GIC Assistant Manager Syllabus, Exam Pattern, Eligibility
185 topics across 7 subjects. Every question carries a written explanation.
GIC Assistant Manager is the officer recruitment of the General Insurance Corporation of India, trading as GIC Re, the national reinsurer and a Government of India company (CIN L67200MH1972GOI016133, IRDA Registration No. 112) at Suraksha, 170 J. Tata Road, Churchgate, Mumbai 400020. It describes itself as the 10th largest reinsurance company in the world.
The post is Assistant Manager (Scale I). The latest detailed advertisement, Ref. GIC-HO/HR/Recruit_Scale1/874/2024-25 of 04-Dec-2024, was for 110 officers in nine streams, with registration from 4 to 19 December 2024 and the online examination on 5 January 2025.
A reinsurer's intake looks different: 22 IT officers, 20 insurance specialists, 10 actuaries, and one engineer each in Marine, Aeronautical, Mechanical, Civil and Electrical, because those are the risks it reinsures. Candidates may apply for one stream only, and vacancies are interchangeable between streams if no suitable candidate is found.
What defines it
- A Group Discussion, 20 of 200 marks. No other public sector insurer runs one.
- The descriptive paper counts towards the shortlist, where other insurers discard theirs.
- The qualifying bar is 60 per cent for General and OBC and 50 for SC and ST at every stage separately, though the Corporation relaxed it in the 2024-25 cycle and said so.
- The Medical stream has no written test; its two posts are filled on two levels of interview.
- The initial posting is the corporate office in Mumbai, with liability to serve anywhere in India and abroad.
Pay starts at a basic of ₹50,925, total emoluments about ₹85,000 a month, with a Mumbai lease accommodation limit of ₹45,000. GIC Re publishes stream-wise cut-offs: in 2024-25 the Actuary stream produced no qualified candidate at all, and general-category cut-offs ran from 68.50 (Insurance) to 94.75 (Generalist) out of 150.
Last checked against the official notification on .
GIC Assistant Manager Details
Exam Pattern
The written examination, 150 marks in 150 minutes
| Part | General stream | Specialist streams | Marks | Questions | Time |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| A, objective | Higher Order Reasoning Ability and Critical Thinking | Technical and Professional Knowledge Test in the relevant discipline | 40 | 40 | 30 minutes |
| B, objective, common | Test of Reasoning | 20 | 20 | 60 minutes | |
| Test of English Language, with emphasis on grammar and vocabulary | 25 | 25 | |||
| Test of General Awareness | 20 | 20 | |||
| Test of Numerical Ability and Computer Literacy | 15 | 15 | |||
| C, descriptive, common | English: essay, precis and comprehension, typed | 30 | 3 | 60 minutes | |
| Total | 150 | 123 | 150 minutes | ||
One fourth of the marks assigned to a question is deducted for a wrong objective answer. Papers are bilingual, English and Hindi, except the English tests, and the descriptive answers are typed in English. The shortlist for GD and interview is drawn on objective and descriptive marks together, out of 150, so the descriptive paper is a fifth of the written score rather than a qualifier.
The three stages
| Stage | Marks | Share of 200 |
|---|---|---|
| Online Test | 150 | 75 per cent |
| Group Discussion | 20 | 10 per cent |
| Interview | 30 | 15 per cent |
Doctors are selected on two levels of interview with no written test.
The qualifying marks, and the relaxation
The advertisement sets 60 per cent for General and OBC and 50 per cent for SC and ST in the online test, in the overall process, and in each of the online test, GD and interview separately. The Corporation reserves the right to relax it according to the number of vacancies, and in 2024-25 it did: its cut-off notice of 25 March 2025 says the qualifying marks were relaxed by the Competent Authority under Clause 1.19 of Recruitment Policy, 2023, in view of non-availability of sufficient candidates. Read the 60 per cent as the intended standard, not the applied one.
Syllabus
The advertisement gives no topic list, but the part titles are precise: a stream-specific Part A and common Parts B and C.
Part A, 40 marks in 30 minutes
For the General stream, Higher Order Reasoning Ability and Critical Thinking: critical reasoning proper, meaning assumptions, inferences, conclusions, strengthening and weakening arguments, cause and effect, statement and course of action, analytical puzzles and decision making, not bank-style seating arrangements.
For every other stream, a Technical and Professional Knowledge Test in the discipline:
| Stream | Ground covered |
|---|---|
| Insurance | Classes of business, underwriting, rating, treaty and facultative reinsurance, proportional and non-proportional treaties, retention and retrocession, catastrophe cover, claims and reserving, the Insurance Act 1938 and IRDAI regulations |
| Actuary | The IAI papers already passed, with CS2 compulsory: survival models, mortality and morbidity, general insurance reserving and pricing |
| Finance | Accounting standards, financial statements, corporate finance, taxation, audit, investment and insurance financial reporting |
| Legal | Contract, tort, company law, arbitration, consumer protection, the Insurance Act 1938 and the IRDA Act 1999 |
| HR | HRM, industrial relations, labour law, organisational behaviour, recruitment, training and compensation |
| Engineering | The candidate's own branch: Marine, Aeronautical, Mechanical, Civil or Electrical |
For IT the advertisement names the skills: software developers in C++, C#, .Net, Java, JavaScript, Python, SAP or ABAP on SAP HANA; network administrators in deep packet tracing, troubleshooting, Nmap, putty, Linux and Cisco IOS; system administrators in server architecture, OS, DB, data centre operations, Linux and PowerShell commands, VB script and SQL; information security officers in ethical hacking, security threats, hacking and spoofing.
Part B, 80 marks in 60 minutes
Reasoning (20); English with emphasis on grammar and vocabulary (25), the largest section, since comprehension sits in Part C; General Awareness (20), where for a reinsurer the reinsurance market, IRDAI, the obligatory cession and global catastrophe events are likely; and Numerical Ability and Computer Literacy (15), two subjects sharing one section.
Part C and the Group Discussion
Part C is an essay, a precis and a comprehension, 30 marks in 60 minutes, typed, and counted. The Group Discussion is 20 marks with its own qualifying minimum, held with the interview at a selected centre. There is no separate computer section, no Hindi paper, and no insurance section for the General stream.
Eligibility Criteria
| Stream | Posts | Minimum qualification |
|---|---|---|
| Information Technology | 22 | B.E. or B.Tech in Computer Science, IT, Electronics and Electrical, Electronics and Telecommunications or Electronics and Communication, or any graduate plus an MCA |
| Insurance | 20 | Any graduate, plus a PG degree or diploma in General Insurance, Risk Management or Life Insurance, or FIII or FCII |
| General | 18 | Any graduate. PG or MBA desirable |
| Finance | 18 | B.Com. MBA Finance, CFA, CA, CMA or M.Com desirable |
| Actuary | 10 | Any graduate, and at least 7 papers of the Institute of Actuaries of India or the Institute and Faculty of Actuaries, London, CS2 compulsory |
| Legal | 9 | A law degree recognised by the Bar Council of India for enrolment. LLM, experience, civil or cyber desirable |
| HR | 6 | Any graduate, and a PG in HRM or Personnel Management |
| Engineering | 5 | B.E. or B.Tech, one post each in Marine, Aeronautical, Mechanical, Civil and Electrical |
| Medical (MBBS) | 2 | MBBS, registered with the Indian Medical Association, internship finished by the cut-off date |
| Total | 110 |
The degree must carry 60 per cent for General and OBC candidates and 55 per cent for SC and ST, in every stream. Qualifications, with the certificate, must be held as on 01-11-2024, and every candidate must have computer proficiency. One stream only: with multiple applications, the last stands and the other fees are forfeited.
Age, 21 to 30 as on 01-11-2024
Born not earlier than 02-11-1994 and not later than 01-11-2003.
| Category | Relaxation |
|---|---|
| SC and ST | 5 years |
| OBC | 3 years |
| Persons with Disability | 10 years |
| Ex-Servicemen and Disabled Ex-Servicemen | Defence service plus 3 years; 8 years for Disabled Ex-Servicemen of SC or ST; maximum 45 |
| Widows, divorced women and women legally separated, not remarried | 9 years |
| Confirmed employees of public sector general insurers, including GIC and AIC | 8 years |
Relaxations are cumulative, up to a maximum age of 45.
Reservation
| General | SC | ST | OBC | EWS | PwBD | Total | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Non-medical vacancies | 43 | 15 | 10 | 34 | 6 | 5 (4 HI, 1 MD) | 108 |
| Of which backlog | - | 5 | 5 | 16 | - | 3 HI | 26 |
Nearly a quarter of the non-medical posts are backlog, including 16 of the 34 OBC posts. The two Medical posts are filled without written examination. Creamy layer OBC candidates get neither reservation nor age relaxation, and vacancy numbers may rise or fall at final selection. PwBD reservation runs under section 34 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, across blindness and low vision, deaf and hard of hearing, locomotor disability, specific learning disability and multiple disabilities.
Nationality: a citizen of India, a subject of Nepal or Bhutan, a Tibetan refugee who came before 1 January 1962 intending to settle, or a person of Indian origin migrated from the listed countries, the last categories needing a Government of India certificate of eligibility. Eligibility is checked late, and an ineligible candidate's fee is forfeited.
Selection Process
- Online test, 150 marks including the descriptive paper.
- Group Discussion (20) and interview (30), at a selected centre named in the call letter, for candidates shortlisted on the online test. The list is displayed on the Corporation's website.
- Final merit list in descending order of the consolidated marks out of 200; candidates within the vacancies are considered for appointment, with seniority by merit.
- Pre-employment medical examination, for which a final cut-off list is published. For 2024-25 it came on 26 April 2025.
The minimum, 60 per cent for General and OBC and 50 for SC and ST, applies at each stage separately, subject to the relaxation the Corporation used in 2024-25. No request to change the GD or interview date or centre is entertained, though the Corporation may change them or hold a supplementary round. Outstation candidates are reimbursed to and fro III AC rail or bus fare by the shortest route for the interview, on proof of the journey.
A waiting list may be prepared and used if selected candidates decline, at the management's discretion. Sitting any stage confers no right to selection. Doctors are selected on two levels of interview with no written test, the first level held online, with its own shortlist and result.
Bring a valid call letter, an original photo identity proof with exactly the same name, and a photocopy of it, to both the examination and the interview. No correspondence is entertained until the recruitment is complete.
Salary
Basic pay ₹50,925 a month in the scale ₹50925-2500(14)-85925-2710(4)-96765, plus DA, HRA, CCA and other allowances, for total emoluments of approximately ₹85,000 a month.
| Starting basic | ₹50,925 |
| First stage | ₹2,500 a year for 14 years, to ₹85,925 |
| Second stage | ₹2,710 a year for 4 years, to ₹96,765 |
| Lease accommodation limit, Mumbai | ₹45,000 a month |
It is the industry Scale I, the one National, Oriental and United India Insurance quote for their Administrative Officers. Corporation-owned accommodation is not currently available, so the lease limit is a substantial part of the package for a Mumbai posting.
Other benefits: New Pension Scheme, newspaper or internet allowance, leave travel subsidy, medical benefits, house furnishing and household help allowances, Sodexo, personal accident cover, housing, vehicle and computer loans at subsidised interest, and interest free festival and calamity advances.
The posts are permanent. The initial posting is the corporate office in Mumbai, with transfer anywhere in India and abroad. The advertisement prescribes no bond, unlike the general insurers' four-year officer bonds with a year's gross salary at stake.
How to Apply
Online only, through gicre.in, from 04-12-2024 to 19-12-2024.
| Who | Fee |
|---|---|
| SC and ST, PH candidates, all female candidates, employees of GIC and GIPSA member companies | Nil |
| Everyone else | ₹1,000 plus 18% GST, ₹1,180, non-refundable, online only |
No other insurer exempts every female candidate. GIPSA members are New India, National, Oriental and United India Insurance.
| Image | Specification |
|---|---|
| Photograph | 200 x 230 pixels preferred, 20 kb to 50 kb |
| Signature | Black ink on white paper, 140 x 60 pixels preferred, 10 kb to 20 kb |
| Left thumb impression | Black or blue ink on white paper, 20 kb to 50 kb |
| Hand written declaration | In English, black ink on white paper, 50 kb to 100 kb |
Scan at a minimum of 200 dpi in True Color, jpg or jpeg. Signature, thumb impression and declaration must be the applicant's own, and a signature or declaration in CAPITAL LETTERS is not accepted. If the signature on the attendance sheet does not match the one uploaded, the candidate is disqualified, so upload the signature you actually use.
Keep a personal e-mail and mobile live until the recruitment ends. An application with a failed fee payment is not valid; print the form with fee details as proof. SC, ST, OBC and PWD candidates are offered online pre-recruitment training before the exam.
Participating Institutes
General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re) does not sell policies to the public. It reinsures the insurers, in India and abroad, and that shows in this recruitment in three ways: a 10-post Actuary stream, since pricing and reserving are a reinsurer's core work; an engineering intake in Marine, Aeronautical, Mechanical, Civil and Electrical, the risk classes it underwrites; and liability to be posted abroad. The L in its CIN means it is listed.
The post is Assistant Manager (Scale I) in nine streams: IT 22, Insurance 20, General 18, Finance 18, Actuary 10, Legal 9, HR 6, Engineering 5, Medical 2. Every officer starts at the corporate office in Mumbai: one corporate office and an overseas network, rather than the branch network the four general insurers post across.
The fee exemption and the eight-year age relaxation extend to employees of GIPSA, the General Insurers' Public Sector Association, whose members are New India Assurance, National Insurance, Oriental Insurance and United India Insurance.
The Careers section keeps every document for a cycle together, and retains the advertisements of 2019, 2021 and January 2024 and a 2019 revision-of-vacancy notice, so changes in streams and vacancy counts can be traced.
Exam Centres
| State or UT | Cities |
|---|---|
| Andhra Pradesh | Rajahmundry, Vijayawada or Guntur |
| Assam | Guwahati |
| Bihar | Patna |
| Chandigarh | Chandigarh or Mohali |
| Gujarat | Ahmedabad or Gandhinagar |
| Karnataka | Bengaluru, Mangalore |
| Kerala | Thiruvananthapuram, Kozhikode |
| Madhya Pradesh | Bhopal |
| Maharashtra | Mumbai, Navi Mumbai, Thane or MMR, Pune, Nasik, Aurangabad |
| Odisha | Bhubaneswar |
| Rajasthan | Jaipur |
| Tamil Nadu | Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai, Tirunelveli |
| Telangana | Hyderabad, Karimnagar |
| Uttar Pradesh | Lucknow |
| Union Territory | New Delhi NCR |
| West Bengal | Kolkata or Greater Kolkata, Hooghly, Siliguri |
That is 29 cities in 16 states and UTs, with none in Punjab, Haryana, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Goa or the north east beyond Assam. The Corporation may use only some centres, add or cancel others, and allot a candidate elsewhere without monetary compensation. No request to change centre, venue, date or session is entertained.
The paper is 2 hours 30 minutes, but allow about 4 hours at the venue. Anyone reporting after the time on the call letter is not admitted. The GD and interview are held at a selected centre named in their own call letter, with III AC rail or bus fare reimbursed for outstation candidates; the examination itself is at the candidate's expense.
Important Dates
| Date | Event |
|---|---|
| 01-11-2024 | Age and every qualification reckoned, including the MBBS internship |
| 04-Dec-2024 | Advertisement published; registration opens |
| 09-12-2024 | FAQs published, alongside a corrigendum, an addendum on the Scale I Hindi Officer position and the pre-recruitment training notice |
| 19-12-2024 | Registration closes |
| 7 days before the exam | Call letter download opens, with the Information Handout |
| 05-01-2025 | Online examination |
| March 2025 | Shortlist and schedule for GD and interview; Medical stream first-level shortlist |
| 25 March 2025 | Cut-offs for GD and interview, with the relaxation notice |
| 04 April 2025 | Result of the Medical stream first-level online interview |
| April 2025 | Result of GD and interview |
| 26 April 2025 | Final cut-offs for the pre-employment medical examination |
Fifteen days from advertisement to close and seventeen more to the exam, the shortest window of any insurance recruitment here, so a specialist needs the professional certificate in hand before the advertisement appears. The whole cycle took under five months; other insurers took nine months to a year and a half.
The stream and centre chosen by 19-12-2024 cannot be changed. Dates for the next cycle appear in the Careers section.
Admit Card
Call letters can be downloaded from 7 days before the examination, with an Information Handout in English and Hindi describing the online interface. The GD and interview have their own call letter.
Without three documents you are not admitted: the call letter, an original photo identity proof with exactly the same name, and a photocopy of it. Accepted IDs include PAN, passport, permanent driving licence, voter card, bank passbook with photo, Aadhaar or E-Aadhaar, employee ID and Bar Council ID; ration cards and learner's licences are not. A name changed after marriage needs the original gazette notification, marriage certificate or affidavit.
Your signature on the attendance sheet is checked against the one you uploaded, and a mismatch disqualifies.
Result
Results come in sequence on the Careers section: the online test result with the GD and interview shortlist; the cut-offs for GD and interview; the GD and interview schedule; the GD and interview result; the final cut-offs for the pre-employment medical examination, which is the real selection list; and a link to view your own GD and interview marks. The Medical stream runs its own first-level shortlist and result.
The final merit list ranks consolidated marks out of 200, with seniority by merit. A waiting list may be used at the management's discretion if selected candidates decline.
Cut Off
Two signed notices carry the 2024-25 figures: the GD and interview cut-off notice of 25 March 2025, out of 150, and the final cut-off notice of 26 April 2025, out of 200.
Called for GD and interview, out of 150
| Stream | SC | ST | OBC | EWS | General | PwBD (HI) | PwBD (MD) |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Actuary | No candidate qualified in any category | ||||||
| Aeronautical Engg | 67.50 | 72.50 | 70.50 | - | 81.25 | - | - |
| Civil Engg | 79.25 | 68.25 | 79.75 | - | 79.75 | - | - |
| Electrical Engg | 71.25 | - | 67.75 | 66.25 | 79.50 | - | - |
| Finance | 81.50 | 70.25 | 79.25 | 83.75 | 84.00 | - | - |
| Generalist | 87.50 | 82.00 | 89.75 | 87.50 | 94.75 | 80.25 | 91.25 |
| HR | 77.50 | 63.25 | 70.75 | 79.50 | 79.50 | - | - |
| IT | 69.25 | 62.75 | 73.00 | 79.50 | 79.50 | - | - |
| Insurance | 61.50 | - | 65.75 | - | 68.50 | - | - |
| Legal | 83.75 | 76.00 | 83.00 | 87.50 | 91.00 | 72.75 | - |
| Marine Engg | 68.00 | 75.25 | 78.00 | 78.00 | 78.00 | - | - |
| Mechanical Engg | 68.00 | 59.75 | 78.00 | - | 85.50 | - | - |
Final, for the medical examination, out of 200
| Stream | SC | ST | OBC | EWS | General |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Aeronautical Engg | - | 111.70 | - | - | - |
| Civil Engg | 118.65 | - | - | - | - |
| Electrical Engg | - | - | - | - | 119.90 |
| Finance | 125.45 | 109.85 | 123.35 | 123.60 | 129.80 |
| Generalist | 122.90 | 121.80 | 127.50 | 133.00 | 134.75 |
| HR | 122.50 | - | 114.00 | - | 124.75 |
| IT | 103.20 | 107.30 | 112.35 | 121.15 | 123.60 |
| Insurance | 104.20 | - | 117.00 | - | 110.55 |
| Legal | - | 123.15 | 124.30 | 127.90 | 131.65 |
| Marine Engg | - | - | 134.15 | - | - |
| Mechanical Engg | - | - | 118.00 | - | - |
| Medical, interview only | - | 74.80 | - | 77.40 | - |
A dash or N/A means no candidate qualified in that cell; one Insurance OBC figure is marked as a candidate who availed the OBC benefit. Sixty per cent of 150 is 90, and only Generalist and Legal cut off above that for general candidates. Insurance closed at 68.50, about 46 per cent, so the relaxation was not marginal. Each stream is its own contest, and with one post per engineering discipline those rows are individual candidates rather than distributions. The figures are after the one-fourth penalty and include the descriptive paper.
Preparation Tips
Choose the stream first
On the same paper in January 2025, general candidates needed 94.75 in Generalist, 91.00 in Legal, 84.00 in Finance and 68.50 in Insurance, while the Actuary stream produced nobody. A candidate with an FIII, FCII or insurance PG competes in the stream with the lowest published cut-off, and one stream is all you get.
Part A is where specialists gain
Forty marks in thirty minutes on your own discipline is the most improvable part of the paper. For the General stream it is critical reasoning (assumptions, inferences, argument evaluation), which seating-arrangement practice will not cover.
Treat the descriptive paper as a scoring paper
Thirty marks, a fifth of the written score, and counted in the shortlist. Practise the essay, precis and comprehension typed, in 60 minutes, at the end of a 90-minute objective session.
Weight Part B by its titles
English is 25 marks with emphasis on grammar and vocabulary. For General Awareness, read reinsurance: treaty and facultative business, the obligatory cession, catastrophe cover, IRDAI's reinsurance regulations.
Score practice the way it will be scored
Deduct a quarter of a question's marks for each wrong answer, add the descriptive mark, score out of 150, and compare with your stream's published figure. Part B, 80 marks in an hour, is the tightest stretch.
Practise a Group Discussion
Twenty marks with their own minimum, and candidates from the banking circuit will not have done one. Expect a reinsurer's topics: catastrophe and climate risk, insurance penetration, technology in underwriting, regulation.
Two administrative traps
Upload the signature you actually use, because a mismatch in the hall disqualifies. And have your professional certificate ready before the advertisement: the 2024 window was fifteen days. Female candidates, whatever their category, pay no fee.
Sample Papers
No previous year or sample papers are available for GIC Re Assistant Manager as of now. The Corporation publishes the exam structure in the advertisement, an Information Handout on the online interface, and stream-wise cut-offs afterwards, all in its Careers section, with a new advertisement usually appearing around December.
Official Links
- Detailed advertisement, Ref. GIC-HO/HR/Recruit_Scale1/874/2024-25 of 04-Dec-2024, 35 pages, with its corrigendum and FAQs
- GIC Re Careers, where every document for a cycle is kept
- Cut-offs for GD and interview, Ref. GIC-HO/HR/RECRUIT_CUTOFF/1273/2024-25 of 25-Mar-2025, and final cut-offs, Ref. GIC-HO/HR/Recruit_Scale1/63/2025-26 of 26-Apr-2025
- Schedule for GD and interview and result of GD and interview
- Information Handout, pre-recruitment training notice, and the 2021 advertisement for comparison
- Qualifying bodies: Institute of Actuaries of India, Institute and Faculty of Actuaries, Insurance Institute of India (FIII), Chartered Insurance Institute (FCII), Bar Council of India
- Sector reading: IRDAI and the General Insurance Council
Frequently Asked Questions
What is GIC Re?
The General Insurance Corporation of India, the national reinsurer and, by its own account, the 10th largest reinsurance company in the world. It reinsures insurers rather than selling policies to the public.
How many streams and posts are there?
Nine streams and 110 posts in 2024-25: IT 22, Insurance 20, General 18, Finance 18, Actuary 10, Legal 9, HR 6, Engineering 5, Medical 2. You may apply for one only.
Is there a Group Discussion?
Yes, 20 marks, with the interview 30 and the written test 150, for 200. No other public sector insurer runs one.
Does the descriptive paper count?
Yes. The GD shortlist is on objective and descriptive marks together, out of 150. The descriptive paper is 30 marks in 60 minutes.
Do doctors sit the written exam?
No. They are selected on two levels of interview.
What are the qualifying marks?
60 per cent for General and OBC and 50 for SC and ST, at each stage separately. In 2024-25 they were relaxed under Clause 1.19 of the Recruitment Policy 2023 because too few candidates reached them.
What marks did candidates actually need?
General candidates needed between 68.50 (Insurance) and 94.75 (Generalist) out of 150 to reach the GD, and final cut-offs ran from 110.55 to 134.75 out of 200. The Actuary stream produced no qualified candidate.
What marks do I need in my degree, and what is the age limit?
60 per cent for General and OBC, 55 for SC and ST. Age 21 to 30 as on 01-11-2024, with cumulative relaxation capped at 45.
What is the fee?
₹1,000 plus 18 per cent GST. SC, ST, PH, all female candidates, and employees of GIC and GIPSA members pay nothing.
Is there negative marking?
Yes, a quarter of the question's marks on objective answers. None on the descriptive paper.
Where will I be posted, and what is the pay?
Initially at the corporate office in Mumbai, with liability anywhere in India and abroad. Basic ₹50,925, total emoluments about ₹85,000 a month, Mumbai lease limit ₹45,000. There is no bond.
Will my interview travel be paid?
Yes, III AC rail or bus fare both ways by the shortest route for outstation candidates. The examination is at your own expense, and you should allow about 4 hours at the venue.
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- Situation Reaction Test
- Verification of Truth of the Statement
- Letter and Symbol Series
- Logic
- Statement - Arguments
- Statement - Assumptions
- Statement - Courses of Action
- Syllogisms
- Statement - Conclusions
- Deriving Conclusions From Passages
- Theme Detection
- Question - Statements
- Miscellaneous Logical Puzzles
- Mirror and Water Images
- Paper Folding and Cutting
- Completion of Incomplete Pattern
Exam Categories
- SSC Exams
- Banking Exams
- Teaching Exams
- Civil Services Exams
- Railways Exams
- Engineering Recruitment Exams
- Defence Exams
- State Government Exams
- Police Exams
- Insurance Exams
- Nursing Exams
- Other Government Exams
- NRA CET
- PG Entrance Exams
- Campus Placement
- MBA Entrance Exams
- CUET and UG Entrance
- Judiciary Exams
- Regulatory Body Exams
- Software Development