Andaman Nicobar Group C 2023: A&N Health Department, Nursing Officer, CBT, Slot 4

1.
The name of the great maestro of Indian Music “Ustad Bismillah Khan” is
related to which instrument?

(A)
Shehnai
(B)
Flute
(C)
Tabla
(D)
Sarod
Answer: “Shehnai”

2.
Which state is the host of the 26th Na onal Youth Fes val?

(A)
Kerala
(B)
Karnataka
(C)
Bihar
(D)
West Bengal
Answer: “Karnataka”

3.
How many na onal Level mul state coopera ve export socie es have been
approved by the Union Cabinet?

(A)
Two
(B)
Three
(C)
Five
(D)
Seven
Answer: “Three”

4.
Which of the following pollutant is the most harmful?

(A)
NO2
(B)
CO2
(C)
SO2
(D)
CO
Answer: “SO2”

5.
For how many days did Mahatma Gandhi’s volunteers of the Salt satyagraha
walk?

(A)
24
(B)
36
(C)
12
(D)
6
Answer: “24”

6.
Which of the following is called as the leader of Lok Sabha?

(A)
Speaker
(B)
President
(C)
Prime Minister
(D)
Deputy Speaker
Answer: “Prime Minister”

7.
Which of the following is the correct coastal length of India including the
islands?

(A)
5000 km
(B)
5631 km
(C)
7517 km
(D)
8216 km
Answer: “7517 km”

8.
Which of the following passes is situated at the highest eleva on?

(A)
Nathu La
(B)
Jelep La
(C)
Rohtang
(D)
Zoji La
Answer: “Nathu La”

9.
Which planet disappeared from sight on September 14, due to a phenomenon
called ‘Lunar occulta on’?

(A)
Mercury
(B)
Venus
(C)
Uranus
(D)
Saturn

Answer: “Uranus”

10.
Which major tech company announced to change its policy to comply with the
Compe on Commission of India (CCI)’s direc ves?

(A)
Meta
(B)
Microso
(C)
Google
(D)
Amazon
Answer: “Google”

11.
Velocity of sound in air does not depend on__:

(A)
Density of air
(B)
Temperature of air
(C)
Pressure of air
(D)
Humidity of air
Answer: “Pressure of air”

12.
If cream is removed from milk, its density__:

(A)
Increases
(B)
Decreases
(C)
Remains the same
(D)
May increase or decrease

Answer: “Increases”

13.
The wall of a dam is made thicker at the bo om than at the top because the
pressure exerted by the water on the wall__:

(A)
depends on the thickness of the wall
(B)
increases with height of the wall
(C)
increases with depth of the wall
(D)
depends on the area of the wall
Answer: “increases with depth of the wall”

14.
The property of catena on is predominant in:

(A)
sulphur
(B)
nitrogen
(C)
silicon
(D)
carbon
Answer: “carbon”


15.
Bauxite is an alloy of which of the following metals?

(A)
Aluminium
(B)
Silver
(C)
Tin
(D)

Iron
Answer: “Aluminium”

16.
Interveinal necro c spots on leaves appear due to:

(A)
HF injury
(B)
SO2 injury
(C)
NO2 injury
(D)
O3 injury
Answer: “SO2 injury”

17.
Which of the following is secreted by the liver?

(A)
Gastric juice
(B)
Saliva
(C)
Pancrea c juice
(D)
Bile juice
Answer: “Bile juice”

18
The impure blood from the right ventricle goes into -

(A)
liver
(B)
lungs
(C)
heart
(D)
brain

Answer: “lungs”

19.
Which of the following vitamin is water-soluble?

(A)
Vitamin C
(B)
Vitamin A
(C)
Vitamin D
(D)
Vitamin K
Answer: “Vitamin C”

20.
Which part of the alimentary canal receives the bile from the liver?

(A)
Small intes ne
(B)
Large intes ne
(C)
Stomach
(D)
liver
Answer: “Small intes ne”

21.
The main goal of treatment for acute glomerulonephri s is to:

(A)
encourage ac vity.
(B)
encourage high protein intake.
(C)
maintain fluid balance.
(D)
teach intermi ent urinary catheteriza on.
Answer: “maintain fluid balance”

22.
The most common, preventable complica on of abdominal surgery is:

(A)
Atelectasis
(B)
fluid and electrolyte imbalance.
(C)
Thrombophlebi s
(D)
urinary reten on.
Answer: “Atelectasis”

23.
To prepare a pa ent on the unit for a bronchoscopic procedure, the medical-
surgical nurse administers the IV seda ve. The nurse then instructs the licensed
prac cal/voca onal nurse to:

(A)
educate the pa ent about the pending procedure.
(B)
give the pa ent small sips of water only.
(C)
measure the pa ent's blood pressure and pulse readings.
(D)
take the pa ent to the bathroom one more me.
Answer: “measure the pa ent's blood pressure and pulse readings”

24.
Which ac on best describes a sen nel event alert?

(A)
Documen ng the breakdown in communica on during a shi report.
(B)
Indica ng that a community or ins tu on is unsafe.
(C)
Recording the harm done when a medica on error occurs.
(D)
Signalling the need for immediate inves ga on and response.

Answer: “Signalling the need for immediate inves ga on and response”

25.
A nursing department in an acute care se ng decides to redesign its nursing
prac ce based on a theore cal framework. The feedback from pa ents,
families, and staff reflects that caring is a key element. Which theorist best
supports this concept?

(A)
Erikson
(B)
Maslow
(C)
Rogers
(D)
Watson
Answer: “Watson”

26.
The first step in applying the quality improvement process to an ac vity in a
clinical se ng is to:

(A)
assemble a team to review and revise the ac vity.
(B)
collect data to measure the status of the ac vity.
(C)
select an ac vity for improvement.
(D)
set a measurable standard for the ac vity.
Answer: “select an ac vity for improvement”

27.
Asthma is a chronic disorder that causes

(A)
Pneumonia
(B)
skin rashes
(C)

heart blockage
(D)
inflamma on in the airway
Answer: “inflamma on in the airway”

28.
While performing physical examina on of the newborn tes s could not be
palpated in the scrotum. The failure of the tes s to descend normally through
the inguinal canal is called as

(A)
Chordee
(B)
Epispadias
(C)
Hypospadias
(D)
Cryptorchidism
Answer: “Cryptorchidism”

29.
Glasgow coma scale (GCS) is a measure of –

(A)
Neurological assessment
(B)
Level of consciousness (LOC)
(C)
Fluid volume
(D)
Intra cranial pressure (ICP)
Answer: “Level of consciousness (LOC)”

30.
Which are the following medica ons would the nurse an cipate the physician
would order to increase the blood pressure for a pa ent with sep c shock-

(A)
Atropine
(B)

Dopamine
(C)
Digoxin
(D)
Nitro-glycerine
Answer: “Dopamine”

31.
The Non-modifiable risk factors for hypertension include all except:

(A)
Age
(B)
Gene c factors
(C)
Obesity
(D)
Sex
Answer: “Obesity”

32.
The benign tumour of blood vessel is called-

(A)
Haemangioma
(B)
Myoma
(C)
Lipoma
(D)
Adenoma
Answer: “Haemangioma”

33.
Which is not an example of S.T.D

(A)
Hepa s-A
(B)
Syphilis

(C)
AIDS
(D)
Gono
Answer: “Hepa     s-A”

34.
The test that is most specific for myocardial damage is-

(A)
CK MB
(B)
Myoglobin
(C)
Troponin -I
(D)
CK
Answer: “CK MB”

35.
Which one of the following ac ons would a nurse take first when caring for a
pa ent experiencing a cardiac arrest-

(A)
Ini ate cardiac monitoring
(B)
Provide intravenous access
(C)
Establish an open airway
(D)
Obtain a pulse oximetry reading
Answer: “Establish an open airway”

36.
Which of the following are produced by microorganisms?

(A)
Alcoholic beverages
(B)
Fermented dairy products

(C)
Breads
(D)
All of the men oned
Answer: “All of the men oned”

37.
The principal microorganism for yogurt is ______________________

(A)
Leuconostoc citrovorum
(B)
Streptococcus lac s
(C)
Streptococcus thermophilus
(D)
Lactobacillus acidophilus
Answer: “Streptococcus thermophilus”

38.
Cardiac tamponade means

(A)
Inflamma on of myocardium
(B)
Inflamma on of epicardium
(C)
Accumula on of fluid in pericardium
(D)
Ventricular failure
Answer: “Accumula on of fluid in pericardium”

39.
Paget`s disease is a

(A)
Cardiac disease
(B)
Respiratory disease
(C)

Bone disease
(D)
Urinary disease
Answer: “Bone disease”

40.
What applies to a vic m with a reduced consciousness?

(A)
The vic m is s ll capable to speak
(B)
The vic m is in shock
(C)
The vic m does not react to speaking and shaking
(D)
The vic m is s ll alert
Answer: “The vic m is s ll capable to speak”

41.
The most characteris c manifesta on of hypocalcaemia and hypomagnesemia

(A)
anorexia and nausea
(B)
Cons pa on
(C)
Lack of coordina on
(D)
Tetany
Answer: “Tetany”

42.
Altruism means

(A)
Right to self determina on
(B)
Respect for individual and popula on
(C)
Concern for the welfare and well-being of others

(D)
Respect the pa ent’s rights
Answer: “Concern for the welfare and well-being of others”

43.
Implants used for orthopaedic surgeries generated to be discarded in

(A)
Yellow bin
(B)
Blue bin
(C)
White bin
(D)
Red bin
Answer: “Blue bin”

44.
A pa ent reports abdominal pian that is difficult to localize. The nurse
documents this as which type of pain?

(A)
Visceral pain
(B)
superficial pain
(C)
phantom pain
(D)
Referred pain
Answer: “Visceral pain”

45.
Which one of the following is not the components of braden scale?

(A)
Sensory percep on
(B)
Shear
(C)
Mobility

(D)
Length of hospital stay
Answer: “Length of hospital stay”

46.
An bodies are produced by the body in response to an an gen is referred as

(A)
Passive immunity
(B)
Ac ve immunity
(C)
Acquired immunity
(D)
Innate immunity
Answer: “Ac ve immunity”

47.
When an ethical issue arises, one of the most important nursing responsibili es
in managing client care situa ons is which of the following?

(A)
Be able to defend the morality of one’s own ac ons
(B)
Remain neutral and detached when making ethical decision
(C)
Ensure that a team is responsible for deciding ethical ques ons.
(D)
Follow the client and families’ wishes exactly
Answer: “Be able to defend the morality of one’s own ac ons”

48.
The nurse plans to remove the client’s sutures which ac on demonstrates not
appropriate standard of case?

(A)
Use clean technique
(B)
Grasp the suture at the knot with a pair of forceps
(C)

Place the curved p of the suture scissors under the suture as close to the skin
as possible
(D)
Remove alternate sutures first
Answer: “Use clean technique”

49.
The specific accountability or liability associated with the performance of
du es of a par cular role is known as,

(A)
Veracity
(B)
Beneficence
(C)
Responsibility
(D)
Jus ce
Answer: “Responsibility”

50.
Which one of the following is not segregated in red category?

(A)
Syringes with fixed needles
(B)
Intravenous tubes and sets
(C)
Rubber apron
(D)
Catheters
Answer: “Syringes with fixed needles”

51.
Which of the following solu on is used for oral care for the preven on of
ven lator-associated pneumonia?

(A)
Methyl salicylate
(B)

Menthol solu on
(C)
Chlorhexidine
(D)
Normal saline
Answer: “Chlorhexidine”

52.
Which of the following is the drug of choice for Diabetes Insipidus?

(A)
Desmopressin
(B)
Dopamine
(C)
Osmo c Diure cs
(D)
Nor adrenaline
Answer: “Desmopressin”

53.
While health educa on on an coagula on therapy for the pa ent with valve
replacement surgery with a mechanical valve, which of the following statement
by a nurse about the therapeu c level of the drug is right?

(A)
Maintain an Interna onal Normalized ra o of 1
(B)
Maintain Interna onal Normalized ra on of 1.5-2.5
(C)
Maintain Interna onal Normalized ra o of 2.5-3.5
(D)
Maintain Interna onal Normalized ra o less than 1
Answer: “Maintain Interna onal Normalized ra o of 2.5-3.5”

54.
Which of the following fibrinoly c drug is administered for the pa ent with
ischemic stroke?

(A)

Streptokinase
(B)
Heparin
(C)
Urokinase
(D)
Tissue plasminogen ac vator
Answer: “Tissue plasminogen ac vator”

55.
Any s mulus that follows a behaviour and increases the likelihood that the
behaviour will be repeated is called a:

(A)
Cue
(B)
Punisher
(C)
Reinforcer
(D)
Situa onal s mulus
Answer: “Reinforcer”

56.
The term used for a child’s one-word u erances is –
(A)
Holophrases
(B)
Telegraphic speech
(C)
Under extensions
(D)
None of these men oned
Answer: “Holophrases”

57.
The priority nursing interven on for the pa ent with an altered level of
consciousness is

(A)

Preven on of bedsore
(B)
Administra on of enteral feeding
(C)
Maintain patent airway
(D)
Provide IV Access
Answer: “Maintain patent airway”

58.
To keep the spinal column straight which of the following technique nurse must
adopt to transfer the pa ent

(A)
Using stretcher technique
(B)
Log rolling
(C)
Make the pa ent to sit then shi
(D)
Ask the pa ent to turn to side then move
Answer: “Log rolling”

59.
The first dose of post-exposure prophylaxis is to be administered within how
many hours for a person with a needle s ck injury from an HIV pa ent?

(A)
within 24 hours
(B)
within 12 hours
(C)
within 48 hours
(D)
within 72 hours
Answer: “within 72 hours”

60.
The amount of light entering the eye is determined by the size of the
(A)

Re na
(B)
Cornea
(C)
Pupil
(D)
Diaphragm
Answer: “Pupil”

61.
Prolac n hormone is responsible for –
(A)
Breast milk
(B)
Height
(C)
Vision
(D)
Nutri on
Answer: “Breast milk”

62.
Which gland is known as supra renal gland –
(A)
Pituitary
(B)
Thyroid
(C)
Adrenal
(D)
Pineal
Answer: “Adrenal”

63.
Islets of Langerhans is part of –

(A)
Pancreas
(B)
Stomach

(C)
Liver
(D)
Thyroid
Answer: “Pancreas”

64.
Which of the following can be a suitable area of study in the scope of
sociology?

(A)
Trade
(B)
community
(C)
Educa on
(D)
Individual
Answer: “community”

65.
The eight-stage classifica on of human life is proposed by

(A)
Sigmund Freud
(B)
Pavel
(C)
Strauss
(D)
Erikson
Answer: “Erikson”

66.
A client tells the nurse that his co-workers are sabotaging the computer. When
the nurse asks ques ons, the client becomes argumenta ve. What is the most
appropriate interven on for the nurse to implement?

(A)
Encourage the client to vent his anger about his computer

(B)
Tell the client that his co-workers haven’t touched his computer
(C)
Use clear and consistent speech when talking to the client
(D)
Tell the client to go to his room and stay there un l he calms down
Answer: “Use clear and consistent speech when talking to the client”

67.
A client with paranoid personality disorder is discussing current problems with
a nurse. What is the most important interven on for the nurse to implement?

(A)
Have the client look at sources of frustra on
(B)
Have the client focus on ways to interact with others
(C)
Have the client discuss the use of defence mechanisms
(D)
Have the client clarify thoughts and belief about an event
Answer: “Have the client clarify thoughts and belief about an event”

68.
Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be appropriate for a client
with an avoidant personality disorder?

(A)
Risk for self-mu la on related to a desperate need for a en on
(B)
Ineffec ve coping related to nega ve a tudes toward health behaviour
(C)
Anxiety related to fear of cri cism, disapproval, and rejec on
(D)
Risk for injury related to uncontrolled anger and hos lity toward others.
Answer: “Anxiety related to fear of cri cism, disapproval, and rejec on”

69.
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding diagnosis under RNTCP?

(A)

Cough for 2 weeks’ suspect T(B)
(B)
Only 2 samples of sputum are needed
(C)
Chest X ray is essen al
(D)
Only one posi ve sample is enough for diagnosis
Answer: “Chest X ray is essen al”

70.
Master Rohan has been brought to Sub centre at 11 months’ age for
immuniza on. He has received BCG, Hep B-1, Pentavalent 1 and OPV-1 at 5
months of age. Which is most appropriate vaccine you can administer to him?

(A)
Start from beginning as vaccine should be given at a 4-week interval.
(B)
Administered Hep B-2, Pentavalent 2 , OPV-2 and Measles
(C)
Administered Hep B-2, Pentavalent 2 , OPV-2
(D)
Refer to PHC for seeking medical officer advice.
Answer: “Administered Hep B-2, Pentavalent 2 , OPV-2 and Measles”

71.
Which of the following statement is NOT CORRECT regarding DPT vaccine?


(A)
A child who is allergic to DPT and develop encephalopathy should be replace
with DT/DTaP.
(B)
If child has never received DPT, DPT vaccine can be given up to age of 9 year
(C)
the gap between two doses of DPT must be 4 weeks to achieve op mum
an body level.
(D)
DPT is replaced by DT for children above 2 years.
Answer: “A child who is allergic to DPT and develop encephalopathy should
be replace with DT/DTaP”

72.
What is measles Catch up Campaign?

(A)
A special campaign to vaccinate all children in wide range of age group in a
state.
(B)
A special campaign to vaccinate all drop out child
(C)
A special campaign to vaccinate all immunized child with booster dose.
(D)
A special camp for early iden fica on and treatment of measles.
Answer: “A special campaign to vaccinate all immunized child with booster
dose”

73.
Baby Yoshika is 3-month-old and has been brought to you by parents
complaining of no scar forma on on BCG site. What will be your most
appropriate answer to the parents?

(A)
Wait ll one year if scar does not develop repeat the dose.
(B)
Vaccine is not administered properly so; baby need to administered BCG
immediately.
(C)
There is no need to re vaccinate the child
(D)
Refer to Physician as child might has TB
Answer: “There is no need to re vaccinate the child”

74.
Which of the following service is NOT available in Upgraded PHC?

(A)
Child health and Nutri on
(B)
Treatment for vector borne disease
(C)

Treatment for Hearing Impairment
(D)
Chest infec on
Answer: “Treatment for Hearing Impairment”

75.
Which of the following is INCORRECT about impact level target of NUHM?

(A)
Reduce IMR by 40%
(B)
Reduce MMR by 80%
(C)
100% ins tu onal delivery
(D)
Achieve TFR of 2.1
Answer: “Reduce MMR by 80%”

76.
Under RBSK child screening and early interven on has 4 Ds. Which of the
following is NOT part of 4 Ds?

(A)
Defect at birth
(B)
Developmental delay
(C)
Disability
(D)
Deworming
Answer: “Deworming”

77.
In which year, Rastriya Kishore Suraksha Karyakram was launched?

(A)
2007
(B)
2012
(C)

2014
(D)
2017
Answer: “2014”

78.
Which of the following is part of PHC strengthening ac on plan under NRHM?

(A)
Adequate and regular supply of essen al drugs.
(B)
Provision of 24 hours’ service in at least 80% of PHC
(C)
Upgrada on of 50% PHCs for 24 hours’ referral services.
(D)
Following availability-based treatment.
Answer: “Adequate and regular supply of essen al drugs”

79.
Mrs. Kalyani lives in urban area of low performing state. She delivered a girl
baby in hospital. How much incen ve she should receive under Janani Suraksha
Yojana?

(A)
Rs. 1400
(B)
Rs. 700
(C)
Rs. 1000
(D)
Rs.600
Answer: “Rs. 1000”

80.
Master Raju a 5year old child is suffering from Severe acute malnutri on. He is
admi ed for nutri onal correc on and presently he is in transi onal phase of
management. Which of the following is NOT a part of transi onal phase?

(A)
He has begun to loss oedema

(B)
He is alert and ac ve
(C)
His appe te has improved
(D)
He is on nasogastric feeding.
Answer: “He is on nasogastric feeding”

81.
Elements of communica on process includes all except

(A)
Communicator
(B)
mike
(C)
message
(D)
Audience
Answer: “mike”

82.
Barriers of communica on includes all except

(A)
difficulty in hearing
(B)
noise
(C)
age
(D)
emo onal disturbances
Answer: “age”

83.
What connects the sender to the receiver?

(A)
Channel
(B)

Communica on
(C)
Noise
(D)
Feedback
Answer: “Channel”

84.
The ___ in the usage of words may be a severe barrier to effec ve
communica on.

(A)
Disturbance
(B)
Discrimina on
(C)
Disorder
(D)
Distor on
Answer: “Distor on”

85.
Most of us converse using ___ and ___ in addi on to words when we speak.

(A)
body language and posture
(B)
gestures and body language
(C)
words and gestures
(D)
posture and eye gazing
Answer: “gestures and body language”

86.
___ refers to pitch, loudness, length, intona on, and tempo.

(A)
Hap cs
(B)

Prosody
(C)
Gestures
(D)
Touches
Answer: “Prosody”

87.
Which of the following is the main cause for transmission of the Hepa   s
virus?

(A)
The bite of a mosquito
(B)
Sharing drug needles
(C)
Drinking contaminated water
(D)
The bite of a bugs
Answer: “Sharing drug needles”

88.
A primigravida at 38 weeks of gesta on comes to the hospital with complaints
of leaking fluid per vaginum. The nurse should assess which of the following to
confirm rupture of membranes?

(A)
Fetal heart rate
(B)
Cervical dila on
(C)
Nitrazine test
(D)
Maternal blood pressure
Answer: “Nitrazine test”

89.
A pregnant woman is diagnosed with gesta onal diabetes mellitus. Which of
the following is the most appropriate management for this condi on?

(A)
Insulin therapy
(B)
Oral hypoglycaemic agents
(C)
Dietary modifica ons
(D)
Regular exercise
Answer: “Dietary modifica ons”

90.
Which of the following is a poten al complica on of postpartum
haemorrhage?

(A)
Uterine atony
(B)
Oliguria
(C)
Hypertension
(D)
Placental abrup on
Answer: “Uterine atony”

92.
A newborn is assessed to have a heart rate of 80 beats per minute. What
should be the immediate nursing ac on?

(A)
Administer cardiopulmonary resuscita on (CPR)
(B)
Provide oxygen by mask
(C)
Ini ate kangaroo care
(D)
Inform the healthcare provider
Answer: “Provide oxygen by mask”

94.
Addi on amount of calorie that should be taken by a pregnant woman

(A)
300 Kcal
(B)
500 Kcal
(C)
1000 Kcal
(D)
100 Kcal
Answer: “300 Kcal”

93.
Golden colour of amnio c fluid is seen in

(A)
Rh incompa bility
(B)
Fetal distress
(C)
Post maturity
(D)
Intrauterine death
Answer: “Rh incompa bility”

94.
Which hormone is helpful in the growth of ovarian follicles?

(A)
FSH
(B)
LH
(C)
Estrogen
(D)
Progesterone
Answer: “FSH”

95.
Most common and ideal pelvis is?

(A)
Android
(B)
Gynecoid
(C)
Platypelloid
(D)
Anthropoid
Answer: “Gynecoid”

96.
The wounded vic m is unable to walk, respiratory rate is absent but when
airway is reposi oned breathing is noted. The wounded vic m is assigned what
tag colour?

(A)
Green
(B)
Red
(C)
Yellow
(D)
Black
Answer: “Red”

97.
The wounded vic m is unable to walk, respiratory rate is absent and when
airway is reposi oned breathing is s ll absent. The wounded vic m is assigned
what tag colour?

(A)
Green
(B)
Red
(C)
Yellow
(D)
Black
Answer: “Black”

98.
The wounded vic m is able to walk and obey commands. The wounded vic m
is assigned what tag colour?

(A)
Green
(B)
Red
(C)
Yellow
(D)
Black
Answer: “Green”

99.
Which of the following ac on is recommended for the pa ent with a needle
s ck injury?

(A)
Squeeze the finger
(B)
Cut the finger and let out blood
(C)
Wash with soap and water
(D)
Put into mouth to suck the blood
Answer: “Wash with soap and water”

100.
According to Spaulding’s classifica on, non-cri cal devices including BP cuff
and stethoscope to be disinfected with which level of disinfec on?

(A)
Heat-based steriliza on
(B)
Chemical sterilant
(C)
High-level disinfectant
(D)
Intermi ent level of disinfectants

Answer: “Intermi ent level of disinfectants”