long distance communication at high data rates.
     (b) 802.16 protocol and long distance communication at small data rates.
     (c) 802.16 protocol and short distance communication at high data rates.
     (d) 802.11 protocol and short distance communication at high data rates.

38.   Choose the most appropriate alternative:
      A smart card uses
      (a) three keys — fabrication, personalization and utilization.
      (b) a single key for fabrication, personalization and utilization.
      (c) host supplied keys.
      (d) two keys — fabrication and personalization.

39.   A smart token is
      (a) for identification when on the move.
      (b) used when requesting permission to access a mobile device.
      (c) for identification and initiation of appropriate action.
      (d) used when requesting permission to access a computer.

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40.   Choose the most appropriate alternative:
      Security issues in a mobile device are due to
      (a) hacking of data and virus attacks.
      (b) eavesdropping, virus attacks, hacking, jamming and forceflully exhausting the energy
           resources.
      (c) jamming of the incoming signals.
      (d) eavesdropping, hacking and virus attacks only.

41. Digital Audio and Video Broadcasting
     (a) uses one of the broadcast disk model.
     (b) uses flat-disk broadcast model.
     (c) does not use any of the broadcast disk models.
     (d) uses multilevel disk model.

42.   URI means
      (a) a relative path specification
      (b) a full path specification
      (c) directory, folder, and subfolder path
      (d) URL path specification for a device or server resource.

43.   Choose the most appropriate alternative:
      What is cloud computing replacing?
      (a) Corporate data centres only.
      (b) Expensive personal computer hardware only.
      (c) Expensive software upgrades only.
      (d) All of these.

44.   Which is the biggest concern about cloud computing?
      (a) Too expensive                         (b) Security concerns
      (c) Too many platforms                    (d) Accessibility

45.   Which widely used service is built on cloud computing?
      Choose the most appropriate answer.
      (a) Youtube only (b) Skype only            (c) G-mail only        (d) All of these

46.   Which one of these techniques is vital for creating cloud computing centres?
      (a) Virtual ization                          (b) Transubstantiation
      (c) Cannibalization                          (d) Insubordination

47.   What feature does not belong to a private cloud?
      (a) Metered billing                         (b) Self-service portal
      (c) Dial-home support                       (d) Rapid elasticity

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48.   What is cloud foundry?
      (a) A factory that produces cloud components.
      (b) An industry wide PaaS initiative.
      (c) VMware-led open source PaaS.
      (d) None of these.

49.   Which type of cloudmg computing distribution model is Amazon Web Service?
      (a) Software as a service                (b) Platform as a service
      (c) Infrastructure as a service          (d) All of these

50.   What's the most popular use-case for public cloud computing today?
      (a) Test and development                   (1) Website hosting
      (c) Disaster recovery                      (d) Business analytics

51.   What facet of cloud computing helps to guard against downtime and determines costs?
      (a) Service-level agreements              (b) Application programming interfaces
      (c) Virtual private networks              (d) Bandwidth fees

52.   Which operating system is the most green?
      (a) Windows Vista                         (b) Windows XP
      (c) Linux                                 (d) Apple'sOSX

53.   Which method in the following list is not a good green solution?
      (a) Buy a laptop.
      (b) Use a screen saver.
      (c) Use the display's and computer's sleep modes.
      (d) Turn off your computer when not in use.       JR1j

54.   The largest problem in clusters                   [1i
      (a) Software skew                             (b) Software slowdown
      (c) Software crisis                           (d) None of these

55.   What is often referred to as being the World's single and most powerful computer solution
      so far?
      (a) Virtualization (b) Interoperability (c) Loose coupling (d) Grid-computing

56.   Grid           is a specific software product, which enables the sharing of heterogeneous
      resources, and virtual organizations.
      (a) Service-oriented Architecture           (b) Middleware
      (c) Web Service                             (d) Enterprise application integration

57.   Linked lists are not suitable data structures for which one of the following problems?
      (a) insertion sort                             (b) binary search
      (c) radix sort                                 (d) polynomial manipulation

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58. Polynomial in memory may be maintained through
    (a) linked list with header node        (b) one dimensional array
    (c) stack                               (d) None of these

59. Consider a function
    f=x * y.,
    in which x and y are natural numbers.
    "This function can be written as recursive function."
    This statement is
    (a) True            (b) False                (c) Partially true      (d) Partially false

60. The time required to insert an element in a stack with linked implementation is
    (a) 0(1)            (b) 0(log2n)             (c) 0(n10g2n)          (d) 0(n)

61. Which of the following is not possible as a balance factor of any node of an AVL tree?
    (a) I              (b) 2                    (c) 0                   (d) None of these

62.   Which of the following is the best computing time, in analysis of an algorithm?
      (a) 0(n)           (b) 0(2")               (c) 0(log2n)            (d) None of these

63. Stack is useful for implementing
    (a) radix                                      (b) breadth first search
    (c) recursion                                  (d) None of these

64. The post fix expression for the infix expression:
    A+B* (C + D)/F+D*E is
    (a) AB+CD+*FID+E*                           (b) ABCD + * F! + DE * +
    (c) A*B+CDIF*DE++                           (d) A+*BCD/F*DE++

65. The maximum number of nodes in a binary tree of depth '5', is
    (a) 31          (b) 16                  (c) 32                       (d) 15

66. A binary tree 'T' has 'n' leaf nodes. The number of nodes of degree 2 in 'T' is
    (a) 1og2n            (b) n—I                (c) n                 (d) 2"

67. Merge sort uses
    (a) Divide and conquer strategy                (b)   Back tracking approach
    (c) Heuristic search                           (d)   Greedy approach
68. Sparse matrix has
    (a) Many zero entries                          (b)   Many Non-zero entries
    (c) Higher dimension                           (d)   None of these
69. Language developed for string manipulation is
    (a) PASCAL        (b) LISP                (c) ADA                    (d) None of these

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70. Linear order in linked list is provided through
    (a) index number                              (b) the implied position of the node
    (c) pointer                                   (d) None of these

71. The minimum number of fields with each node of doubly linked list is
    (a 1            (b) 2                    (c) 3                   (d) 4

72.            is most appropriate data structure to represent linked list.
      (a)   Structure     (b) Array                (c) String               (d) None of these

73. Which of the following need not be a binary tree?
    (a) Heap           (b) B-tree             (c) AVL-tree                (d) Search tree

74. Which of the following algorithms solves the all-pair shortest path algorithm?
    (a) Prim's Algorithm                       (b) Floyd's Algorithm
    (c) Warshall's Algorithm                   (d) Dijkstra's Algorithm

75. The number of possible spanning trees with 'n' vertices is
    (a) n!            (b) 2                   (c)                         (d) 2

76. The expression n2 + 4n + (1og2n) is associated with following:
    (a) O(n)            (b) O(.[n)              (c) O(n2)                 (d) None of these

77. Which of the following attribute is not an indicator of reliability of software?
    (a) Maturity                                 (b) Understandability
    (c) Fault tolerance                          (d) Recoverability

78. Which of the following is not an element of configuration management system?
    (a) Component element                      (b) Process elements
    (c) Product elements                       (d) Human elements

79. Which of the following is not software risk component?          Pu;
    (a) Schedule risk                           (b) Cost risk
    (c) Performance risk                        (d) Predictable risk

80. Which of the following is not a debugging approach?
    (a) Brute force                            (b) Back tracking
    (c) Equivalence class partitioning         (d) Cause elimination

81. Recovery testing is a type of
    (a) Unit testing                                (b) Integration testing
    (c) Validation testing                          (d) System testing

82. Which of the following is not the construct of structured programming?
    (a) Sequence (b) Condition                  (c) Repetition        (d) Selection

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83.   Which of the following is related to prototyping model?
      (a) Anchor point milestones                 (b) Unified process
      (c) Quick plan                              (d) Risk-driven process

84.   Which of the following is not a part of modelling activity in the software process
      framework?
      (a) Code generation                     (b) Requirement gathering
      (c) Architectural design                (d) Component level design

85.   Which of the following is false?
      (a) Software does not wearout.
      (b) Software is deteriorating due to change.
      (c) Until I get the program running, I have no way of accessing its quality.
      (d) Most software still continues to be custom built.

86.   Which of the following represents software crisis?
      (a) Less availability of software.
      (b) Systematic development of software.
                                      (Hardware cosf\
      (c) Decreasing value of ratio 1,Sol1:ware cost)
      (d) None of these.

87.   Which is the most appriate alternative among the following?
      A good specification will be
      (a) Unambiguous only                       (b) Distinctly specific only
      (c) Functional only                        (d) All of these

88.   Spiral model was developed by
      (a) Rev Littlewood                            (b)   Berry Böhm
      (c) Roger Pressmen                            (d)   Vector Bisili
                                                                   19E1
89. A dummy activity in a project network diagram represents
    (a) Logical relationship                  (b) Time delays
    (c) Resource allocation                   (d) Crashing of an activity

90. In respect of recovery testing, which of the following is the most appropriate?
    (a) It only tests how well an application recovers from crashes.
    (b) It only tests how well an application recovers from hardware failures.
    (c) It is forced failure of softwares but only applied in specific unique situations.
    (d) Both (a) and (b)

9!.   Software validation is also known as
      (a) dynamic testing                           (b) source-code testing
      (c) alpha testing                             (d) static testing

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92.   Which is not a non-functional requirement?
      (a) Efficiency      (b) Reliability        (c) Product-features (d) Stability

93.   Which level of CMM is for process control?
      (a) Initial      (b) Repeatable          (c) Defined               (d) Optimizing

94.   Cyclomatic complexity is developed by McCabe and is denoted by:
      Choose the most appropriate alternative.
      (a) V(G)=e—n+2P
      (b) V(G)=it+l
      (c) V(G) = number of regions of the graph
      (d) All of these

95.   User testing of a completed information system using simulated data refers to
      (a) acceptance testing                      (b) alpha testing
      (c) beta testing                            (d) system testing

96.   Estimation of software development effort for organic software in COCOMO is
      (a) E = 2.4 (KLOC)'°5 PM                   (b) E = 3.4 (KLOC)1 °6 PM
      (c) E = 2.0 (KLOC)'°5 PM                   (d) E = 2.4 (KLOC)'°7 PM

97.   Choose the most appropriate answer.
      Which of the following is contained in Process Control Block (PCB)?
      (a) Process Number only                    (b) List of open files only
      (c) Memory limits only                     (d) All of these

98.   Which of the following is a criterion to evaluate a scheduling algorithm?
      Choose the most appropriate answer.
      (a) CPU utilization only                     (b) Throughput only
      (c) Waiting time only                        (d) All of these

99.   Any of the first-fit, best-fit and the worst-fit algorithm can be used for
      (a) Contiguous allocation of memory             (b) Indexed allocation of memory
      (c) Linked allocation of memory                 (d) All of these

100. Which of the following memory allocation scheme suffers from external fragmentation?
     (a) Segmentation (b) Swapping            (c) Paging             (d) None of these

101. Process on the remote system are identified by
      (a) host ID                                (b) host name and identifier
      (c) identifier                             (d) None of these

102. Network Operating System runs on
     (a) Server                                     (b) Every system in the network
     (c) Both (a) and (b)                           (d) None of these

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103. Which routing technique is used in distributed system?
     Choose the most appropriate answer.
     (a) Fixed routing only                      (b) Virtual routing only
     (c) Dynamic routing only                    (d) All of these

104. Supervisor state is
     (a) Never used.                         (b) Required to perform any I/O.
     (c) Only allowed to the operating system. (d) None of these

105. A page fault occurs when
     (a) the deadlock happens.                    (b)   the segmentation starts.
     (c) the page is found in the memory.         (d)   the page is not found in the memory.

106. Which memory allocation policy allocates the largest hole to the process?
     (a) Best-Fit     (b) Worst-fit            (c) First-fit            (d) None of these

107. The chunks of the memory are known as
      (a) Sectors       (b) Offsets               (c)   Pages             (d) Frames

108. The Banker's algorithm is used
     (a) to rectify deadlock                      (b)   to detect deadlock
     (c) to prevent deadlock                      (d)   None of these

109. Which of the following is the allocation method of a disk space?
     Choose the most appropriate answer.
     (a) Contiguous allocation only             (b) Linked allocation only
     (c) Indexed allocation only                (d) All of these

110. The main function of shared memory is to
     (a) do intra-process communication       (b)       do inter-process commun I cati on
     (c) use primary memory efficiently       (d)       None of these jq

111. Memory protection is of no use in a
     (a) single user system                       (b)   non-multitasking system
     (c) non-multiprogramming system              (d)   None of these

112. The part of machine level instruction, which tells the central processor, what has to be
     done and not where from the arguments are to be fetched, is
     (a) Operation code                        (b) Address
     (c) Locator                               (d) None of these

113. Process is
     (a) Program in high level language kept on disk.
     (b) Contents of main-memory.
     (c) A program in execution.
     (d) None of these.

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114. In distributed system, link and site failure is detected by
      (a) Polling                                    (b) Handshaking
      (c) Token Passing                              (d) None of these

115. Thrashing
     (a) can always be avoided by swapping.
     (b) always occurs on large computers.
     (c) can be caused by poor paging algorithm.
     (d) None of these.

116. Which scheduler selects the order in which processes should be brought into the ready
     queue?
     (a) Real-term (b) Long-term              (c) Mid-term          (d) Short-term

117. Which of the following parser is the most powerful?
     (a) Operator-precedence                    (b) Cononical LR
     (c) LALR                                   (d) SLR

118. A general microprocessor is an inbuilt function of
     (a) loader         (b) linker               (c) editor                 (d) assembler

119. System program such as compiler is designed, so that it is
      (a) reenterable   (b) non-reusable       (c) serially usable          (d) recursive

120. Memory refreshing may be done:
     Choose the most appropriate answer.
     (a) by the CPU that contains a special refresh counter, only.
     (b) by an external refresh controller, only.
     (c) either by the CPU or by an external refresh controller.
     (d) None of these.

121. Search concept used in associative memory is
      (a) Parallel search                      (b) Sequential search
      (c) Binary search                        (d) Selection search

122. In virtual memory, the page fault frequency is reduced when the
      (a) Page size is reduced.
      (b) Processes are mostly I/O bound.
      (c) Locality of reference is applicable to the process.
      (d) Shortest remaining time scheduling is used.

123. The principal advantage of dynamic shift register over static shift register is that:
      (a) they provide more bit in smaller area.
      (b) they loose their data if shifted too slowly.
      (c) they can be shifted faster.
      (d) less expensive.

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124. The minimum time delay required between the initiation of two successive memory
     operation is known as
     (a) memory cycle time                (b) memory access time
     (c) transfer time                    (d) skip time

125. When an interrupt occurs, CPU saves the value of          in a stack.
     (a) Accumulator
     (b) Program Status Word (PSW) only
     (c) Instruction Address Counter (IAC) only
     (d) Both PSW and IAC

126. Which of the following is responsible for co-ordinating various operations using timing
     signals?
     (a) Arithmetic logic unit                  (b) Control unit
     (c)  Memory   unit                         (d) InputJoutput unit

127. What happens when a bit string is XORed with itself n-times?
     (a) Complement, when 'n' is even.        o o
     (b) Complement when 'n' is odd.
     (c) Divides by 2 always.
     (d) Remains unchanged when 'n' is even.

128. Which of the following operation is commutative but not associative?
     (a) AND            (b) OR                (c) NAND                 (d) EXOR

129. Flip-flop circuit can be used for
      (a) scaling          (b) rectification (c) modulation               (d) counting

130. The dynamic race hazard problem occurs in
     (a) combinational circuit only.
     (b) sequential circuit only.
     (c) both combinational and sequential circuits.
     (d) None of these

131. Which of the following flip-flop is free from race around problem?
     (a) T-flip-flop                              (b) SR-flip-flop
     (c) Master-slave JK flip-flop                (d) All of these

132. How many flip-flops are required to divide the input frequency by 64?
      (a) 5             (b) 4                    (c) 6                 (d) 8

133. The term sum-of-products in Boolean algebra means
      (a) The 'AND' function of several 'OR' functions.
      (b) The 'OR' function of several 'AND' functions.
      (c) The 'OR' function of several 'OR' functions.
      (d) The 'AND' function of several 'AND' functions.

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134. I-low many bits are required to encode all twenty six letters, ten non-letter symbols and ten
      numbers?
      (a) 5               (b) 6                   (c) 7                    (d) 46

135. Which of the following gates are added to the inputs of 'OR' gate to convert it to the
     NAND gate?
     (a) NOT            (b) AND              (c) OR                (d) XOR

136. Which of the following gates is known as coincidence detector?
     (a) AND gate (b) OR gate                   (c) NOT gate              (d) NAND gate

137. How many Boolean functions of three variables are there?
     (a) 64           (b) 256                 (c) 512                     (d) 1024

138. With reference to a microprocessor, which of the following statement is wrong?
     (a) It is a solid-state device.
     (b) It can perform logical and arithmetic operations.
     (c) It consists of a block of memory and may have more than one processor.
     (d) It is a single chip.             DI
                                               D
139. A list of instructions is classified as
     (a) Software (b) Hardware                          (c) Programmer (d) Data

140. Semantic error can be detected
      (a) at compile time only                (b) at run time only
      (c) both at compile time and at run time (d) None of these

141. Which of the following computer is least powerftil?
     (a) Mini Computer                          (b) Micro Computer
     (c) Mainframe                              (d) Super Computer

142. Which of the following storage devices can be carried around?
     (a) Pen drive       (b) Main memory (c) Registers                    (d) Core memory

143. A collection of 8-bits is called
     (a) Nibble           (b) Byte                      (c) Word          (d) None of these

144. Which of the following storage is volatile?
     (a) RAM                                     (b) Floppy disk
     (c) CD-ROM                                  (d) Electro-magnetic core-memory


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145. The difference engine was to be
      (a) An electronic digital computer.
      (b) An electro-mechanical device.
      (c) A mechanical device powered by steam.
     (d) None of these.

146. Compared with secondary storage primary storage is
      (a) slow and inexpensive                (b) fast and inexpensive
      (c) fast and expensive                  (d) slow and expensive

147. A VLSI chip contains
     (a) A single transistor                          (b) Less than one hundred transistor
     (c) Thousands of transistors                     (d) Less than one thousand transistors

148. Which of the following affects processing power?
     Choose the most appropriate answer.
     (a) Data bus capacity                      (b) Addressing scheme
     (c) Clock frequency                        (d) All of these
                                                                                     ir
149. Which device can draw continuous lines?
     (a) Daisy wheel (b) Plotter             (c) Chain printer              (d) Impact printer

150. Which of the following is the product of data processing?
     (a) Information                            (b) Data
     (c) Software program                       (d) System programming

151. FORTRAN implementation do not permit recursion because
     (a) they use static allocation of variables.
     (b) they use dynamic allocation of variables.
     (c) stacks are not available.
     (d) None of these.

152. Which of the following language is not well suited for scientific computation?
     (a) PASCAL                                 (b) FORTRAN
     (c) C                                      (d) COBOL

153. Data system for planning are often called
     (a) decision analysis system                     (b) planning analysis system
     (c) decision support system                      (d) All of these

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154. Which of the following is an example of processing activities?
     Choose the most appropriate answer.
     (a) Classi!ying only                       (b) Summarizing only
     (c) Sorting only                           (d) All of these

155. MRP stands for
     (a) Marketing Research Planning                (b)   Management Resource Planning
     (c) Material Requirement Planning              (d)   Manufacturing Resource Planning

156. PASCAL is a / an
     (a) Natural Language                           (b)   Machine Language
     (c) Assembly Language                          (d)   High-level Language

157. If a file is organized in B-tree with 'n' records and parameters 'd' and 'e', then time per
     operation is approximately equal to
     (a) n/e              (b) tilde               (c) n/d2e             (d) 2 + log(n/e)

158. The logical data structure with a one-to-many relationship is a
     (a) network          (b) tree               (c) chain               (d) relational

159. Which of the following is not characteristic of a relational database model?
     (a) Tables                                   (b) Tree like structure
     (c) Complex logical relationship             (d) Records 0

160. In the rational model cardinality is termed as
     (a) Number of tuples
                                                                0  4
                                                  (b) Number of tables
     (c) Number of attributes                     (d) Number of constraints

161. Which of the following is a valid SQL type?
     Choose the most appropriate answer.
     (a) CHARACTER                             (b) NUMERIC
     (c)  FLOAT                                (d) All of these

162. Which of the following is a comparison operator in SQL?
     Choose the most appropriate answer.
     (a) =                                     (b) LIKE
     (c) BETWEEN                               (d) All of these

163. Which database level is closed to the users?
     (a) External                                (b)      Internal
     (c) Physical                                (d)      Conceptual
164. Which of the following is an advantage of view?
     Choose the most appropriate answer.
     (a) Data Security                          (b) Derived columns
     (c) Hiding of complex queries              (d) All of these

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165.. E-R model uses this symbol to represent weak entity set:
      (a) Dotted rectangle                      (b) Diamond
      (c) Doubly outlined rectangle             (d) None of these

166. Cartesian product in relational algebra is
     (a) a Unary operator                              (b)   a Binary operator
     (c) a Ternary operator                            (d)   not defined

167. The method of access in which uses key is transformed, is known as
     (a) direct         (b) hash                (c) random             (d) sequential

168. A subschema expresses
     (a) the logical view                              (b) the physical view
     (c) the external view                             (d) All of these

169. A report generator is used to
     (a) update files                                  (b) print files on paper
     (c) make data entry                               (d) delete files

170. The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to as
     (a) DML            (b) DDL                 (c) VDL                 (d) SDL

171. In an E-R diagram, attributes are represented by
     (a) rectangle (b) square                    (c) ellipse                 (d) triangle

172. Key to represent relationship between tables is called
     (a) Primary key                             (b) Secondary key
     (c) Foreign key                             (d) None of these

173. The language which has become the defacto standard for interfacing application programs
     with relational database system is
     (a) Oracle           (b) SQL            (c) Dbase                (d) 4GL

174. In case of entity integrity, the primary key must be
     (a) not Null                                  (b) Null
     (c) Both null and not null                    (d) Any value

175. In a hierarchical model records are organised as
     (a) Graph           (b) List                (c) Links                   (d) Tree

176. The file organization that provides very fast access to any arbitrary record of a file is
     (a) Ordered file                              (b) Unordered file
     (c) Hashed file                              (d) B-tree

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177. Please, fill in the blank
               is the protocol designed to create security associations, both inbound and
     outbound.
     (a) SA                 (b) CA             (c) KDC               (d) IKE

178. A hash function must meet at least               criteria.
     (a) two            (b) three                     (c) one               (d) zero

179. One security protocol for the e-mail system is
     (a) IPSec           (b) SSL                 (c) PGP                    (d) None of these

180.           means to prove the identity of the entity that tries to access the system resources.
       (a)   Message authentication                (b) Entity authentication
       (c)   Message confidentiality               (d) None of these

181. The secret key between members need to be created as a     key when two members
     contact KDC.
     (a) public         (b) session           (c) complimentary (d) None of these

182. Which type of web document is run at the client site?
     (a) Static        (b) Dynamic             (c) Active                   (d) All of these

183. What type of addressing is specifically used by the transport layer?
     (a) Station addressing                      (b) Network addressing
     (c) Application program port addressing (d) Dialog addressing

184. A virtual circuit is associated with a             service.
     (a) Connectionless                               (b) Connection-oriented
     (c) Segmentation                                 (d) None of these

185. Give most appropriate answer:
     Which of the following is/are presentation layer functions?
     (a) Only encryption of data                 (b) Only compression of data
     (c) Only translation of data                (d) All of these

186. Which of the following is a class-A host address?
     (a) 128.45.6       (b) 117.4.5.1           (c) 130.0.0.0              (d) None of these

187. Which of the following modem uses FSK modulation?
     (a) Bell-103       (b) Bell-201        (c) Bel1-212                   (d) All of these

188. In an optic fiber, the inner core is         the cladding.
     (a) more dense than                           (b) less dense than
     (c) the same density as                       (d) Another name for

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189. Give most appropriate answer:
     Which of the following is a data link layer function?
     (a) Line discipline                          (b) Flow control
     (c) Error control                            (d) All of these

190. FDDI is an acronym for
     (a) Fast Data Delivery Interface                  (b) Fiber Distributed Data Interface
     (c) Fiber Distributed Digital Interface           (d) Fast Distributed Data Interface

191. Which type of switching uses the entire capacity of a dedicated link?
     (a) Circuit-switching                      (b) Datagram packet switching
     (c) Virtual circuit packet switching       (d) Message switching

192. The PSTN is an example of a                network.
     (a) packet-switched                            (b) circuit-switched
     (c) message-switched                           (d) None of these

193. A       converts information from non-ISDN format to ISDN format.
     (a) TEl          (b) TE2               (c) Tex              (d) TA

194. Give most appropriate answer:         19I1
     SSL provides         .
     (a) only message integrity                        (b) only confidentiality
     (c) only compression                              (d) All of these

195. Routing and switching in frame relay are performed by the                layer.
     (a) Physical       (b) Data link           (c) Network                  (d) Both (b) and (c)
196. The RSA algorithm is the basis of a                encryption method.
     (a) Public key    (b) Private key                 (c) Conventional      (d) Denominational
197. Web services cannot be implemented for
     (a) Servlets                            (b) Java server pages
     (c) Container managed persistenc entities (d) Message driven beans.

198.             is the first phase of the servlets life cycle.
       (a)   Initialization (b) Service                 (c) Destruction      (d)   Both (a) and (b)

199. Give most appropriate answer:
     Mode of storing ASP.NET session is
     (a) In proc        (b) State server               (c)   SQL server      (d)   All of these

200. In Java, string is predefined
     (a) Method            (b) Class                   (c)   Variable        (d)   Object


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Source: Uttarakhand Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Uttarakhand Public Service Commission.

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