Andaman Nicobar Group C 2023: A&N Health Department, Nursing Officer, CBT, Slot 9

1.
In which of the following states is ‘Me-Dam-Me-Phi’ the fes val of ancestor
worship celebrated?

(A)
Odisha
(B)
Assam
(C)
Chha sgarh
(D)
Madhya Pradesh
Answer: “Assam”

2.
Which country’s researchers have discovered a earth-like exo-planet classified
as ‘LHS 475 b’?

(A)
USA
(B)
Russia
(C)
China
(D)
Israel
Answer: “USA”

3.
‘Cherchera’ is a tradi onal fes val celebrated in which state?

(A)
Bihar
(B)
Chha sgarh
(C)
Odisha
(D)
Jharkhand
Answer: “Chha sgarh”

4.
Carbon monoxide (CO) is harmful to humans because?

(A)
It forms carbolic acid
(B)
It generates excess CO2
(C)
It is carcinogenic
(D)
It competes with O2 for haemoglobin
Answer: “It competes with O2 for haemoglobin”

5.
The Non-Coopera on Movement was suspended in February 1922 on account
of

(A)
the Chauri Chaura incident
(B)
Hindu Muslim riots
(C)
arrest of Mahatma Gandhi and his imprisonment for six years
(D)
Lord Chelmsford
Answer: “the Chauri Chaura incident”

6.
Which amendment provided for an authorita ve text of the Cons tu on in
Hindi language?

(A)
51st Amendment Act, 1984
(B)
58th Amendment Act, 1987
(C)
61st Amendment Act, 1989
(D)
62nd Amendment Act, 1989

Answer: “58th Amendment Act, 1987”

7.
Which of the following landforms occupy the North-Western parts of the
Indian state of Bihar?

(A)
Kaimur Plateau
(B)
Nawada Hilly Region
(C)
Someshwar Hilly Range
(D)
Rajgir Hilly Region
Answer: “Someshwar Hilly Range”

8.
Which term is used to define people whose gender iden ty and expression
match the iden ty assigned to them at birth?

(A)
Same-gender people
(B)
Cisgender people
(C)
Pro-gender people
(D)
May-gender
Answer: “Cisgender people”

9.
Which tech major is set to shi to the ‘MicroLED display technology’?

(A)
Samsung
(B)
Apple
(C)
Google
(D)

Microso
Answer: “Apple”

10.
Which Indian state/UT hosts the Hockey Men’s World Cup 2023?

(A)
New Delhi
(B)
Odisha
(C)
Maharashtra
(D)
Tamil Nadu
Answer: “Odisha”

11.
The spring balance works on the principle of __:

(A)
Boyle’s Law
(B)
Hooke’s Law
(C)
Bernoulli’s principle
(D)
Pascal’s Law
Answer: “Hooke’s Law”

12.
Which of these indicates the spli ng of different colours of light in a prism?

(A)
Reflec on of light
(B)
Dispersion of light
(C)
Diffrac on of light
(D)
Refrac on of light

Answer: “Dispersion of light”

13.
Lens is made up of which type of glass?

(A)
Pyrex glass
(B)
Flint glass
(C)
Ordinary glass
(D)
Cobalt glass
Answer: “Flint glass”

14.
Which is a by-product of sewage treatment and can be decomposed to
produce biogas?

(A)
Sewage
(B)
Sludge
(C)
Sewer
(D)
Scum
Answer: “Sludge”

15.
The least preferred technique in the disposal of Municipal Solid Waste is:
(A)
Incinera on
(B)
Compos ng
(C)
Land filling
(D)
Bricke ng
Answer: “Bricke ng”

16.
Which of the following has the highest penetra ng power?

(A)
alpha-ray
(B)
beta-ray
(C)
gamma-ray
(D)
delta-ray
Answer: “gamma-ray”

17.
Which of the following is the correct path of urine in human body?

(A)
kidney --> ureter --> urinary bladder --> urethra
(B)
kidney --> urinary bladder --> ureter --> urethra
(C)
kidney --> ureter --> urethra --> urinary bladder
(D)
Urinary bladder --> kidney --> ureter --> urethra
Answer: “kidney --> ureter --> urinary bladder --> urethra”

18.
The correct sequence of air passage during inhala on is -

(A)
Larynx --> Trachea --> Pharynx --> Lungs --> Nostrils
(B)
Nostrils --> Pharynx --> Larynx --> Trachea --> Alveoli
(C)
Nostrils --> Trachea --> Pharynx --> Lungs --> Larynx
(D)
Trachea --> Lungs --> Pharynx --> Lungs --> Alveoli
Answer: “Nostrils --> Pharynx --> Larynx --> Trachea --> Alveoli”

19.
Which of the following is correct?

(A)
Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC
(B)
Plasma = Blood - Lymphocytes
(C)
Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC
(D)
Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen
Answer: “Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC”

20.
Which of the following are the filtra on units of kidneys?

(A)
Ureter
(B)
Neurons
(C)
Nephrons
(D)
Urethra
Answer: “Nephrons”

21.
Fever, headache and nuchal rigidity are classic symptoms seen in-
(A)
Parkinson disease
(B)
Alzheimer’s disease
(C)
Brain abscess
(D)
Meningi s
Answer: “Meningi s”

22.

Which of the following is most important to prevent the progress of disease in
thrombo-angii s obliterans (Buerger's disease) –

(A)
Controlling blood pressure
(B)
Controlling diabetes
(C)
Weight reduc on
(D)
Smoking cessa on
Answer: “Smoking cessa on”

23.
A pa ent is scheduled for a IVP using a radio opaque dye, which of the
following assessment is most cri cal before the procedure-

(A)
History of intake and output
(B)
Measurement of baseline peripheral pulse rate
(C)
Measurement of heights and weights
(D)
History of allergy of iodine
Answer: “History of allergy of iodine”

24.
Which of the following method of intracranial pressure monitoring provides
most accurate results-

(A)
Epidural catheter
(B)
Intraventricular catheter
(C)
Subarachnoid catheter
(D)
Intravertebral catheter
Answer: “Subarachnoid catheter”

25.
During head injury what is the cause of increase in body temperature-

(A)
Pons injury
(B)
Hypothalamus injury
(C)
Cerebellum injury
(D)
Medulla injury
Answer: “Hypothalamus injury”
26.
During Lumbar puncture which posi on is given to a pa ent-

(A)
Supine posi on
(B)
Side-lying 'C'
(C)
Lithotomy posi on
(D)
Fowler's posi on
Answer: “ Side-lying 'C' ”

27.
What do you mean by cyanosis-

(A)
Yellowish coloura on of skin
(B)
Blue coloura on of shin
(C)
Increase respira on rate
(D)
Loss of appe te
Answer: “Blue coloura on of shin”

28.

By ECG which organ is examined-

(A)
Kidney
(B)
Heart
(C)
Brain
(D)
Liver
Answer: “Heart”

29.
Minimum & Maximum score of GCS are:

(A)
8-9
(B)
8-12
(C)
12-13
(D)
3-15
Answer: “3-15”

30.
Nurse Linda was monitoring a 35-year-old male pa ent who was receiving
blood transfusion. On assessment, the nurse found that the respiratory rate is
24 and Blood Pressure is 90/60. Which of the following is the priority ac on by
the nurse?

(A)
Slow the infusion rate
(B)
Immediately flush IV line with normal saline
(C)
Immediately stop the transfusion
(D)
No fy the doctor
Answer: “Immediately stop the transfusion”

31.
A client admi ed in the coronary care unit (CCU) has developed atrial
fibrilla on. The ventricular rate is at 155 beats per minute. The nurse should
assess the client for:

(A)
Flat neck veins
(B)
Hypertension and headache
(C)
Nausea and vomi ng
(D)
Hypotension and dizziness
Answer: “Hypotension and dizziness”

32.
The doctor orders cardiac catheteriza on for a client admi ed in the CCU. The
procedure will involve the use of a radiopaque dye. The nurse is aware that the
most important part of the pre-procedure assessment is checking:

(A)
Allergy to iodine or shellfish
(B)
Height and weight
(C)
Baseline peripheral pulse rates
(D)
Intake and output
Answer: “Allergy to iodine or shellfish”

33.
Which solu on is used for maintain patency of intes nal tube-

(A)
Hypotonic saline
(B)
Hypertonic saline
(C)
Normal saline

(D)
Sterile water
Answer: “Normal saline”

34.
The nurse should assess the client with cirrhosis of liver and hepa c coma
for-

(A)
Uraemia
(B)
Ur caria
(C)
Icterus
(D)
Anaemia
Answer: “Icterus”

35.
Which of the following is the most appropriate clinical test to confirm iron
deficiency anaemia-

(A)
Red blood cell count
(B)
Re culocyte count
(C)
Bone-marrow examina on
(D)
Serum ferri n level
Answer: “Serum ferri n level”

36.
Bacteria having clusters of flagella at both poles of cells are known as?

(A)
Amphitrichous
(B)
Monotrichous
(C)

Peritrichous
(D)
Lophotrichous
Answer: “Amphitrichous”

37.
The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus is which type of bacteria?

(A)
Mesophile
(B)
Mesophile and psychrophile
(C)
Psychrophile
(D)
Thermophile
Answer: “Mesophile”

38.
Goitre occurs due to

(A)
Iodine deficiency
(B)
glucocor coids excess
(C)
Deficiency of Vit C
(D)
Excess of iodine
Answer: “Iodine deficiency”

39.
Cardiac tamponade means

(A)
Inflamma on of myocardium
(B)
Inflamma on of epicardium
(C)
Accumula on of fluid in pericardium

(D)
Ventricular failure
Answer: “Accumula on of fluid in pericardium”
40.
The CPR that should be done to the heart a ack pa ents per minute is

(A)
3 mes
(B)
6 mes
(C)
2 mes
(D)
10 mes
Answer: “2 mes”

41.
The nursing process is u lized to

(A)
Provide a systemic, organized and comprehensive approach to mee ng the
needs of clients.
(B)
Encourage the family to make decisions regarding pa ents care.
(C)
Increase involvement of allied healthcare professionals in decision-making
(D)
decrease involvement of allied healthcare professionals in non-decision-making
Answer: “Provide a systemic, organized and comprehensive approach to
mee ng the needs of clients”

42.
"Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not
merely the absence of disease and infirmity”. This was stated by

(A)
United States Health Agency
(B)
Na onal Ins tute of Health
(C)

Na onal League for Nursing (NLN)
(D)
World Health Organiza on
Answer: “World Health Organiza on”

43.
Nursing Diagnosis Categories include all, except

(A)
Actual
(B)
Risk
(C)
Possible
(D)
Factual
Answer: “Factual”

44.
"The goal of nursing is to put the pa ent in the best condi on
for nature to act upon him”. This was stated by

(A)
Henderson
(B)
Jean Watson
(C)
Marta Rogers
(D)
Florence Nigh ngale
Answer: “Florence Nigh ngale”

45.
Physical Signs indica ve of poor nutri on are all, except

(A)
Dental caries, mo led appearance (fluorosis), malposi oned
(B)
Bri le, depigmented, easily plucked; thin and sparse hair
(C)

Tongue - deep red in appearance; surface papillae present
(D)
Spongy, bleed easily, marginal redness, recession gums
Answer: “Tongue - deep red in appearance; surface papillae present”

46.
The ethics theory that states moral standards or principles exist independently
of the ends or consequences is the

(A)
Transac onal theory
(B)
Deontological theory
(C)
U litarian theory
(D)
Adapta on theory
Answer: “Deontological theory”
47.
Which of the following is considered as an indica on for administering serum
albumin?

(A)
Clo ng of blood
(B)
Forma on of WBCs
(C)
Forma on of RBCs
(D)
Maintenance of onco c pressure
Answer: “Maintenance of onco c pressure”

48.
Which of the following is the appropriate nursing interven on for a pa ent
with a terminal illness who is passing through the acceptance stage?

(A)
Allowing the pa ent to cry
(B)
Encouraging unrestricted visi ng

(C)
Explaining the pa ent what is being done
(D)
Being around though not speaking
Answer: “Being around though not speaking”

49.
Which of the following is a prepara on of choice for a pa ent who has been
admi ed in ED with an open contaminated injury and no recent history of
tetanus immuniza on?

(A)
DTP vaccine
(B)
Tetanus toxoid
(C)
Tetanus an toxin
(D)
Tetanus immunoglobulin
Answer: “Tetanus immunoglobulin”

50.
Which of the following principle guides nurses' priori es at a disaster caused by
a collapsed building in an earthquake?

(A)
Hemorrhage necessitates immediate care to save most lives
(B)
Those requiring minimal care are treated first so that they can help others
(C)
Those with head injuries are treated first so that their care more complex
(D)
Children should get highest priority because they have the greatest life
expectancy

Answer: “Those requiring minimal care are treated first so that they can help
others”

51.
What type of ques oning might be used in a pa ent assessment?

(A)
open and closed
(B)
open and shut
(C)
exposed and closed
(D)
out and in
Answer: “open and closed”

52.
In following which substance is not transported across the cell membrane by
simple diffusion?

(A)
Fa y acids
(B)
Oxygen
(C)
Glucose
(D)
Steroids
Answer: “Glucose”

53.
Posterior cerebral artery is a branch of which of these?

(A)
Vertebral artery
(B)
Basilar artery
(C)
Posterior cerebral artery
(D)
Posterior choroidal artery
Answer: “Basilar artery”

54.
Which of the following is an autocra c method of teaching?

(A)
Lecture
(B)
Tutorial
(C)
Demonstra on
(D)
Independent study
Answer: “Lecture”

55.
In neurons, the axons are insulated by a ma er named as …

(A)
Nerve fiber
(B)
Myelin sheath
(C)
Ganglion
(D)
Sylvian sheath
Answer: “Myelin sheath”

56.
The frustra on-aggression hypothesis;

(A)
Was developed by social learning theorist
(B)
Assumes that frustra on produces aggression
(C)
Assume that aggression is basic ins nct
(D)
Claims that frustra on and aggression are both ins nc ve
Answer: “Assumes that frustra on produces aggression”

57.
The nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository an pyre c
medica on. Which ac on by the nurse is correct?

(A)
Allowing the suppository to so en at room temperature before inser ng
(B)
Asking the pa ent to lie on the right-side during inser on of the medica on
(C)
Having the pa ent remain in a side-lying posi on for at least 5 minutes a er
inser on
(D)
Using a lubricant such as petrolatum gel (Vaseline) to lubricate the medica on
Answer: “Having the pa ent remain in a side-lying posi on for at least 5
minutes a er inser on”

58.
When adding medica ons to a bag of intravenous (IV) fluid, the nurse will use
which method to mix the solu on?

(A)
Shaking the bag or bo le vigorously
(B)
Turning the bag or bo le gently from side to side
(C)
Inver ng the bag or bo le one me a er injec ng the medica on
(D)
Allowing the IV solu on to stand for 10 minutes to enhance even distribu on
of medica on
Answer: “Turning the bag or bo le gently from side to side”

59.
The number of babies produced per thousand individuals is called:

(A)
Natality
(B)
Mortality
(C)
Immigra on
(D)
Emigra on
Answer: “Natality”

60.
Blastopore is the opening of _____________

(A)
Blastomere
(B)
Blastula
(C)
Gastrula
(D)
Archenteron
Answer: “Archenteron”

61.
Proteins are made up of—–, joined together in a chain?

(A)
Carbohydrates
(B)
Starch
(C)
Genes
(D)
Amino acids
Answer: “Amino acids”

62.
A difference in the number of posi ve and nega ve charges on the two sides of
a membrane is referred to?

(A)
Ac on poten al
(B)
Membrane poten al
(C)
Membrane impulse
(D)
Charge difference
Answer: “Membrane poten al”

63.
During which phase the nuclear envelope dissolve and the chroma n
condenses?

(A)
Metaphase
(B)
Prophase
(C)
Interphase
(D)
Intraphase
Answer: “Prophase”

64.
________ defined compe on as the most elementary type of the four major
forms of interac on. It is an aspect of human struggle which is universal,
con nuous and impersonal.

(A)
Park and Burgess
(B)
Saint Simon
(C)
Ross
(D)
Albion Small
Answer: “Park and Burgess”

65.
Fear of pain is referred to as:

(A)
Acro phobia
(B)
Algo phobia
(C)
Claustra phobia
(D)

Micro phobia
Answer: “Algo phobia”

66.
Children with intelligent quo ent of 35-50 have -------------------- mental
retarda on.

(A)
Mild
(B)
Moderate
(C)
Severe
(D)
Profound
Answer: “Moderate”

67.
Rehabilita on aimed at reducing disability and providing op mal func oning
can be achieved by

(A)
Primordial preven on
(B)
Primary preven on
(C)
Secondary preven on
(D)
Ter ary preven on
Answer: “Ter ary preven on”

68.
The following vitamin deficiency is observed commonly among alcohol
dependants

(A)
Vitamin A
(B)
Vitamin D
(C)

Vitamin B
(D)
Vitamin E
Answer: “Vitamin B”

69.
Within how many popula ons is a Primary Health Centre (PHC) established?
(A)
3000-5000
(B)
20000-30000
(C)
30000-20000
(D)
2 Lakhs
Answer: “20000-30000”

70.
Typhoid and Tuberculosis are what type of diseases?

(A)
Viral
(B)
Fungal
(C)
Bacterial
(D)
Protozoan
Answer: “Bacterial”

71.
Zero incidence is?

(A)
Elimina on of disease
(B)
Eradica on of disease
(C)
Elimina on of infec on
(D)

Eradica on of infec on
Answer: “Elimina on of disease”

72.
‘Silent epidemic’ of the century is?

(A)
Coronary artery disease
(B)
Chronic liver disease
(C)
Chronic obstruc ve pulmonary disease
(D)
Alzheimer’s disease
Answer: “Alzheimer’s disease”

73.
First case comes to no ce of physician?

(A)
Primary case
(B)
Index case
(C)
Secondary case
(D)
Refer case
Answer: “Index case”

74.
What Number of sputum specimens collected to diagnose Tuberculosis in DOTS
is?

(A)
3
(B)
2
(C)
1
(D)

4
Answer: “3”

75.
The humeral immunity is based on?
(A)
Produc on of an gen
(B)
Produc on of an bodies
(C)
Forma on of vaccines
(D)
Produc on of haemoglobin
Answer: “Produc on of an bodies”

76.
Rashes of measles first occur on?

(A)
Trunk
(B)
Face
(C)
Hands
(D)
Legs
Answer: “Face”

77.
Sunken eyes, hollow cheeks, subnormal temperature, decrease urine output,
washer man’s hands are the features of?

(A)
Measles
(B)
Dehydra on
(C)
Polio
(D)
Over hydra on

Answer: “Dehydra on”

78.
Injectable contracep ves are usually administered through?

(A)
IM route
(B)
SC route
(C)
IV route
(D)
ID route
Answer: “IM route”

79.
All the following provides evidence of fecal pollu on, Except?

(A)
Fecal streptococci
(B)
Coliform
(C)
Cl. Tetani
(D)
Enteropathogenic virus
Answer: “Cl. Tetani”

80.
Most undesirable metal in drinking water is?

(A)
Iron
(B)
Copper
(C)
Zinc
(D)
Lead
Answer: “Lead”

81.
This approach to health promo on is based on the assump on that humans
are ra onal decision-makers, this approach relies heavily upon the provision of
informa on about risks and benefits of certain behaviours.

(A)
Behaviour change approach
(B)
Community development approach
(C)
Biomedical approach
(D)
None of these
Answer: “Behaviour change approach”

82.
This approach to health promo on aims to improve and promote health by
addressing socioeconomic and environmental determinants of health within
the community.

(A)
Behaviour change approach
(B)
Community development approach
(C)
Biomedical approach
(D)
None of these
Answer: “Community development approach”

83.
___ describes every type of human communica on that is not verbal.

(A)
Vocalists
(B)
Prosody
(C)
Hap cs

(D)
para language
Answer: “para language”

84.
Normally, communica on is ___ in which the informa on or message is
transferred from one person to another.

(A)
Important
(B)
Interpersonal
(C)
Personal
(D)
Impersonal
Answer: “Interpersonal”

85.
What connects the sender to the receiver?

(A)
Channel
(B)
Communica on
(C)
Noise
(D)
Feedback
Answer: “Channel”

86.
The ___ in the usage of words may be a severe barrier to effec ve
communica on.

(A)
Disturbance
(B)
Discrimina on
(C)

Disorder
(D)
Distor on
Answer: “Distor on”

87.
The World Health Day is celebrated on ________.

(A)
1st March
(B)
7th April
(C)
6th October
(D)
10th December
Answer: “7th April”

88.
Episiotomy also known as

(A)
Hysterotomy
(B)
Perineal tear
(C)
Peritectomy
(D)
Perineotomy
Answer: “Perineotomy”

89.
The incision of 7 O’ clock posi on is used in

(A)
Lateral Episiotomy
(B)
Medio lateral Episiotomy
(C)
Median Episiotomy

(D)
J shaped Episiotomy
Answer: “J shaped Episiotomy”

90.
Ideal me for Episiotomy during forceps delivery is

(A)
At the me of applica on of blades
(B)
Before applica on of blades
(C)
A er applica on of blades
(D)
Just prior to crowning
Answer: “A er applica on of blades”

91.
The solu on used for Episiotomy wound care is

(A)
Povidone iodine
(B)
Hydrogen peroxide
(C)
Potassium permanganate
(D)
De ol
Answer: “Povidone iodine”

92.
The device used to assist vacuum delivery

(A)
Metal cups
(B)
So cups
(C)
Kiwi omnicup
(D)

Ventouse
Answer: “Ventouse”
93.
The device used in outlet forceps opera on

(A)
Wrigley’s forceps
(B)
Kielland’s forceps
(C)
Trial forceps
(D)
Short curved forceps
Answer: “Wrigley’s forceps”

94.
An innova ve instrument used for opera ve vaginal delivery is

(A)
Odon
(B)
Ventouse
(C)
Kiwi omnicup
(D)
Vacuum
Answer: “Odon”

95.
 As per WHO criteria a minimum of antenatal visits are
(A)
4
(B)
3
(C)
6
(D)
5
Answer: “4”

96.
--------------------------is used to turn a pa ent whose body must at all mes kept
in a straight alignment.

(A)
Log rolling
(B)
Lying posture
(C)
Body mechanics
(D)
Neck roll
Answer: “Log rolling”

97.
The following sites are used for checking pulse during cardiac arrest/shock

(A)
Caro d and femoral
(B)
Caro d and popliteal
(C)
Posterior bial and radial
(D)
Dorsal pedal and radial
Answer: “Caro d and femoral”

98.
The frequency of monitoring respira on in case of cri cally ill pa ents is ------

(A)
every 15 minutes
(B)
every 30 minutes
(C)
every 45 minutes
(D)
every 60 minutes
Answer: “every 15 minutes”

99.
The part of the fetus which occupies the lower pole of the uterus is called?

(A)
Lie
(B)
Presenta on
(C)
Denominator
(D)
Posi on
Answer: “Presenta on”

100.
Low levels of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein levels are found in

(A)
Open neural tube defect
(B)
Down syndrome
(C)
Mul ple pregnancies
(D)
Rh-isoimmunisa on
Answer: “Down syndrome”