SSC Scientific Assistant Syllabus, Exam Pattern, Eligibility

Paper-II weights three marks a question. Para 18.2 makes Paper-I qualifying: on its normalised marks candidates are shortlisted category-wise for Paper-II, and Paper-II decides the recruitment.

Negative marking differs sharply between the papers

Four wrong answers cancel one right one in Paper-I; three do in Paper-II, the harsher rate falling on the paper that decides the merit list.

What is on the screen

• The Table of IS 456:2000 Code of Practice and the Steam Table, where required, under the "Useful Data" button next to Instructions, active throughout.
• A scientific calculator on screen for the whole duration, as an icon to the left of the candidate's application image.
• No physical table and no physical calculator are allowed in the examination lab.

Normalisation

Marks are normalised when a paper runs in multiple shifts, by the procedure published on 2 June 2025. On top of that, because Electrical and Mechanical candidates receive different papers their marks are normalised against each other as different shifts, and Part-D, Part-E and Part-F are normalised against each other the same way for the IMD post. Para 18.7: final selection uses the normalised Paper-II marks. The total you compute off the answer key is not the number that gets published.

Separate merit lists decide who appears in Paper-II for Junior Engineer (Civil), Junior Engineer (Electrical and Mechanical), Scientific Assistant in IMD and Junior Engineer (Telecom), so you compete within your own stream. Parts A to F are conducted in one batch; only Part-G, for JE (Telecom), runs separately.

Ties break on Part (i) of Paper-I, then Part (ii), then date of birth with older candidates higher, then alphabetical order. Para 13.20 rules out re-evaluation and re-checking; the paid answer-key window is the only route.

This is Para 14 of the Junior Engineer Examination, 2026 notice. Para 14.1 sets the standard for the Scientific Assistant subjects at approximately graduation level. Questions are set in SI units.

Paper-I, Part (i): General Intelligence and Reasoning, 50 questions, 50 marks

Verbal and non-verbal. Analogies, similarities and differences, space visualization, problem solving, analysis, judgement, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning, verbal and figure classification, arithmetical number series, and the ability to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their relationships, arithmetical computations and other analytical functions.

Paper-I, Part (ii): General Awareness, 50 questions, 50 marks

The environment around the candidate and its application to society; current events; matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspect. Questions on India and its neighbouring countries, especially History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General Polity and Scientific Research. These do not require a special study of any discipline.

Paper-I, your subject, 100 questions, 100 marks

Paper-II covers the same headings for your Part, at depth. Paper-I is a sweep at 36 seconds a question; Paper-II is the same ground at 72 seconds and three marks each.

Paper-II, Part-D: Computer Science and Information Technology

Paper-II, Part-E: Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering

(A) Electronics. Electronic Materials and Components: conductors, semiconductors, insulators, magnetic and passive components, characteristics of resistors, capacitors and inductors. Diodes: PN junction diode, forward and reverse bias characteristics and equivalent circuits, Zener diode and applications, clipping, clamping and rectifier circuits. Transistors: BJT, FET and MOSFET; biasing and stability; emitter follower; negative feedback; transistor as a switch. Amplifiers and Oscillators: multistage amplifiers, feedback, oscillators, multivibrators, power amplifiers. Voltage Regulation. Network Theorems: Kirchhoff's laws, superposition, Thevenin's, Norton's and maximum power theorems. AC Circuits: voltage and current relationships in resistance, inductance and capacitance; reactance, susceptance, conductance, impedance and admittance in series and parallel RL, RC and RLC circuits. Three-Phase Circuits: star and delta connection, relation between line and phase voltages and currents. Resonance: series and parallel resonance, condition of resonance, resonant frequency, Q factor and bandwidth. Digital Electronics: logic gates, De Morgan's theorem, Boolean algebra, digital logic circuits, systems and codes. Sequential and Combinational Logic: flip-flops, shift registers, frequency counters, combinational logic design. Data Conversion and Codes: digital-to-analog and analog-to-digital converters, timing circuits.

(B) Telecommunication. Antennas: basic antenna principle, directive gain, directivity, radiation pattern, broadside and end-fire arrays, Yagi and parabolic antennas. Radio Wave Propagation: ground wave, space wave and ionospheric propagation. Electromagnetic Spectrum: frequency spectrum. Modulation: types, amplitude modulation, modulation index, power relation in AM, generation and demodulation of AM. Single Sideband: power requirement compared with AM, advantages over AM, balanced modulator, generation of SSB, pilot carrier system, independent side system, vestigial sideband transmission. Frequency Modulation: definition, bandwidth, noise triangle, pre-emphasis and de-emphasis. Pulse Modulation: definition of PM, difference between AM and FM, radio receivers, sampling theorem, PAM, PTM, PWM, PPM, pulse code modulation, quantization noise, companding, PCM system, differential PCM, delta modulation. Multiplexing: FDM and TDM. Digital Communication: PSK, ASK, FSK, fibre optic systems, propagation of light in optical fibre and the ray model. RF Communications and Wireless Telecommunications: propagation of signals at HF, VHF, UHF and microwave frequency, and satellite communications.

Paper-II, Part-F: Physics

Part-E and Part-F overlap on semiconductor devices and analog and digital electronics. Part-D shares nothing with either: it is a computer science paper. Weigh that before making a choice you cannot reverse.

The essential qualification, as revised by the Addendum of 10 September 2026

What the Addendum added: candidates holding qualification (2) must also have passed Class XII from a recognised Board with Physics and Mathematics as subjects. All other provisions of the notice remain unchanged. If you applied between 2 and 10 September 2026, check yourself against the addendum rather than the original notice.

Educational qualifications are reckoned as on the closing date, 22 September 2026. Age is reckoned on a different date.

Age, reckoned as on 1 August 2026

Relaxation is not admissible to sons, daughters and dependants of ex-servicemen. The date of birth in the form must match the Matriculation certificate: a mismatch is a ground for rejection and no change is granted.

Your degree decides which subject you may opt for

Para 13.7 requires the choice to match the stream or branch filled in the online form, and Para 13.8 says it will not be changed under any circumstances.

Cross-eligibility and nationality

Note 4 of the notice makes a Scientific Assistant applicant also eligible for Junior Engineer (Telecom), subject to that post's qualification; Note 2 is the mirror. You may apply for both, but you must then appear in the respective examinations. Part-G runs in a separate batch from Parts A to F, so they do not clash.

A candidate must be a citizen of India, or a subject of Nepal or Bhutan, or a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, Kenya, Uganda, Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia or Vietnam intending to settle permanently in India, the last group needing a certificate of eligibility from the Government of India.

The physical efficiency test and medical standards in this notice's schedules belong to the Border Roads Organisation and its Junior Engineer posts. Scientific Assistant in IMD has none.

1. Paper-I, computer-based, 200 marks, qualifying. On its normalised marks candidates are shortlisted category-wise for Paper-II.
2. Paper-II, computer-based, 300 marks, on the technical Part alone. Only normalised Paper-II scores determine the final merit.
3. Document verification and appointment to the post allotted.

Minimum qualifying marks are 30 per cent for UR, 25 for OBC and EWS and 20 for all other categories, in both papers.

Separate merit lists, separate select lists

Separate merit lists decide who appears in Paper-II for Junior Engineer (Civil), Junior Engineer (Electrical and Mechanical), Scientific Assistant in IMD and Junior Engineer (Telecom), and the select lists at the end are prepared per post on post preference cum normalised Paper-II marks. You are never ranked against a Junior Engineer candidate, but you are ranked against Scientific Assistant applicants who chose a different one of the three subjects.

Allotment is preference-driven, and it is final

Allotment is on merit cum the preferences of post, department and office. Para 18.8: once a post is allotted, no change is made. If you gave a higher preference to a post, are selected for it, and then fail its medical, physical or educational standard, your candidature is rejected and no lower preference is considered. Order your preferences by what you can clear, not only by what you want.

No waiting list

The Commission maintains no waiting or reserve list for its multi-factor examinations. To fill the notified vacancies it uses a sliding mechanism, explained in its notices of 3 March 2026 and 8 April 2026.

SC, ST, OBC, EWS and PwBD candidates selected on their own merit without relaxed standards are accommodated against unreserved vacancies or their category's, whichever is more advantageous. Anyone who qualifies using a relaxed standard counts against reserved vacancies regardless of merit position.

Candidates found indulging in the malpractices listed in the notice have their candidature cancelled and are debarred from the Commission's examinations for the period specified, besides any legal action.

The rule written for the IMD post

Para 18.7: final selection uses the normalised marks in Part-D, Part-E or Part-F of Paper-II, as applicable, and Para 18.4 normalises those three against each other as different shifts first. So whichever subject you chose, you are ranked on marks the Commission has adjusted for the difficulty of each paper.

There is no physical test, no medical standard and no interview for this post under this notice: the two papers and document verification are the whole of it.

₹35,400 is basic pay, not take-home. Dearness Allowance at the rate in force, House Rent Allowance at the class of the city posted to, Transport Allowance and the department's own allowances are added; the National Pension System contribution and CGHS are deducted. The notice publishes the pay level and no take-home figure.

Group 'B' status matters for age relaxation: an ex-serviceman already re-employed on a regular basis in a Central Government Group 'C' or 'D' post after availing ESM reservation is not eligible for ESM reservation or the fee concession again.

The India Meteorological Department runs observatories, radar stations, upper-air stations and forecasting offices across the country, including remote and high-altitude sites, and observational work is round the clock. The notice publishes no posting policy, and the Commission does not collect state-wise or zone-wise vacancies. What is clear is that once a post is allotted, no change is made.

Online only, at ssc.gov.in. The Commission runs a toll-free helpline on 180 030 930 63 for difficulty with the form.

The fee is ₹100, and the exemptions are broad: women candidates, and SC, ST, Persons with Benchmark Disabilities and Ex-Servicemen eligible for reservation, pay nothing. Payment is online only, by BHIM UPI, net banking, or a Visa, MasterCard, Maestro or RuPay debit card. If the fee does not reach the Commission the form shows as 'Incomplete', and an incomplete form is not an application. Check the status after paying.

Three things the form fixes permanently

• Your Part. Part-D, Part-E or Part-F, per your stream or branch. Para 13.8: it will not be changed under any circumstances, and it governs both papers.
• Your centre. Three preferences within one region, in order. No request for a change of centre is considered later.
• Your date of birth, which must match the Matriculation certificate. No change is considered and a mismatch is a ground for rejection.

Everything else can be corrected only in the three-day charged window of 28 to 30 September 2026. After it closes, no change of any kind is allowed, and requests by post, fax, email or hand are summarily rejected.

If you are eligible for more than one post you may apply for more than one, but you must then appear in the respective examinations for each. And read the Addendum of 10 September 2026 before filing: candidates applying through the second qualification route now also need Class XII with Physics and Mathematics, and the correction window is the only chance to fix anything.

Unlike the Junior Engineer posts in the same notice, which are spread across fourteen organisations, Scientific Assistant is recruited by a single department.

It appears at Para 2(13) of the Junior Engineer Examination, 2026 notice, and its essential qualification was replaced by the Addendum of 10 September 2026.

With only one recruiting organisation, the option-cum-preference form carries far less weight here than it does for a Junior Engineer candidate choosing between BRO, MES, CPWD and the rest. Para 18.8 still applies: allotment is on merit cum preference, once a post is allotted no change is made, and a candidate selected against a preference whose educational requirement they cannot meet has their candidature rejected rather than being moved down.

Note 4 makes a Scientific Assistant applicant also eligible for Junior Engineer (Telecom) in the Department of Telecommunications, subject to its own qualification, a bachelor's degree in Engineering or Technology in Electrical, Electronics, Electrical Communications, Computer Science, Telecommunications, Information Technology or Instrumentation, with an age limit of 30. That post is examined on Part-G, which runs in a separate batch, so both are sittable.

The notice gives 1,748 tentative vacancies across all its posts and organisations together and does not break that down by post. Post-wise and category-wise figures are published separately at ssc.gov.in under For Candidates, Tentative Vacancy. The Commission also states that it does not collect state-wise or zone-wise vacancies, so any Scientific Assistant vacancy count circulating before that table appears is not the Commission's.

Both papers are Computer Based Examinations at centres under the Commission's nine regional and sub-regional offices: Central (Bihar, Uttar Pradesh), Eastern, Karnataka-Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, North Eastern, Northern, North Western, Southern and Western. Each region's centre list, with centre codes, is in Para 12.1 of the notice.

You give three centre preferences within one region, in order of priority. No request for change of centre is considered later, under any circumstances, though the Commission reserves the right to add or cancel centres and to divert candidates from one to another.

The console carries the IS 456:2000 table and the Steam Table under the "Useful Data" button, and a scientific calculator for the whole duration. No physical table and no physical calculator are allowed in the lab, so learn where these are before the day.

Parts A to F are conducted in one batch, which includes all three Scientific Assistant subjects; only Part-G runs separately. Paper-I falls tentatively in October or November 2026 and Paper-II in December 2026, as separate events with separate city intimations and separate Admission Certificates.

Age is reckoned as on 1 August 2026, under DoP&T OM No. 14017/70/87-Estt.(RR) of 14 July 1988, not on the closing date. Educational qualifications are reckoned as on the closing date.

Three dates trip people. The fee deadline is a day after the form deadline. The correction window is three days and it is charged. And both examination dates are tentative: Para 13.19 says any change is communicated only through the Commission's website.

For comparison, the 2025 cycle ran Paper-I with self-slot selection notices in November 2025, the Paper-I tentative answer key on 19 December 2025, tentative vacancies on 26 February 2026, the Paper-I result on 6 March 2026, city intimation and Admission Certificates for Paper-II on 23 and 27 March 2026, and the Paper-II tentative answer key on 16 April 2026. A little over a year from notice to final result, with a dated notice at every step, all on ssc.gov.in and in the Commission's annual examination calendar.

The Commission issues an Admission Certificate for each paper, downloaded from the website of the regional office concerned, whose addresses are in Para 12.1 of the notice. A separate intimation of the city of examination is published some days earlier. Both are announced on the notice board at ssc.gov.in, separately for Paper-I and Paper-II.

Paper-I is tentatively in October or November 2026 and Paper-II in December 2026. Each has its own city intimation and its own Admission Certificate, and qualifying in Paper-I is what generates the second.

Candidates eligible for a scribe get 2 hours 40 minutes instead of 2 hours for each paper. The Commission runs a One Time Registration for Scribe facility, and the eligibility must be claimed in the application rather than at the centre.

If the fee has not reached the Commission the application shows as 'Incomplete' and no Admission Certificate follows. Women, SC, ST, PwBD and eligible ex-servicemen pay no fee but should still confirm the form is complete.

The IS 456:2000 table, the Steam Table and a scientific calculator are on the console, and physical copies of either are not allowed in the lab. Your centre cannot be changed on request, though the Commission may itself divert candidates between centres.

Paper-I is qualifying: on its normalised marks candidates are shortlisted category-wise for Paper-II, through separate merit lists for Junior Engineer (Civil), Junior Engineer (Electrical and Mechanical), Scientific Assistant in IMD and Junior Engineer (Telecom). Only normalised Paper-II scores determine the final merit, and select lists are prepared separately for each post, on post preference cum normalised Paper-II marks. Document verification and allotment follow.

Results appear on ssc.gov.in, under the notice board and the results section, and on the regional office websites. The Commission also publishes scores of non-recommended willing candidates for the benefit of other employers.

The answer key window, and its price

Tentative answer keys for each paper are placed on the website with the candidate's own response sheet. Representations are accepted online only, within the stated window, at ₹50 per question, non-refundable. Letters, applications and emails are not entertained. The Commission's Challenge and Objection Management System guidelines of 10 April 2026 apply. Final answer keys are used to process the result and are published with the marks afterwards.

Para 13.20 rules out re-evaluation and re-checking of any stage or paper, and no correspondence on it is entertained.

Vacancies move during the cycle. The notice puts tentative vacancies at 1,748; post-wise and category-wise figures are published separately and revised by corrigenda, so the number in the notice is not the number at the end.

SSC publishes cut-off marks with each result write-up, category-wise, for Paper-I and for the final result, on ssc.gov.in for the year concerned. Nothing is published in advance.

That floor is necessary and nowhere near sufficient. The Paper-I shortlist is drawn category-wise on merit above it, and the final cut-off is whatever the last selected candidate scored in Paper-II.

A published cut-off is a normalised figure, so comparing it against your own raw total is not like for like. Marks are normalised across shifts by the procedure of 2 June 2025; beyond that, Electrical and Mechanical marks are normalised against each other because the two sit different papers, and Part-D, Part-E and Part-F are treated the same way for the IMD post. Within the Scientific Assistant merit list, which is its own list, those three subjects are levelled against each other before the merit is drawn.

Cut-offs also depend on the final vacancy count rather than the 1,748 headline in the notice, which is revised by corrigenda as the cycle runs.

The paid answer-key window, at ₹50 a question, is the only opportunity to contest a question, and it closes quickly. There is no re-evaluation afterwards.

Choose your Part with the whole cycle in view

Para 13.8: the subject opted for will not be changed under any circumstances, and you sit it in Paper-I in October or November and again in Paper-II in December. Three things bear on the choice. Part-D is a computer science paper, not an electronics one: discrete mathematics, theory of computation, compiler design, databases, networks. An electronics graduate who picks it because it sounds adjacent is preparing an unfamiliar subject to graduation level. Part-E and Part-F overlap on semiconductor devices and analog and digital electronics, so much of the work carries over between them. And all three are normalised against each other, so there is no advantage in picking the one you think is easier. Para 18.4 exists to remove exactly that advantage.

Prepare at graduation level

Para 14.1 sets the engineering Parts of this examination at Diploma standard and the Scientific Assistant subjects at graduation standard. Material aimed at the Junior Engineer Parts is pitched below what you need.

Work backwards from the two negative-marking rates

In Paper-I an educated guess between two options is usually worth taking. In Paper-II it is close to a coin flip on a three-mark swing, in the only paper that counts. Leave what you do not know in Paper-II.

Do not treat the qualifying paper as free

The Paper-II shortlist is drawn on merit above the qualifying floor, not from everyone who cleared 30 per cent, and Paper-I is the first and second tie-breaker, Reasoning then General Awareness. Those two general sections are 100 of Paper-I's 200 marks and need no technical subject at all, which makes them the cheapest marks in the examination.

Know the console before the day

A scientific calculator is on screen throughout, and the IS 456:2000 and Steam tables sit under the "Useful Data" button. No physical calculator and no printed table is allowed in the lab. Sit the Commission's per-cycle mock on the real CBT platform when it is announced.

Be wary of old memory-based papers

The pattern changed for this cycle, so check any practice paper against Para 13 of the current notice before trusting it.

Check the Addendum against your own certificates now

If you are applying through the second qualification route, the Addendum of 10 September 2026 requires Class XII with Physics and Mathematics as well. Find the certificate before the correction window closes on 30 September 2026, because after that no change of any kind is allowed.

Consider whether JE (Telecom) is also open to you

Note 4 makes a Scientific Assistant applicant also eligible, subject to that post's qualification. Part-G runs in a separate batch so both are sittable, and you must appear in each if you apply for both. Part-G is its own graduate-level syllabus, so take it only if you can prepare it properly.

Finally, download your response sheet while the answer-key window is open. Challenges are online only at ₹50 a question and there is no re-evaluation afterwards.

No official sample papers are available for this post as of now. Whatever past papers the Commission has released sit under Previous Year Question Papers at ssc.gov.in. Your own response sheet and the tentative answer key open for a short window after each paper.

• Staff Selection Commission, the official website, where the application, every notice and every result appear
• Notice of the Junior Engineer Examination, 2026, F. No. HQ-C-3019/1/2026-C-3 of 2 September 2026: the post-wise qualifications and age limits, the scheme, the full syllabus, the fee, the centres and the rules
• Addendum of 10 September 2026, which revised the Scientific Assistant qualification
• Tentative Vacancy, under For Candidates, and the final vacancy notices on the notice board
• Scheme of Examination, Syllabus and Previous Year Question Papers, under For Candidates
• Examination Calendar, which lists the Junior Engineer Examination each year
• Guidelines regarding Challenge / Objection Management System, notice of 10 April 2026, for the answer-key window
• Normalization Method, published by notice of 2 June 2025
• Notices of 3 March 2026 and 8 April 2026, which explain the sliding mechanism used in place of a waiting list
• Scribe Procedure and the One Time Registration for Scribe
• Toll-free helpline for the application form: 180 030 930 63
• Regional office websites, from which the Admission Certificate is downloaded

Is Paper-I qualifying, or does it count towards the final merit?

Qualifying. Para 18.2 says so. Normalised Paper-I marks decide who is shortlisted, category-wise, for Paper-II, and only normalised Paper-II scores decide the final merit. Paper-I marks return in one place: they are the first and second tie-breakers.

How much is deducted for a wrong answer?

0.25 marks in Paper-I and one full mark in Paper-II. A Paper-II question carries three marks, so three wrong answers there cancel one right one.

What are the minimum qualifying marks?

30 per cent for UR, 25 for OBC and EWS, 20 for all other categories, in both papers.

Can I carry a calculator or a printed code table?

No. A scientific calculator is on the screen throughout, and the IS 456:2000 table and Steam Table sit under the "Useful Data" button. No physical version of either is allowed in the lab.

What is the fee, and who is exempt?

₹100, online only. Women, SC, ST, PwBD and eligible Ex-Servicemen pay nothing. If the fee does not reach the Commission the form shows as 'Incomplete', which is not an application.

On what date is my age reckoned?

1 August 2026. Educational qualification is reckoned as on the closing date of the online form.

Can I change my centre, or my date of birth, after applying?

No to both. Three centre preferences are given within one region and no change is considered later. The date of birth must match the Matriculation certificate, and a mismatch is a ground for rejection. Other fields can be corrected only in the paid window of 28 to 30 September 2026.

Why would my marks change from what I calculated off the answer key?

Normalisation, by the Commission's procedure of 2 June 2025. Electrical and Mechanical marks are normalised against each other because they sit different papers, and Part-D, Part-E and Part-F are treated the same way for the IMD post. Published cut-offs are normalised figures.

Can I ask for a re-check?

No. Para 13.20 rules out re-evaluation and re-checking of any stage or paper. The only route is the answer-key challenge window, online only, at ₹50 per question, non-refundable.

Is there a waiting list?

No. The Commission uses a sliding mechanism instead, explained in its notices of 3 March 2026 and 8 April 2026.

How many vacancies are there?

The notice puts tentative vacancies at 1,748 across all posts. Post-wise and category-wise figures come later under For Candidates, Tentative Vacancy, and are revised before the final vacancy notice. The Commission does not collect state-wise or zone-wise vacancies.

Is there a separate SSC Scientific Assistant notification this year?

No. The post is recruited through the Junior Engineer Examination, 2026 notice of 2 September 2026, at Para 2(13), and its qualification was revised by an Addendum of 10 September 2026.

Which subject should I choose, and can I change it later?

One of Part-D (Computer Science and IT), Part-E (Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering) or Part-F (Physics), per your stream or branch, chosen on the online form. Para 13.8: it will not be changed under any circumstances. The same subject is attempted in both papers.

What exactly did the Addendum change?

It replaced the essential qualification at Para 2(13) and added a note: candidates qualifying through the second route, the engineering and computing degrees, must also have passed Class XII with Physics and Mathematics. The two degree routes themselves are unchanged, and all other provisions of the notice stand.

What is the age limit?

Up to 30 years as on 1 August 2026, so a date of birth not earlier than 2 August 1996 and not later than 1 August 2008. Relaxation is 5 years for SC and ST, 3 for OBC, 3 for ex-servicemen after deducting military service, and 10, 13 or 15 years for PwBD depending on category.

Am I competing against Junior Engineer candidates?

No. A separate merit list and a separate select list are drawn for Scientific Assistant in IMD. You are competing against Scientific Assistant applicants who chose a different subject, with your marks and theirs normalised against each other as different shifts.

Is there an interview, a physical test or a medical examination?

None of the three. Selection is the two computer-based papers and document verification. The physical test and medical board in this notice's schedules apply only to the Border Roads Organisation.

How hard is the paper?

Harder than the Junior Engineer Parts, by the Commission's own statement: Para 14.1 sets the engineering Parts at Diploma level and the Scientific Assistant subjects at graduation level.