Andaman Nicobar Group C 2023: A&N Health Department, Nursing Officer, CBT, Slot 3

1.
Rajgir Mahotsav is celebrated in __:

(A)
Rajasthan
(B)
Bihar
(C)
Uttar Pradesh
(D)
Madhya Pradesh


Answer: “Bihar”


2.
Which Union Ministry is developing Eco-Parks on reclaimed land and to promote mine tourism?


(A)
Power Ministry
(B)
Mines Ministry
(C)
Coal Ministry
(D)
Steel Ministry


Answer: “Coal Ministry”


3.
Which institution released the ‘Statistical Tables relating to Banks in India’?


(A)
Finance Ministry

(B)
Reserve Bank of India
(C)
NITI Aayog
(D)
World Bank


Answer: “Reserve Bank of India”


4.
An atmospheric pollutant is
(A)
0.0034%
(B)
0.034%
(C)
0.34%
(D)
3.4%


Answer: “0.034%”


5.
The Revolt of 1857 was started by


(A)
The sepoys
(B)
The zamindars
(C)
The peasants
(D)

The plantations workers


Answer: “The sepoys”


6.
How many members can be nominated to Lok Sabha by President ?
(A)
0
(B)
2
(C)
3
(D)
4


Answer: “0”


7.
With which of the following countries of South East Asia, India shares a maritime boundary?


(A)
Indonesia
(B)
Malaysia
(C)
Singapore
(D)
Vietnam


Answer: “Indonesia”


8.

Where is the ‘Large Hadron Collider’, the world’s most powerful particle collider located?


(A)
New York
(B)
Siberia
(C)
Geneva
(D)
Paris


Answer: “Geneva”


9.
Which country’s rover has mapped abundance of sodium on the moon for the first time?


(A)
China
(B)
USA
(C)
India
(D)
UAE


Answer: “India”


10.
Which sportsperson won the Malaysia Masters badminton title 2022?


(A)
K Srikanth

(B)
Chico Aura Dwi Wardoyo
(C)
Prannoy HS
(D)
Lakshya Sen


Answer: “Chico Aura Dwi Wardoyo”


11.
The force that binds the neutrons and protons in a nucleus is called as:


(A)
Weak Nuclear Force
(B)
Strong Nuclear Force
(C)
Electromagnetic Force
(D)
Gravitational Force


Answer: “Strong Nuclear Force”


12.
The recoiling of gun is an example of which of the following?


(A)
Law of Conservation of Angular Momentum
(B)
Law of Conservation of Linear Momentum
(C)
Conversion of Kinetic Energy to Potential Energy

(D)
Law of Conservation of Energy


Answer: “Law of Conservation of Linear Momentum”


13.
Which of the following units is the smallest in terms of length?


(A)
micron
(B)
nanometer
(C)
fermi
(D)
angstrom


Answer: “fermi”


14.
Which of the following is the essential element for batteries used in electric cars?


(A)
Magnesium
(B)
Lithium
(C)
Sodium
(D)
Bromine


Answer: “Lithium”

15.
Which among the following is an example of a Chemical Change?
(A)
Rusting of iron
(B)
Magnetisation of iron
(C)
Melting of iron
(D)
Heating of iron


Answer: “Rusting of iron”


16.
Which among the following gas usually causes explosions in coal mines?


(A)
Carbon monoxide
(B)
Hydrogen Sulphide
(C)
Nitrous oxide
(D)
Methane


Answer: “Methane”


17.
Which of the following are examples of autotrophic organisms?


(A)

Fungi and virus
(B)
Virus and bacteria
(C)
Green plants and some bacteria
(D)
yeast


Answer: “Green plants and some bacteria”


18
Which of the following is the green pigment used in photosynthesis?


(A)
Chlorophyll
(B)
Hemoglobin
(C)
Phytochrome
(D)
Xanthophyll


Answer: “Chlorophyll”


19
Chlorophyll is mainly located in which of the following part of the plant?


(A)
Stem
(B)
Root
(C)

Green leaf
(D)
bark


Answer: “Green leaf”




20
Which of the following is the correct sequence of anaerobic respiration?


(A)
Glucose --> pyruvate --> carbon-dioxide + ethanol + energy
(B)
Glucose --> pyruvate --> lactic acid
(C)
Glucose --> pyruvate --> ADP --> lactic acid
(D)
Pyruvate --> Glucose --> ethanol + energy


Answer: “Glucose --> pyruvate --> carbon-dioxide + ethanol + energy”


21.
The main goal of treatment for acute glomerulonephritis is to:


A.
encourage activity.
B.
encourage high protein intake.
C.
maintain fluid balance.
D.
teach intermittent urinary catheterization.

Answer: “maintain fluid balance.”


22.
The most common, preventable complication of abdominal surgery is:
A.
Atelectasis
B.
fluid and electrolyte imbalance.
C.
Thrombophlebitis
D.
urinary retention.


Answer: “Atelectasis”


23.
To prepare a patient on the unit for a bronchoscopic procedure, the medical-surgical nurse administers
the IV sedative. The nurse then instructs the licensed practical/vocational nurse to:


A.
educate the patient about the pending procedure.
B.
give the patient small sips of water only.
C.
measure the patient's blood pressure and pulse readings.
D.
take the patient to the bathroom one more time.


Answer: “measure the patient's blood pressure and pulse readings.”

24.
Which action best describes a sentinel event alert?


A.
Documenting the breakdown in communication during a shift report.
B.
Indicating that a community or institution is unsafe.
C.
Recording the harm done when a medication error occurs.
D.
Signaling the need for immediate investigation and response.


Answer: “Signaling the need for immediate investigation and response.”


25.
A nursing department in an acute care setting decides to redesign its nursing practice based on a
theoretical framework. The feedback from patients, families, and staff reflects that caring is a key
element. Which theorist best supports this concept?


A.
Erikson
B.
Maslow
C.
Rogers
D.
Watson


Answer: “Watson”




26.

The first step in applying the quality improvement process to an activity in a clinical setting is to:


A.
assemble a team to review and revise the activity.
B.
collect data to measure the status of the activity.
C.
select an activity for improvement.
D.
set a measurable standard for the activity.


Answer: “select an activity for improvement.”


27.
Asthma is a chronic disorder that causes


A.
Pneumonia
B.
skin rashes
C.
heart blockage
D.
inflammation in the airway


Answer: “inflammation in the airway”


28.
While performing physical examination of the newborn testis could not be palpated in the scrotum. The
failure of the testis to descend normally through the inguinal canal is called as


A.

Chordee
B.
Epispadias
C.
Hypospadias
D.
Cryptorchidism


Answer: “Cryptorchidism”




29.


Minimum & Maximum score of GCS are:


A.
8-9
B.
8-12
C.
12-13
D.
3-15


Answer: “3-15”


30.
Nurse Linda was monitoring a 35-year-old male patient who was receiving blood transfusion. On
assessment, the nurse found that the respiratory rate is 24 and Blood Pressure is 90/60. Which of the
following is the priority action by the nurse?


A.

Slow the infusion rate
B.
Immediately flush IV line with normal saline
C.
Immediately stop the transfusion
D.
Notify the doctor


Answer: “Immediately stop the transfusion”


31.
A client admitted in the coronary care unit (CCU) has developed atrial fibrillation. The ventricular rate is
at 155 beats per minute. The nurse should assess the client for:


A.
Flat neck veins
B.
Hypertension and headache
C.
Nausea and vomiting
D.
Hypotension and dizziness


Answer: “Hypotension and dizziness”


32.
The doctor orders cardiac catheterization for a client admitted in the CCU. The procedure will involve
the use of a radiopaque dye. The nurse is aware that the most important part of the pre-procedure
assessment is checking:


A.
Allergy to iodine or shellfish

B.
Height and weight
C.
Baseline peripheral pulse rates
D.
Intake and output


Answer: “Allergy to iodine or shellfish”




33.
Which solution is used for maintaining patency of intestinal tube-


A.
Hypotonic saline
B.
Hypertonic saline
C.
Normal saline
D.
Sterile water


Answer: “Normal saline”


34.
The nurse should assess the client with cirrhosis of liver and hpatic coma for-


A.
Uremia
B.
Urticria
C.

Icterus
D.
Ansemia


Answer: “Icterus”


35.
Which of the following is the most appropriate clinical test to confirm iron deficiency anaemia-


A.
Red blood cell count
B.
Reticulocyte count
C.
Bone-marrow examination
D.
Serum ferritin level


Answer: “Serum ferritin level”




36.
What is Microbiology?
A.
Study of molecules that are visible to human eyes
B.
Study of animals and their family
C.
Study of organisms that are not visible to naked eyes
D.
Study of microscope

Answer: “Study of organisms that are not visible to naked eyes”




37.
Bacteria having clusters of flagella at both poles of cells are known as?


A.
Amphitrichous
B.
Lophotrichous
C.
Monotrichous
D.
Peritrichous


Answer: “Amphitrichous”


38.


An example of an organism that takes nutrition from dead and decaying matter is known as


A.
Grass
B.
Dog
C.
Mushrooms
D.
Cuscuta or Amarbel


Answer: “Mushrooms”

39.


A group of eatables rich in iron is


A.
Amla, Spinach, Jaggery
B.
Amla, Tomato, Jaggery
C.
Spinach, Cabbage, Tomato
D.
Amla, Cabbage, Jaggery


Answer: “Amla, Spinach, Jaggery”


40.
How many compressions and breaths should you do for each cycle of CPR?


A.
15 compressions, 2 breaths
B.
30 compressions, 5 breaths
C.
30 compressions, 2 breaths
D.
15 compressions, 5 breaths


Answer: “30 compressions, 2 breaths”


41.
Which of the following is an internal variable affecting health status, beliefs, or practices?

a.
Standard of living
b.
Socio economic situation
c.
Family structure
d.
Genetics


Answer: “Genetics”


42.
The nurses uses the agent-host -environment model of health and illness to assess diseased in patients.
This model is based on what concept?


a.
Risk factors
b.
Demographic variable
c.
Behaviour to promote health
d.
Stage of illness


Answer: “Risk factors”


43.
A nurse cares for dying patient by providing physical, psychological, social, and spiritual care for the
patients, families and other loved ones. What type of care is the nurse providing?

A.

Respite care

B.

Palliative care

C.

Hospice care

D.

Extend care

Answer: “Hospice care”

44.
water moves across a semi permeable membrane via which process

a.

Active transport

b.

Diffusion

c.

filtration

d.

Osmosis

Answer: “Osmosis”


45.

A supposition or system of ideas that is proposed to explain a given phenomenon best defines which of
the following?

a.

A concept

b.

A conceptual framework

c.

A Theory

d.

A Paradigm

Answer: “A Theory”


46.

Although the client refused the procedure, the nurse insisted and inserted a NG tube in the right nostril.
The administrator of the hospital decides to settle the lawsuit because the nurse is most likely to be
found guilty of which of the following?

a.

An unintentional tort

b.

Assault

c.

Invasion of privacy

d.

Battery

Answer: “Battery”

47.

When interacting with a patient the nurse answers, “I am sure everything will be fine. You have nothing
to worry about.” This is an example of which type of inappropriate communication technique?

a.

Cliche

b.

Giving advice

c.

Being judgmental

d.

Changing subject


Answer: “Cliché”

48.

Two nurses are taking an apical-radial pulse and note a difference in pulse rate of 8beats/min. How will
the nurse document this difference?

a.

pulse deficit

b.

pulse amplitude

c.

ventricular rhythm

d.

Heart arrythmia

Answer: “pulse deficit”

49.

Which of the following nursing theorists developed a conceptual model based on the belief that all
persons strive to achieve self-care?

a.

Marta Rogers

b.

Dorothea Orem

c.

Florence Nightingale

d.

Sister Callistra Roy

Answer: “Dorothea Orem”

50.

The primary organs involved in pH regulation are

a.

kidneys and lungs

b.

Heart and intestines

c.

Lung and endocrine glands

d.

Skin and Kidneys

Answer: “kidneys and lungs”


51.

A 56-year-old man with Diabetes Mellitus was admitted to an Emergency ward with a weak pulse at the
rate of 120/minute, hypotension, and hypernatremia. Which of the following nursing intervention is
appropriate?


a)

Rehydrate the patient with 5% dextrose in half Normal saline

b)

Administer 3% Normal saline solution and monitor Vitals and urine output

c)

Administer Mannitol solution and check sodium level regularly

d)

Rehydrate the patient with 25% dextrose in half Normal saline

Answer: “Rehydrate the patient with 5% dextrose in half Normal saline”

52.

Which of the following drug contributes to Hyperkalaemia?

a)

ACE Inhibitors

b)

Diuretics

c)

Insulin

d)

Sodium Bicarbonate

Answer: “ACE Inhibitors”




53.

The multidrug combination of drugs used in certain conditions including Tuberculosis is for the purpose
of


a)

Prevent drug resistance

b)

Prevent drug side effects

c)

To treat mixed infections

d)

To increase the drug adherence


Answer: “Prevent drug resistance”

54.

Which of the following is probiotics

a)

Beta haemolytic Streptococcus

b)

Staphylococci

c)

Clostridium

d)

Lactobacillus

Answer: “Lactobacillus”

55.

Where the word "psychology" does come from?

A.

Italian

B.

Greek

C.

Latin

D.

Sanskrit

Answer: “Greek”

56.

Teena wrote a to-do list, but she forgot it at home when she went out for her first activity. When she
tried to memorise it, she only remembered the beginning and finish of the list, but not what was in the
centre. The preceding scenario is an example of –

A.

Flashbulb memory

B.

Serial position effect

C.

Encoding specificity effects

D.

Tip-of-the tongue effect

Answer: “Serial position effect”


57.

When the patient complains of inability to co-ordinate his muscle movements resulting in difficulty in
walking and performing self-care, the nurse recognizes he has

a)

Agnosia

b)

Anosmia

c)

Ataxia

d)

Rigidity

Answer: “Ataxia”


58.

While doing physical assessment of a patient a nurse notices marked muscle atrophy of lower limbs. In
which of the following condition it is observed

a)

Lower motor neuron disease

b)

Upper motor neuron disease

c)

Parkinson’s disease

d)

Myasthenia gravis

Answer: “Lower motor neuron disease”

59.

According to the classification of functional area, the nurse’s station is categorized under which of the
following criteria

a)

Non-contaminated

b)

heavily contaminated

c)

Moderately contaminated

d)

Light contamination

Answer: “Light contamination”

60.

Which body system is responsible for senses and response to stimuli?

a.

Integument

b.

Digestive

c.

Nervous

d.

Endocrine

Answer: “Nervous”




61.

Anatomy focuses on the structures, whereas physiology focuses on –

a.

Location

b.

Relationship

c.

Function

d.

Absorption

Answer: “Function”

62.

The basic living unit of all plant and animal is the-

a.

Chromosome

b.

Tissue

c.

Cell

d.

Ribosome

Answer: “Cell”

63.

Ribosome’s help in –

a.

Photosynthesis

b.

Protein synthesis

c.

Lipid synthesis

d.

Respiration

Answer: “Protein synthesis”

64.

Sociology is the study of:

a.

Socio- political institutions

b.

Political system

c.
Human behavior

d.

Socio economic status

Answer: “Socio economic status”


65.

Thought process characterized by a series of ideas without apparent logical connections is referred to
as?

A.

Loosening of association

B.

Flight of ideas

C.

Confabulation

D.

Tangentiality

Answer: “Loosening of association”

66.

The ability to understand one’s own behaviour and emotion is called?

A.

Judgement

B.

Insight

C.

Intelligence

D.

Personality

Answer: “Insight”

67.

A 20 year old client was diagnosed with dependent personality disorder. Which behaviour is most likely
to be evidence of ineffective individual coping?

A.

Avoiding relationship

B.

Showing interest in solitary activities

C.

Recurrent self destructive behavior

D.

Inability to make choices and decisions without advice

Answer: “Inability to make choices and decisions without advice”

68.

Which of the following describes relationships of a client with a histrionic personality disorder?

A.

Cold and distant

B.

Shallow and smothering

C.

Close and clingy

D.

Distrustful and jealous

Answer: “Shallow and smothering”


69.
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about Planning Commission?

a)

Planning Commission was set up in year 1950 by government of India

b)

It has three major division Programme advisers, General Secretariat and Technical advisor

c)

It was set up to make assessment of the material, capital and industries of the country

d)

The planning process was decentralized in year 2000.

Answer: “It was set up to make assessment of the material, capital and industries of the country”

70.

Which committee recommended “integration of preventive and curative services at all administrative
levels”?

a)

Bhore Committee

b)

Chaddha Committee

c)

Mudaliar Committee

d)

Mukherjee Committee

Answer: “Bhore Committee”


71.

Whose function is to make recommendations to the central govt. regarding distribution of available
grant-in -aid for health purposes to the states and to review periodically the work accomplished in
different areas through the utilisation of these grant-in-aid?

a)

State health directorate

b)

State Ministry of Health

c)

Directorate General of Health Services.

d)

Central council of health

Answer: “Central council of health”

72.

Under integrated vector management strategy all of the following are included EXCEPT?

a)

Indoor residual Spray

b)

Anti-larval Measures

c)

Insecticide Nets

d)

Prophylactic drugs

Answer: “Prophylactic drugs”

73.

Which of the following is main cause of blindness in India?

a)

Cataract

b)

Glaucoma

c)

Refractive error

d)

Vitamin A deficiency

Answer: “Cataract”

74.


A community health nurse is forming a community health team in different level of health facility.
Traditional Birth Attendant should be included as a team member at which level of health facility?

a.

CHC

b.

PHC

c.

Sub centre

d.

District Hospital

Answer: “Sub centre”

75.

Which of the following depicts the correct sequence of health and illness continuum model?

a)

Awareness- Education- Growth- High Level Wellness

b)

Growth- Awareness- Education- High Level Wellness

c)

Education- Growth- Awareness- High Level Wellness

d)

High level Wellness- Awareness- Education- Growth

Answer: “Awareness- Education- Growth- High Level Wellness”

76.

Which disease is known as father of Public health?

a.

Diarrhoea

b.

Malaria

c.

Anthrax

d.

Cholera

Answer: “Cholera”

77.

Whose characteristics in community contribute to overall complexion of the community.

a.

Individual

b.

Group

c.

Family

d.

organization


Answer: “Family”

78.

Which Model addresses relationship between a person's belief and behaviour?

a.

Health-wellness Model

b.

Agent- Host Environment Model

c.

Health Promotion Model

d.

Health Belief Model

Answer: “Health Belief Model”

79.

Which of the following medicine system has its origin in India?

a)

Homeopathy

b)

Unani

c)

Siddha

d)

Allopathic

Answer: “Siddha”

80.

When did India form its first National population policy?

a.

April 1975

b.

April 1976

c.

April 1977

d.

April 1978

Answer: “April 1976”


81.

The objectives of health education includes all except

a.

Informing people

b.

Motivating people

c.

Guiding in to action

d.

Discourage thinking

Answer: “Discourage thinking”


82.

Health education is concerned with all except

a.

Promoting health

b.

Reducing behavior – induced disease

c.

Healthier living

d.

Appeals to emotion

Answer: “Appeals to emotion”

83.

________ means communication without words.

A.

Object communication

B.

Written communication

C.

Oral communication

D.

Non-verbal communication

Answer: “Non-verbal communication”


84.

The person who transmits the message is called ___.

A.

Receiver

B.

Sender

C.

Channel

D.

Response

Answer: “Sender”


85.

What is the second step in the SQ3R of reading is ___?

A.

Read

B.

Question

C.

Survey

D.

Review

Answer: “Question”

86.

While creating a slide, the number of words should be at least a maximum of ___ per slide.

A.

Seven

B.

Nine

C.

Eight

D.

Ten

Answer: “Ten”


87.

What is the complete form of the abbreviation of TQM?

A.

total quality manager

B.

total quality management

C.

team quality management

D.

total quality management


Answer: “total quality management”

88.

Sixteen years old primi gravid patient admitted with severe pregnancy-induced hypertension is given
intravenous magnesium sulphate. The nurse should obtain which one of the following information?

A.

Urinary output every 8 hours

B.

Deep tendon reflexes every 4 hours

C.

Respiratory rate every hour

D.

Blood pressure every 6 hours

Answer: “Respiratory rate every hour”

89.

Twenty-five-year-old lactating woman presented with fever, acute breast pain, and swelling. Which one
of the following organisms causes this acute breast problem?

A.
steptococcus

B.

Staphylococcus

C.

Enterococcus

D.

Pneumococcus

Answer: “Staphylococcus”


90.

Nurse is about to catheterize the bladder of a pregnant lady. She should be aware that all the following
facts about the female urethra are true except?

A.

It is about 1.5 inches in length

B.

It's posterior to the vaginal orifice

C.

It pierces through the urogenital diaphragm

D.

It is straight and offers minor resistance for catheterization

Answer: “It is straight and offers minor resistance for catheterization”


91.

Premature separation of a normally implanted placenta during the second half of pregnancy usually with
severe hemorrhage is known as?

A.

Placenta previa

B.

Ectopic pregnancy

C.

Incompetent cervix

D.
Abruptio placentae

Answer: “Abruptio placentae”


92.

Purple-blue tinge of the cervix is?

A.

Braxton-Hicks signs

B.

Chadwick's sign

C.

Goodell's sign

D.

McDonald's sign

Answer: “Chadwick's sign”

93.

Which of the following can lead to a greenish discoloration of the amniotic fluid?

A.

Lanugo

B.

Hydramnios

C.

Meconium

D.

Vernix

Answer: “Meconium”


94.

The embryo/fetus gets its food supply from?

A.

Arteries of the mother

B.

The uterus

C.

The placenta

D.

The amniotic sac

Answer: “The placenta”

95.

A patient progresses from pre-eclampsia to eclampsia, the nurse's first action should be to?

A.

Administer oxygen by face mask

B.

Clear and maintain an open airway

C.

Administer magnesium sulfate intravenously

D.

Assess the blood pressure and fetal heart rate

Answer: “Assess the blood pressure and fetal heart rate”

96.

You are working as a triage nurse during a disaster situation. Based on the triage color code tags placed
on each of the wounded, which tag color represents the wounded who have the highest priority of
being treated first?

A.

Green

B.

Yellow

C.

Red

D.

Black

Answer: “Red”

97.

The wounded victim is unable to walk, has respiratory rate of 19, capillary refill of one second, and is
able to obey your commands. The wounded victim is assigned what tag color?

A.

Green

B.

Red

C.

Yellow

D.

Black

Answer: “Yellow”

98.

What does the red triage tag indicate?

A.

Minor injuries

B.

Moderate injuries

C.

Life-threatening injuries

D.

Deceased or non-survivable injuries

Answer: “Life-threatening injuries”

99.

Which of the following is the most effective way of preventing infections in hospital settings?

a)

Wearing gloves

b)

Hand washing

c)

Using all personnel protective equipment

d)

Proper bio-medical waste management

Answer: “Hand washing”

100.

While educating the patient with Tuberculosis, which of the following statement by the nurse is most
appropriate?

a)

The most common method of TB transmission is by droplet nuclei

b)

TB spreads via contaminated foods and fluids

c)

Its spreads through using the infected persons eating utensils

d)

It spreads through mosquito bites from infected persons

Answer: “The most common method of TB transmission is by droplet nuclei”