Andaman Nicobar Group C 2023: ANM (A&N Health Department and AAJVS), CBT

1.

In the Indian mythology, who sung Shiva Tandava Stotra?

(A)

Ravana

(B)

Rama

(C)

Kuber

(D)

Vibhishana



Answer: “Ravana”


2.

Which country has handed over the chairmanship of Wassenaar Arrangement to India in 2023?



(A)

France

(B)

Germany

(C)

Ireland

(D)

USA

Answer: “Ireland”



3.

Which institution launched its Medium-term Strategy Framework named ‘Utkarsh 2.0’?

(A)

ISRO

(B)

RBI

(C)

DRDO

(D)

NITI Aayog



Answer: “RBI”


4.

The main pollutant in the air is

(A)

CO2

(B)

CO

(C)

N2

(D)

Sulphur

Answer: “CO”

5.

The Revolt of 1857 failed mainly because

(A)

of superior resources of the British empire

(B)

it was poorly organized and the rebels had no common ideal

(C)

it had very little nationalist sentiment

(D)

it was localised restricted and scattered


Answer: “it was poorly organized and the rebels had no common ideal”


6.

Which of the following amendment bill exempted the state of Bihar from the obligation of having a
tribal Welfare Minister?



(A)

92nd

(B)

93rd

(C)

94th

(D)

95th



Answer: “94th “



7.

Which among the following is India’s deepest landlocked and protected port?

(A)

Vishakhapatnam

(B)

Chennai

(C)


Paradeep

(D)

Kandla


Answer: “Vishakhapatnam”



8.

‘Jezero’, which was seen in the news, is a crater in which celestial body?

(A)

Jupiter

(B)

Saturn

(C)

Mars

(D)

Venus



Answer: “Mars”



9.

Which technology company has launched a platform that displays flood forecasts named ‘FloodHub’?



(A)

Microsoft

(B)

Apple

(C)

Google

(D)

Meta



Answer: “Google”



10.

Manisha Kalyan, who was seen in the news, is associated with which sports?

(A)

Cricket

(B)

Football

(C)

Boxing

(D)

Weight Lifting



Answer: “Football”



11.

What happens to the frequency of the pendulum if it is suspended from the ceiling of the lift moving
downward with acceleration equal to acceleration due to gravity?



(A)

it increases

(B)

it decreases

(C)

No change

(D)

No oscillation



Answer: “No oscillation”

12.

What is the relationship between the spring constant k and the spring length in case of spring
pendulum?

(A)

spring constant is inversely proportional to the spring length

(B)

spring constant is directly proportional to the spring length

(C)

spring constant is independent of the spring length

(D)

spring constant is twice the spring length



Answer: “spring constant is inversely proportional to the spring length”



13.

What do we call the distance of particle from the mean position at that instant in S.H.M?



(A)

Distance

(B)

Displacement

(C)

Phase

(D)

Angular frequency

Answer: “Displacement”


14.

What is the chemical name of Quick lime?

(A)

Calcium peroxide

(B)

Calcium oxide

(C)
Calcium dioxide

(D)

Calcium hydroxide



Answer: “Calcium oxide”



15.

Which of the following is NOT correct about Group 14 elements?

(A)

All of them are solids

(B)

Melting points are much higher than those of corresponding elements of group 13

(C)

Carbon is a non-metal

(D)

Germanium is a metal



Answer: “Germanium is a metal”



16.

Which of the following defines the solubility of a solution?

(A)

amount of the solvent present in the saturated solution

(B)

amount of the solute present in the saturated solution

(C)

amount of the solute per amount of solute in the solution

(D)

difference of amount of solvent and the amount of solute



Answer: “amount of the solute present in the saturated solution”



17

What happens in the human body during respiration?

(A)

Formation of new cells

(B)

Formation of glucose

(C)

Oxidization of glucose

(D)

Formation of protein


Answer: “Oxidization of glucose”



18

The left atrium receives the pure blood from the -

(A)

Superior venacava

(B)

Pulmonary artery

(C)

Pulmonary veins

(D)

Interior Venacava



Answer: “Pulmonary veins”



19

Which of the following procedure is used to clean the blood of a person by separating urea from it?

(A)

Filtration

(B)

Osmosis

(C)

Dialysis

(D)

De-filteration



Answer: “Dialysis”



20

Which of the following tube connects the kidneys to the urinary bladder?

(A)

Ureter

(B)

Urethra

(C)

Tubule

(D)

Nephron



Answer: “Ureter”


21

Quarantine means healthy individuals after exposure to disease, are kept under observation for longest
incubation period of that disease. Quarantine is a method of


(A)

Primordial prevention


(B)


Primary prevention


(C)


Secondary prevention


(D)


Tertiary prevention


Answer: “Primary prevention”


22


Oral administration of vitamin A solution periodically to preschool and school children is an example of



(A)


Primordial prevention



(B)


Primary prevention



(C)

Secondary prevention


(D)


Tertiary prevention


Answer: “Primary prevention”



23


Mr. Ramesh aged 38 years is diagnosed as a case of rheumatic fever. Physician recommend him injection
penicillin every 2 weeks, it is an example of


(A)


Primordial prevention


(B)


Primary prevention


(C)


Secondary prevention


(D)


Tertiary prevention


Answer: “Secondary prevention”

24


Human placenta after delivery is disposed in which colour of bag


(A)


Placing it in black bag & autoclaving


(B)


Placing it in blue bag & microwaving



(C)


Placing it in red bag & chemical disinfection


(D)


Placing it in yellow bag & incineration


Answer: “Placing it in yellow bag & incineration”


25

Plastic coding of bag to dispose sharp wastes is


(A)


Black


(B)

Blue


(C)


Yellow


(D)


Red


Answer: “Black”



26


Colour coding of bag to dispose sharp wastes is


(A)


Black


(B)


Blue



(C)


Yellow


(D)

Red


Answer: “Blue”




27


Disinfecting action of chlorine in water is due to



(A)


Hypochloride ion


(B)


Hypochlorous acid


(C)


Nitrates and nitrites


(D)


Calcium phosphate


Answer: “Hypochlorous acid”




28


In India, the most common cause of IMR is

(A)


Acute respiratory infection


(B)


Congenital anomalies


(C)


LBW


(D)


Diarrhoea


Answer: “LBW”




29


Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding micronutrients?


(A)


They are below 10 m mole/kg of dry weight in plants


(B)


Below critical concentration they cause deficiency symptoms

(C)



Moderate increase from critical concentration may cause toxicity


(D)


Examples are N, P, Zn, Mn, Mo.


Answer: “They are below 10 m mole/kg of dry weight in plants”


30


Which of the following is true about micronutrients?


(A)


Their concentration is below 25 millimole in dry weight


(B)


Their concentration is below 30 millimole in dry weight


(C)


Their concentration is below 10 millimole in dry weight


(D)


Their concentration is below 20 millimole in dry weight


Answer: “Their concentration is below 10 millimole in dry weight”

31


About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements including carbon,
hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and_____


(A)


Calcium and phosphorus


(B)


Phosphorus and sulfur


(C)


Sulfur and magnesium


(D)


Magnesium and sodium


Answer: “Calcium and phosphorus”



32


Which of the following is not a function of vitamins?


(A)


Digestion

(B)


Metabolism


(C)


Growth


(D)

none of the all mentioned



Answer: “Digestion”


33


Formation of glucose from protein is_________


(A)


Gluconeogenesis


(B)


Glyconeolysis


(C)


Glycogenesis


(D)

Glycolysis


Answer: “Gluconeogenesis”


34


World Health Day is celebrated on


(A)


1st March


(B)


7th April


(C)


6th October


(D)


10th December


Answer: “7th April”



35


Rest, sleep, Physical exercise, and cleanliness are part of


(A)

Social hygiene


(B)


Personal hygiene


(C)


Hygiene


(D)



Bad hygiene


Answer: “Personal hygiene”



36


Which of the following is true about contamination?


(A)


Contamination is caused by the entry of germs into drinking water or edible food.


(B)


Contamination is caused by the entry of germs by an insect bite.


(C)

Contamination is caused by the entry of germs by an animal bite.


(D)


Contamination is caused by the entry of germs by an bugs bite


Answer: “Contamination is caused by the entry of germs into drinking water or edible food.”


37


Which of the following factors is not necessary for a healthy person?


(A)


Personal hygiene


(B)


Proper diet


(C)


Vaccination


(D)

not practicing effective hygiene


Answer: “not practicing effective hygiene”



38

Which of the following can act as sanitation technology?


(A)


Environmental sanitation


(B)


Wet sanitation


(C)


Weir sanitation


(D)


Notch sanitation


Answer: “Environmental sanitation”


39


Which of the following is not a sanitation system?


(A)


Storm water drainage system


(B)


Solid waste management system

(C)


Excreta management system


(D)


Night soil sanitation system


Answer: “Night soil sanitation system”



40


Which of the following ended the open defecation practice?


(A)


Community-led total sanitation


(B)


Dry sanitation


(C)


Environmental sanitation


(D)


Ecological sanitation


Answer: “Community-led total sanitation”

41


Which of the following is not a type of sanitation practice?


(A)


Ecological sanitation


(B)


Community-led total sanitation


(C)


Dry sanitation


(D)


Environmental sanitation


Answer: “Environmental sanitation”


42


Which are intimately related?


(A)


Disease and health


(B)

Body and health


(C)


Body and mind


(D)


Body and spiritual values


Answer: “Body and mind”


43


The percentage of population suffering from serious mental illness is


(A)


1%


(B)


5%


(C)


8%


(D)


10%

Answer: “1%”

44


People suffering from mental diseases in India number


(A)


1 - 1.5 million


(B)


6 - 7 million


(C)


10 - 15 million


(D)


60 - 70 million


Answer: “6 - 7 million”



45


In epilepsy, the patient undergoes


(A)


Periods of sadness and happiness, fear and valour

(B)


Fits of convulsions


(C)


Loss of consciousness


(D)


Fits of convulsions & Loss of consciousness


Answer: “Fits of convulsions & Loss of consciousness”


46


The bacterium Yersinia pestis causes


(A)


Bubonic Plague


(B)


Rubella


(C)


Roseola


(D)

Measles


Answer: “Bubonic Plague”



47


If a disease jumps from a non-human animal to a human, then it is termed as


(A)


Zoonotic disease


(B)


Infectious disease


(C)


Congenital disease


(D)



Iatrogenic disease


Answer: “Zoonotic disease”


48


What is the definition of a pathogen?

(A)


A disease


(B)


A disease-causing plant


(C)


A disease-causing animal


(D)


A disease-causing microorganism


Answer: “A disease-causing microorganism”



49


Which of these terms is scientific for the passing of a disease from one organism to another?


(A)


Catching


(B)


Vector


(C)

Transmission


(D)


Infecting


Answer: “Transmission”


50


Night blindness is caused due to the deficiencies of


(A)


Vitamin A


(B)


Vitamin B


(C)


Vitamin C


(D)


Vitamin E


Answer: “Vitamin A”

51


Excessive bleeding during an injury is a deficiency of


(A)


Vitamin A


(B)


Vitamin B


(C)


Vitamin K


(D)


Vitamin E


Answer: “Vitamin K”



52


Which of the following diseases is caused by various pathogenic microorganisms?


(A)


Deficiency diseases


(B)

Hereditary diseases


(C)


Infectious diseases


(D)


Degenerative diseases


Answer: “Infectious diseases”


53


Which of the following vitamins is also known as ascorbic acid?


(A)


Vitamin A


(B)


Vitamin B


(C)


Vitamin C


(D)


Vitamin E

Answer: “Vitamin C”



54


The deficiency diseases can be prevented by


(A)


Prolonged cooking


(B)


Eating only fruits


(C)


Eating only vegetables


(D)


Eating food with good nutritional value


Answer: “Eating food with good nutritional value”



55


Melanin and Lewy bodies occur in the neurons in case of


(A)

Huntington’s chorea


(B)


Alzheimer's disease


(C)


Paralysis agitans


(D)


frontotemporal dementia


Answer: “Paralysis agitans”


56


Loss of choline acetyltransferase occurs in

(A)


Schizophrenia


(B)

Huntington's disease


(C)


Parkinson's disease


(D)

Alzheimer's disease


Answer: “Alzheimer's disease”


57


ECT is


(A)


Electroconvulsive therapy


(B)


Electrochemical treatment


(C)


Electrochemical therapy


(D)


Epileptic core treatment


Answer: “Electroconvulsive therapy”



58


The function of any health care system include the following

(A)


Production of resources


(B)


Management


(C)


Arrangement of resources into health programs


(D)


Provision of health services


Answer: “Provision of health services”



59


The primary health care in the health care system is the ------- as compared withother levels of care (2nd
and 3rd levels).


(A)


Less costly for the community and the system


(B)


Less costly for the community but not for the system


(C)

Most costly


(D)


Same costly


Answer: “Less costly for the community and the system”



60


The ----------- is the first contact with individuals in any health care system.


(A)


Secondary level of care


(B)


primary level of care


(C)


tertiary level of care


(D)


tetra level of care


Answer: “primary level of care”

61


The population health needs in Egypt are determined by all the following characteristics EXCEPT:


(A)


Unemployment


(B)


The rate of low socio-economy


(C)


The excess number of new physicians per year


(D)


High incidence of communicable diseases


Answer: “The excess number of new physicians per year”


62


All the followings are merits (advantages) of the health care system in Egypt EXCEPT:


(A)


An extensive infrastructure of physicians, clinics and hospitals


(B)

40% of the population have formal coverage


(C)

Physical accessibility to health care is available to all citizens


(D)


Availability of immunizations and medical technology


Answer: “40% of the population have formal coverage”



63


All of the followings are considered constraints in the Egyptian health care system EXCEPT:


(A)


All the citizens have basic rights of accessibility to health services


(B)


Non-communicable disease preventive programs are not well established


(C)


High infant and child mortality


(D)


Medical school graduates are two to three times more than needs

Answer: “All the citizens have basic rights of accessibility to health services”


64


In the Egyptian health care system, the effectiveness and quality of the services can be improved by all
of the followings EXCEPT:


(A)


Spending more funds (money) on the maintenance of the equipments


(B)


More physicians' training


(C)


Increase the number of workers in the health centers


(D)


Upgrading the nursing medical education


Answer: “Increase the number of workers in the health centers”



65


Doesn't affect the population health needs in Egypt.


(A)


The prevalence of communicable diseases

(B)


Large areas of agricultural land


(C)


Unemployment


(D)


Illiteracy


Answer: “Large areas of agricultural land”


66


Primary health care (PHC) is the first contact between individuals and the healthcare system. This
statement is considered a part of


(A)


Definition of PHC


(B)


Significance of the PHC


(C)


Objectives of the PHC

(D)


Relation of the PHC


Answer: “Significance of the PHC”


67


How many compressions and breaths should you do for each cycle of CPR?


(A)


15 compressions, 2 breaths


(B)


30 compressions, 5 breaths


(C)


30 compressions, 2 breaths


(D)

15 compressions, 5 breaths


Answer: “30 compressions, 2 breaths”


68


What causes anaphylactic shock?


(A)

choking


(B)


Insect sting or spider bites


(C)


3rd degree burns


(D)


Heart attack


Answer: “Insect sting or spider bites”


69


What are the symptoms of third degree burn?


(A)


charred skin, no pain


(B)


charred skin, pain


(C)


blisters and pain

(D)


Red and pain


Answer: “charred skin, no pain”



70


The nurse is caring for an infant following a cleft lip repair. While comforting the infant, which should
avoid by a nurse?


(A)


Holding the infant.


(B)


Offering a pacifier.


(C)


Providing a mobile.


(D)


Offering sterile water.


Answer: “Offering a pacifier.”


71

Which of the following snacks would be suitable for the child with gluten-induced enteropathy?



(A)


Soft oatmeal cookie.


(B)


Buttered popcorn.


(C)


Peanut butter and jelly sandwich.


(D)


Cheez pizza


Answer: “Buttered popcorn.”



72


Which of the following may indicate when a newborn is a failure to pass meconium within the first 24
hours?


(A)


Hirschsprung disease.


(B)

Celiac disease.


(C)


Intussusception.


(D)


Abdominal wall defect.


Answer: “Hirschsprung disease.”


73


Which developmental task is associated with middle childhood, according to Erikson's growth and
development theory?


(A)


Trust.


(B)


Initiative.


(C)


Independence.


(D)


Industry.

Answer: “Industry.”


74


Which of the following is a treatment of choice for a child with lead poisoning?


(A)


Gastric lavage.


(B)


Chelating agents.


(C)


Antiemetics.


(D)


Activated Charcoal.


Answer: “Chelating agents.”


75


Which of the following assessment findings would lead the nurse to suspect Down Syndrome in an
Infant?


(A)

Small tongue.


(B)


Transverse palmar crease.


(C)


Large nose.


(D)


Restricted joint movement.


Answer: “Transverse palmar crease.”



76


Which of the developmental milestone puts the 4-months old infant at greatest risk for injury?


(A)


Switching objects from one hand to another.


(B)


Crawling.


(C)


Standing.

(D)


Rolling over.


Answer: “Rolling over.”


77


The nurse notes a swelling on the neonate's scalp that crosses the suture line. What is this assessment
finding?


(A)


Cephal hematoma.


(B)


Caput succedaneum.


(C)


Hemorrhage edema.


(D)


Perinatal caput.


Answer: “Caput succedaneum.”


78

What is the use of the administration of the Denver Developmental Screening Test or (DDST) to a five
months old infant?


(A)


To assess the intelligent quotient.


(B)


To assess the emotional development.


(C)


To assess the social and physical activities.


(D)

To assess the pre-disposition to genetic and allergic illness.


Answer: “To assess the social and physical activities.”


79


Mitral valve is also referred to as?


(A)


Tricuspid valve.


(B)


Pulmonary valve.

(C)


Aortic valve.


(D)


Bicuspid valve.


Answer: “Bicuspid valve.”



80


Sixteen years old primigravid patient admitted with severe pregnancy-induced hypertension is given
intravenous magnesium sulphate. The nurse should obtain which one of the following information?


(A)


Urinary output every 8 hours


(B)


Deep tendon reflexes every 4 hours


(C)


Respiratory rate every hour


(D)


Blood pressure every 6 hours


Answer: “Respiratory rate every hour”

81


Twenty-five-year-old lactating woman presented with fever, acute breast pain, and swelling. Which one
of the following organisms causes this acute breast problem?


(A)


Streptococcus


(B)


Staphylococcus


(C)


Enterococcus


(D)


Pneumococcus


Answer: “Staphylococcus”




82


Nurse is about to catheterize the bladder of a pregnant lady. She should be aware that all the following
facts about the female urethra are true except?


(A)

It is about 1.5 inches in length


(B)


It's posterior to the vaginal orifice


(C)


It pierces through the urogenital diaphragm


(D)


It is straight and offers minor resistance for catheterization


Answer: “It is straight and offers minor resistance for catheterization”


83


Premature separation of normally implanted placenta during the second half of pregnancy usually with
severe hemorrhage is known as?


(A)


Placenta previa


(B)


Ectopic pregnancy


(C)


Incompetent cervix

(D)


Abruptio placentae


Answer: “Abruptio placentae”


84


Purple-blue tinge of the cervix is?


(A)


Braxton-Hicks signs


(B)


Chadwick's sign


(C)


Goodell's sign


(D)


McDonald's sign


Answer: “Chadwick's sign”


85


What is the term for the care provided to newborn babies?

(A)


Antenatal care


(B)


Intranatal care



(C)


Postnatal care


(D)


Neonatal care



Answer: “Neonatal care”


86


Which of the following is a common practice during antenatal care?


(A)


Monitoring blood pressure


(B)


Administering vaccines to the baby

(C)


Assisting with labor pain management


(D)


Conducting surgery for birth complications


Answer: “Monitoring blood pressure”



87


What is the purpose of antenatal care?


(A)


To monitor the development of the baby


(B)


To provide emotional support to the mother


(C)

To prevent and detect pregnancy complications


(D)


To plan for the baby's education


Answer: “To prevent and detect pregnancy complications”

88


Which of the following is a common postnatal complication?


(A)


Gestational diabetes


(B)


Pre-eclampsia


(C)


Postpartum hemorrhage


(D)


Ectopic pregnancy


Answer: “Postpartum hemorrhage”


89


What is the primary role of a midwife during labor and delivery?


(A)


Administering anesthesia


(B)

Performing surgical procedures


(C)


Providing emotional support and guidance


(D)


Monitoring the baby's vital signs


Answer: “Providing emotional support and guidance”


90


Which of the following hormones is not produced by the placenta?



(A)


Testosterone


(B)


Estrogen


(C)


Progesterone


(D)


Human chorionic gonadotropin

Answer: “Testosterone”



91


The most frequent side effect associated with the use of IUCD is?


(A)


Ectopic pregnancy


(B)


Expulsion of IUCD


(C)


Rupture of uterus



(D)


Excessive menstrual flow


Answer: “Excessive menstrual flow”


92


Which of the following is a sign of toxemia of pregnancy?


(A)

Low blood pressure


(B)


High blood pressure


(C)


Low blood sugar


(D)


High blood sugar


Answer: “High blood pressure”


93


After ovulation has occurred, the ovum remains viable for?


(A)


1 to 6 hours


(B)


12 to 18 hours


(C)


24 to 36 hours

(D)


48 to 72 hours


Answer: “12 to 18 hours”


94


The safest position for a woman in labor with a prolapsed cord is?


(A)


Supine


(B)


Fowler's


(C)


Lithotomy



(D)


Trendelenburg


Answer: “Trendelenburg”



95

Which of the following program is launched to reduce incidence, mortality, morbidity and disability due
to Burn Injuries


(A)


National program for Burned patients


(B)


National programme for prevention of burn injuries


(C)


National project for Burn patients


(D)


National project for accident patients


Answer: “National programme for prevention of burn injuries”


96


In a given population the number of deaths due to cancer per 100 total deaths is called as


(A)


Case fatality rate


(B)


Proportional mortality Ratio

(C)


Crude death rate


(D)


Survival rate


Answer: “Proportional mortality Ratio”


97


HRM is____________ a because it consists of well-recognized body of knowledge, principles and
techniques.


(A)


social science


(B)


science


(C)


art


(D)


history


Answer: “science”

98


____________ refers to the monitoring by the human resource department of the performance of line
and other staff department.


(A)


assessing


(B)


appraising


(C)


auditing


(D)


checking


Answer: “auditing”


99


____________as the world imply means the rate of change in the number of employees


(A)


Labor problems

(B)


Labor strike


(C)


labor turnover


(D)


trade union


Answer: “labor turnover”




100


____________the number of employees leaving and joining an organization during certain period



(A)


revenue


(B)


throughput


(C)


response

(D)


turnover


Answer: “turnover”