WB SET Exam 2024: 26th SET, Paper II, Computer Science
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26/2024
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Question Booklet Series X
PAPER–II Question Booklet No.
Subject Code : 22
COMPUTER SCIENCE
Time : 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200
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COMPUTER SCIENCE
1. How many numbers of different 5. Generation of intermediate code based on
automata can be formed with 2 states (q0 abstract machine model is useful in compilers
and q1) and over the alphabets (0, 1, 2)? because
(q0 is always the starting state) (A) It helps in implementation of lexical
(A) 5832 analysis and syntax analysis
(B) 256
(B) Syntax-direct translations can be
(C) 512
written for intermediate code
(D) 1024
generation
(C) It enhances the probability of the
front end of the compiler
(D) It is not possible to generate code for
real machines directly from high level
2. Drawing the concept “seeing few white language programs
swan” we conclude all swans are white, falls under
_________ in AI.
(A) analogical learning
(B) supervised learning
(C) learning automata
(D) inductive learning
6. A company has choice of two languages L1
and L2 to develop software for their client. Number
of LOC required to develop an application in L2 is
3. The number of cells/users of GSM is almost thrice the LOC in language L1. Also,
_______ relative to AMPS. software has to be maintained for next
(A) one half 10 years. Various parameters for two
(B) the same langauges are given below to decide
(C) three times longer which Language should be preferred for
(D) six times longer development.
Parameter L1 L2
Man-year needed LOC/1000 LOC/1000
for development
4. Which of the following statements is false? Development Cost Rs. 70,000 Rs. 90,000
(A) Halting problem of turing
machines is undecidable Cost of Maintenance Rs. 1,00,000 Rs.40,000
(B) Given two arbitary context-free per year
grammars G 1 , G 2 and it is Total cost of the project includes cost of
undecidable if L(G1)=L(G2) development and maintenance. What is the LOC
(C) Determining whether a context- for L1 for which cost of developing of the software
free grammar is ambiguous and with both Languages must be the same?
undecidable (A) 2000
(D) Given two regular grammers G1, (B) 6000
G 2 and it is undecidable if (C) 3000
L(G1)=L(G2) (D) 5000
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7. Which one of the following statements is 11. In socket programming, which of the
false? following functions indicates that the server will
(A) User level threads are not accept a connection?
scheduled by the kernel (A) socket ( )
(B) When a user level thread is (B) bind ( )
blocked, all other threads of its (C) connect ( )
process are blocked (D) listen ( )
(C) Context switching between user
level threads is faster than context
switching between kernel level 12. Presence of which one of the
threads following characteristics in a project
(D) Kernel level threads cannot share would indicate the suitability of the
the code segment Extreme Programming (XP) model?
(A) Stable and well understood
requiements
(B) Mission critical software
(C) Service-oriented project
8. Consider the following partial requirement (D) Extremely large project
for a software: “When a camera mounted on the
gate detects an incoming vehicle, the gate should
be opened, if the incoming vehicle is a 13. The general homogeneous coordinate
registered vehicle”. It can be considered representation of a point P (x, y) can also be written
to be which one of the following types of as
requirement? (A) (x, y, z)
(A) Functional requirement (B) (h.x, h.y, h)
(B) Non-functional requirement
(C) (x/h, y/h, h)
(C) Constraint
(D) External interface 1 1 1
(D) , ,
h. x h. y h
14. For students in a college, if we want to
9. Which one of the following views is implicit partition the students based on the different extra
in a SRS document? curricular activities that they participate in, which
(A) Black box clustering approach will be most suitable for this
(B) White box task?
(C) Grey box (A) Hierarchical
(D) Glass box (B) Overlapping
(C) Partitional
(D) Partial
15. One bit of static memory is
10. If the region codes for the two end points of composed of
a line are 1010 and 0101, the line is
(A) A capacitor
(A) completely visible
(B) completely invisible (B) A flip-flop
(C) partially visible (C) Decoder
(D) can’t say anything (D) Multiplexer
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16. Which one of the following is not true of the 20. In fixed point number representation, a
agile model of software development? negative number in binary number system (in a
(A) Incremental development and computer) is represented by
delivery (A) Signed—Magnitude representation
(B) Evolutionary development (B) Signed—1’s complement
(C) Developed software usually has representation
high quality and reliability (C) Signed—2’s complement
(D) Facilitation of customer feedback representation
(D) Both (A) and (B)
17. Which of the following is not a symmetric
key cryptography scheme?
(A) El Gamel
(B) Blowfish 21. How new state is generated in Genetic
(C) AES Algorithm?
(D) IDEA (A) Composition
(B) Crossover
(C) Mutation
(D) Both (B) and (C)
18. Consider the Language:
L {x | x (a, b) * and number of strings in x is
divisible by either 2 or 3 but not both}. The
minimum number of states and number of final
states required to create a DFA are
(A) 6 and 4 22. Given
(B) 7 and 4 S1= If a procedure makes no call, then activation
(C) 7 and 3 record can be created statically.
(D) 6 and 3 S2= Compilers from programming languages,
that support recursion necessarily need heap
storage for memory allocation in the run-
time environment.
S3= Some code optimizations are carried out on
the intermediate code because, they enhance
19. Parent String 1 : 00000000 the portability of the compiler to other
Parent String 2 : 11111111 target processors.
Then what should be the offsprings in 1 point Which of the above statements is/are correct?
crossover? (A) Only S1
(A) 01010101 ; 10110011 (B) S1 and S2
(B) 11001100 ; 10011000 (C) S1 and S3
(C) 00110011 ; 11001100 (D) Only S3
(D) 00011111 ; 11100000
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23. ________ are not a data mining 28. Given that “X is sweet” with T(X) = 0.7 and
functionality. “Y is sweet” with T(Y)=0.5, then the Fuzzy truth
(A) Clustering and analysis value of the proposition. “If X is sweet and Y is
(B) Selection and interpretation Sweet” is
(C) Classification and regression (A) 0.2
(D) Characterization and (B) 0.7
discrimination (C) 0.5
(D) 0.4
24. The region code for visible region in Cohen-
Sutherland polygon clipping algorithm is
(A) 0000
(B) 0110 29. Which of the following fields is present in
(C) 1001 IPv4 header but missing in IPv6 header?
(D) 1111 (A) Traffic class
(B) Type of service
(C) Flow level
25. Why does the reliability of a (D) Version
software application keeps changing
throughout its life?
(A) Fault detection and correction
(B) Dynamic nature of software
(C) Process evolution
(D) Users become more proficient due
to continuous usage 30. Roulette wheel selection scheme
is preferred when
(A) needs low selection pressure
26. Which of the following is not an objective (B) fitness values are non-uniformly
of Network Security? distributed
(A) Non-repudiation (C) fitness values are uniformly
(B) Confidentiality distributed
(C) Attainability (D) needs high population diversity
(D) Message Integrity
27. SELECT itemname, color,
clothesSIZE, SUM(quantity)
FROM sales 31. Which of the following is the most
GROUP BY rollup (itemname, color, clothes SIZE); commonly used data structure for implementing
How many grouping is possible in this rollup? Dijkstra’s Algorithm?
(A) 8 (A) Max priority queue
(B) 4 (B) Stack
(C) 2 (C) Circular queue
(D) 1 (D) Min priority queue
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32. Cache memory works much faster than 36. The expression for Absorption law is given
main memory system (RAM) because by
(A) cache memory system is (A) A+AB=A
fabricated using different (B) A+AB=B
semiconductor material (C) AB+AA'=A
(B) it is a addressless RAM system (D) A+B=B+A
that follows associative memory
structure
(C) cache memory is a virtual memory
system 37. Which one of the following is
(D) statements (B) and (C) are correct true of an object-oriented design solution
using a deep inheritance hierarchy?
(A) It is a sign of a good design as it
increases reuse
33. Which of the following statements is false? (B) It is a sign of a good design as it
(A) Every regular grammar is linear leads to sophisticated and versatile
(B) Pumping lemma can prove that classes at the leaf level
any finite language is regular (C) It is a sign of good design, as it
(C) A linear grammar can have at increases polymorphic bindings
most one non-terminal at the right (D) It is a sign of bad design, as it
hand side of production breaks encapsulation
(D) A language with finite numbers
of string can be regular
38. In a paged memory, the page hit ratio is
0.35, the time required to access a page
in secondary storage is equal to 100 ns.
34. Which of the following statements is/are The time required to access a page in
true? primary memory is 10 ns. The average
(A) Two successive translations are time required to access a page is
additive (A) 65.0 ns
(B) Two successive rotations are (B) 68.0 ns
additive (C) 68.5 ns
(C) Two successive scaling are (D) 78.5 ns
multiplicative
(D) Statements (A) and (C)
39. A multilayer feedforward network has 5
input units, one hidden layer with 4 units and 3
output units. How many weights does this network
35. Virtual memory system can be implemented have?
by which of the following technique(s)?
(A) 16
(A) Paging Technique
(B) Segmentation Technique (B) 20
(C) Demand Paging (C) 24
(D) Paging and Segmentation Techniques (D) 32
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40. Consider the graph M with three vertices. 43. Consider a direct mapped cache with 8
Its adjacency matrix is shown below. Which of the cache blocks (numbered 0-7). If the memory block
following is true? requests are in the following order—
3,5,2,8,0,63,9,16,20,17,25,18,30,24,2,63,5,82,17,24
0 1 1
Which of the following memory blocks will not be
M 1 0 1
in the cache at the end of the sequence?
1 1 0
(A) 3
(A) Graph M has no minimum spanning (B) 18
tree (C) 20
(B) Graph M has a unique minimum (D) 30
spanning trees of cost 2
(C) Graph M has 3 distinct minimum
spanning trees, each of cost 2
(D) Graph M has 3 spanning trees of 44. Which of the following is a good alternative
different costs to the star schema?
(A) Snowflake schema
(B) Snow star schema
(C) Star snowflake schema
(D) Fact constellation
41. Which defuzzification method can be used
only for symmetrical output membership function? 45. Feasible region is the set of points
(A) Height method which satisfy
(B) Centre of Gravity method (A) the objective functions
(C) Weighted average method (B) some of the given constraints
(D) Centre of area method (C) all of the given constraints
(D) some of the decision variables
46. A processor performs addition of the
following 2’s complement numbers 01001101 and
11101001. After the execution of this addition
42. Which one of the following is an application operation, the status of the carry overflow and sign
of the backtracking algorithm? flags respectively will be
(A) Finding the shortest path (A) 110
(B) Finding the efficient quantity to shop (B) 010
(C) Ludo (C) 100
(D) Crossword (D) 101
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47. Regular expression corresponding to the 50. Numbers of vertices of odd degree in a
following DFA is simple graph is
q1 (A) always even
b
(B) always odd
a b a
(C) either even or odd
a
(D) always zero
q0 q2
b
(A) aU b (aU ba * b ) * 51. A system uses FIFO policy for
page replacement. It has 4 page Frames
(B) aU b ( a *U ba * b )
with no pages loaded to begin with. The
(C) aU b (aU b * ab ) * system first accesses 100 distinct pages in some
order and then accesses the same 100 pages but in
(D) a *U b ( aU ba * b ) reverse order. How many page fault can occur?
(A) 196
(B) 192
(C) 197
(D) 195
48. The numbers of states and the
numbers of final states required for the
DFA that accepts the language L | (a, b) * 52. Consider a 5 stage pipelined processor with
and number of a in is devisible by 3 and number stage delays 5ns, 8ns, 4ns, 6ns and 8ns,
the inter stage buffer delay is 2ns. (while
of b in is not devisible by 4 is
executing the large no. of instructions
(A) 12 and 1 without considering the conflicts). The
(B) 12 and 5 throughput of the pipeline is
(C) 16 and 5 (A) 1×108
(D) 16 and 9
(B) 1.25×108
(C) 0.8×108
(D) 0.5×108
53. A B+tree can contain a maximum of 7
49. Which one of the following is the correct pointers in a node. What is the maximum number
ordering of the coupling of modules from strongest of keys in leaves?
(least desirable) to weakest (most desirable)?
(A) 6
(A) Content, common, control, stamp, data
(B) Common, content, control, stamp, data (B) 3
(C) Content, data, common, stamp, control (C) 4
(D) Data, control, common, stamp, content (D) 7
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54. Which message is used for agent discovery 57. In a B-tree, block size is 1KB, search key
and agent solicitation in Mobile IP? size is 8 bytes, data pointer size is 10 bytes and
block/tree pointer size is 14 bytes. What is the
(A) SMTP
maximum number of data pointer possible in a
(B) FTP non-leaf node of the above given B-tree?
(C) ARP (A) 31
(D) ICMP (B) 32
(C) 30
(D) 33
58. When a derived class is allowed
to change the definition of its base class member
function, it is referred to as ________.
55. For the same size of training data as input
(A) function overloading
the faster learning technique for NN is
(B) multi level inheritance
(A) supervised training with Gradient (C) function overriding
decent error correction (D) hybrid inheritance
(B) supervised training with
stochastic method
59. Let G be a simple graph with 10 vertices. In
(C) supervised training with error
the graph G, there is a vertex of degree 1, a vertex
calculation of degree 2, a vertex of degree 3, a vertex of degree
(D) supervised training with Hebbian 4, a vertex of degree 5, a vertex of degree 6, a
method vertex of degree 7, a vertex of degree 8
and a vertex of degree 9. What can be the
degree of the remaining (last) vertex?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
56. Palindromes can’t be recognized by finite
state automata because,
60. Which of the following statements is true?
S1= FSA cannot deterministically fix
the midpoint. (A) Regression testing and acceptance
testing are same
S2= Even if the mid point is known, it
cannot match the second half with (B) Regression tests show if all defects
the first half. in the modified part of the code
have been resolved
S3= FSA cannot have arbitrarily large
memory. (C) Regression tests are performed to
detect if code changes have
(A) only S1 is sufficient introduced any defects
(B) S2 and S3 are sufficient (D) Regression tests should only be
(C) S1 and S3 are sufficient performed during integrtion
(D) S1, S2, S3 all are sufficient testing
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61. A system has 6 identical resources and N 64. Backtracking algorithm is implemented by
processes competing for them. Each process can constructing a tree of choices called as _______.
request at most 2 resources. Which one (A) State-space tree
of the following value of N could lead to (B) State-chart tree
a deadlock?
(C) Node tree
(A) 1 (D) Backtracking tree
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 6
65. In cloud, service uptime is 45
minutes and downtime is 15 minutes in
an hour. What is the availability of the
62. Considering the following two statements, service?
which option is correct? (A) 0.15
S1= The context-free languages are closed under (B) 0.45
homomorphism. (C) 0.75
S2= Any multitape turing machine cannot be (D) 0.95
simulated by single tape turing machine.
(A) S1 and S2 both are true
(B) S1 is true and S2 is false
(C) S1 and S2 both are false 66. In a neural network if sigmoids were present
(D) S1 is false and S2 is true the three layers would
(A) extend into 4 layers
(B) collapse into only 2 layers
(C) Either (A) or (B) depending upon
63. Match List-I with List-II and select the situation
correct answer using the codes given below the
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
lists:
List-I List-II
(a) ADD R1, R2, R3 (1) Three address instruction
(b) PUSH X (2) Two address istruction
67. If a problem can be solved by combining
(c) ADD (3) One address instruction optimal solutions to non-overlaping problems, the
(d) SUB R1, R3 (4) Zero Address instruction strategy is called _______.
(A) Dynamic programming
Where R1, R2, R3 are Registers and X (B) Greedy
is the memory address. (C) Divide and Conquer
Codes: (D) Recursion
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (1) (3) (4) (2)
(B) (4) (3) (4) (3)
(C) (2) (3) (1) (4) 68. A cyclic group is always a/an
(D) (1) (4) (4) (2) (A) Subgroup
(B) Monoid
(C) Abelian group
(D) Semi group
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69. What will be the output of the following 72. In public key cryptography, exponentiation
‘C++’ code? is a commonly used operation. Which option has
#include <iostream> the tightest upper bound on the number of
#include <vector> multiplications required to compute bn mod m
using namespace std; where 0 b and n m ?
int main ( )
{ (A) O (log n)
vector<int>v;
for (int i=1; i<=5; i++) (B) O ( n )
v. push–back (i);
Cout<<v.size(); (C) O (n2 )
Cout<<””<<v.capacity();
return 0; (D) O (n)
}
(A) 85
(B) 88
(C) 55
(D) 58
70. Let ri(D) and Wi(D) are read and
73. The main purpose of integration testing is
write operations respectively on data D
to find which one of the following types of errors?
by transaction Ti. Consider the following
(A) Logic errors
schedules:
S1= r2(A), r3(B), W2(A), r3(A), r1(C), r1(A), r2(C), (B) Algorithmic errors
W3(B), W1(C). (C) Arithmetic errors
S2= W2(B), r3(A), r1(B), r3(B), r2(C), r1(C), (D) Interface errors
W2(C), r3(C), W1(C)
Which of the following is correct?
(A) S1 is conflict serializable
(B) For schedule S1, T2T3T1 is only
possible serial schedule which is
conflict equivalent to S1
(C) S2 is view serializable
(D) Serial schedule T2T3T1 is view 74. Which of the following technologies help
equivalent to S2 in evolution of cloud computing?
(i) Grid computing and utility computing.
(ii) Virtualization and Hypervisor.
71. The number of non-negative (iii) Edge and Fog computing.
solutions to x y z 18 with the conditions (iv) Service-oriented architecture.
x 3, y 2 and z 1 is
(A) (ii) and (iii)
(A) 86
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) 88
(C) (i) and (ii)
(C) 91
(D) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) 94
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79. Consider a relation schema r(A,B,C,D,E,F)
75. Match the following: and attribute A is element of every candidate key
of r. Maximum possible candidate key of r is
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 11
(a) 192.7.255.2 (i) Class-A (D) 10
(b) 129.255.255.1 (ii) Class-B
(c) 125.0.0.0 (iii) Class-C
Codes:
(a) (b) (c)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) 80. Which of the following is false?
(A) The C++ interfaces are
implemented using abstract
classes
76. Which of the following is good (B) The purposes of an abstract class
for sorting arrays having less than 100 is to provide an appropriate base
elements? class from which other classes
(A) Quick sort can inherit
(B) Selection sort (C) Abstract classes can be used to
instantiate objects and serve only
(C) Merge sort
as an interface
(D) Insertion sort
(D) Classes that can be used to
instantiate objects are called
concrete class
77. Depth First Search is equivalent to which of
the traversal in the Binary Trees?
(A) Pre-order
(B) Post-order
(C) Level-order
(D) In-order
81. Protocol stack of IoT are as follows:
(A) Perception layer, Network layer
78. The stalling of the processor due to the and Application layer
unavailability of the instructions is called as (B) Internet, Transport and
_______. Application layer
(A) Control Hazards (C) Physical layer, Transport and
(B) Structural Hazards Application layer
(C) Input Hazards (D) Network, Transport and
(D) Data Hazards Application layer
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82. Consider the following four statements: 86. In memory interleaving, the lower order
S1: MD5 is vulnerable to the Birthday bits of the address is used to _______.
attack. (A) get the data
S2: Traceroute uses the “Destination (B) get the address of the module
port unreachable” ICMP error (C) get the address of the data within the
message. module
S3: AES is a type of public key (D) get the address of the data outside the
encryption algorithm. module
S4: IPv4 has a maximum of 60 byte
fixed header size.
How many of the above statements are true?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
87. What is the time complexity of the search
function in a hash table using a binary tree?
83. Which of the following requires a device (A) O (1)
driver? (B) O (n)
(A) Disk (C) O (logn)
(B) RAM (D) O (n logn)
(C) L2 Cache
(D) L1 Cache
84. Consider a project with the following
functional units: 50 user inputs, 40 user outputs, 30
users enqueries, 5 user files, 3 external interfaces. 88. Which of the following statements regarding
What will be the unadjusted function points for the the features of the object-oriented approach to
project? databases are true?
(A) 391 (a) The ability to develop more realistic models
(B) 491 of the real world
(b) The ability to represent the world in a non-
(C) 591
geometric way
(D) 691 (c) The ability to develop databases using
natural language approaches
(d) The need to split objects into their
85. A relation R on a set is represented by the component parts
(e) The ability to develop database models
matrix 1,1, 0 , 1,1,1 , 0,1,1 . R is ______. based on location rather than state and
behaviour
(A) Reflexive
(A) (a), (b) and (c)
(B) Symmetric (B) (b), (c) and (d)
(C) Both Reflexive and Symmetric (C) (a), (d) and (e)
(D) Neither Reflexive nor Symmetric (D) (c), (d) and (e)
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93. Consider a relation schema r (A, B, C, D)
with F as set of functional dependencies. F contains
89. Match the following:
the following functional dependencies:
AB
AD
AC
I. Primary index (a) non key and ordering BD
II. Clustering index (b) non-key and non- We decompose the relation r into two
ordering relation schemas r 1(A, B, C) and
III. Secondary index (c) Key and ordering r2 (B, D).
(key) Which of the following statement(s)
IV Secondary index (d) Key and non is/are correct regarding above situation?
(non-key) ordering (I) Decomposition in lossless
Codes:
(II) Decomposition in dependency preserving
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) (d) (a) (c) (b) (III) (Functional dependency in r1) U (Functional
(B) (c) (a) (d) (b) dependency in r2) = F
(C) (c) (b) (d) (a) (IV) Decomposition is in BCNF
(D) (d) (b) (c) (a) (A) Only I
(B) I and II
(C) I, II and IV
90. What is the value of the postfix (D) III and IV
expression
6 3 2 4 + – *?
(A) 1
(B) –18
(C) 40
(D) 74
91. A hardisk has 32 recording of surfaces, 256
cylinders, 512 sectors per track and sector size is
1KB. The total size of the hardisk is
(A) 4 GB
(B) 4 TB
94. What is the availability of software with the
(C) 2 GB
following reliability parameters?
(D) 4 MB
(a) Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF)=25
days.
(b) Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)=6 hours.
92. The extra time needed to bring the data into
memory in case of a miss is called as ________. (A) 1%
(A) Delay (B) 24%
(B) Propagation time (C) 98.06%
(C) Miss penalty (D) 99.009%
(D) Extra time
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95. A solution to the Dining Philosophers 97. Which data structure is most suitable for
Problem which avoids deadlock is/are uniform cost search?
(A) Ensure that all philosophers pick (A) Stack
up the left fork before the right (B) Queue
fork (C) D-Queue
(B) Ensure that all philosophers pick (D) Priority queue
up the right fork before the left
fork
(C) Ensure that one particular
philosopher pick up the left before
the right fork and that all other
philosophers pick up the right fork
before the left fork
(D) Ensure that all philosophers pick
up the left and right fork
sequentially one after another
96. Consider a portion of the network
diagram given below. What is the LF of
activity C?
ES = 11, EF = 17 ES = 26, EF = 33
LS = 18, LF = 20 LS = 27, LF = 38
A D
C
98. Use the effect of slow start on a link with 8
milliseconds RTT and there is no congestion. The
receiver window is 48kB and maximum segment
B E
size is 2kB. How long does it take before the first
full window can be sent?
(A) 24 msec
(B) 40 msec
(C) 48 msec
ES = 7, EF = 16 ES = 26, EF = 32
(D) 64 msec
LS = 9, LF = 20 LS = 27, LF = 37
(A) 24
(B) 25
(C) 26
(D) 27
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99. Time complexity of Best First Search is 100. Match the following:
(i) Mark and Swap (a) Optimization
(A) O (bd ) Algorithm
(ii) Temporaries (b) Garbage Collection
(B) O (ed )
(iii) Loop unrolling (c) Activation Records
(C) O (log n) (iv) Local Optimization (d) Basic Block
2
(D) O (n )
Codes:
(A) (i)-a (ii)-c (iii)-b (iv)-d
(B) (i)-b (ii)-c (iii)-d (iv)-a
(C) (i)-b (ii)-d (iii)-a (iv)-c
(D) (i)-b (ii)-c (iii)-a (iv)-d
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X–19 22
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THE WEST BENGAL COLLEGE SERVICE COMMISSION
26TH SET ANSWER KEY
COMPUTER SCIENCE - 22 - PAPER II : X SERIES
Q. NO. ANSWER Q. NO. ANSWER Q. NO. ANSWER Q. NO. ANSWER
1 B 26 C 51 A 76 D
2 D 27 B 52 A 77 A
3 C 28 C 53 B 78 A
4 D 29 B 54 D 79 D
5 B 30 C 55 A 80 C
6 C 31 D 56 D 81 A
7 D 32 B 57 A 82 C
8 A 33 B 58 C 83 A
9 A 34 D 59 D 84 C
10 C 35 D 60 C 85 C
11 D 36 A 61 D 86 B
12 C 37 D 62 B 87 A
13 B 38 C 63 A 88 A
14 B 39 D 64 A 89 B
15 B 40 C 65 C 90 B
16 C 41 C 66 B 91 A
17 A 42 D 67 C 92 C
18 C 43 B 68 C 93 C
19 D 44 D 69 D 94 D
20 C 45 C 70 A 95 C
21 D 46 C 71 C 96 D
22 C 47 A 72 A 97 D
23 B 48 A, B, C, D 73 D 98 B
24 A 49 A 74 B 99 A
25 A 50 A 75 C 100 DPage 1 of 20
Source: West Bengal College Service Commission. Question paper published by West Bengal College Service Commission.