Andaman Nicobar Group C 2023: A&N Health Department, Nursing Officer, CBT, Slot 5

1.


How many tirthankaras are the part of Jain Dharma tradition?
(A)
Twenty-Five
(B)
Twenty-Four
(C)
Twenty
(D)
Twenty-Two


Answer: B (Twenty-Four)


2.


M Pranesh, who was seen in the news, is associated with which sports?
(A)
Badminton
(B)
Chess
(C)
Swimming
(D)
Boxing


Answer: B (Chess)


3.


Which city announced to launch a new mobility card to pay fares electronically on
buses and metro?


(A)

Mumbai
(B)
Kolkata
(C)
Delhi
(D)
Chennai


Answer: C (Delhi)


4.


Noise pollution occurs when noise exceeds
(A)
70-75 dB
(B)
50-60 dB
(C)
80-99 dB
(D)
40-65 dB


Answer: (C) 80-99 dB


5.


Which of the following leader was not associated with extremist leadership of Indian
National Congress?


(A)
Lokmanya Tilak
(B)
Aurobindo Ghosh
(C)

Lala Lajpat Rai
(D)
O. Hume


Answer: D (O. Hume)


6.


Via which among the following amendments of the Constitution of India, Delhi was
designated as National Capital Territory (NCT)?


(A)
63rd Amendment Act
(B)
69th Amendment Act
(C)
74th Amendment Act
(D)
76th Amendment Act


Answer: B (69th Amendment Act)


7.


Which among the following is the first state in India to introduce “Oak Tussar
Industry”?


(A)
Manipur
(B)
Orissa
(C)
Assam
(D)

Kerala


Answer: A (Manipur)


8.


What is the name of cyber attack in which a computing device is hijacked and its
resources are used to illicitly mine cryptocurrency?


(A)
Crypto-hacking
(B)
Cryptojacking
(C)
Mine-hacking
(D)
Minejacking


Answer: B (Cryptojacking)


9.


Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority (JNPA) is located in which state/UT?
(A)
Maharashtra
(B)
Tamil Nadu
(C)
Karnataka
(D)
Andhra Pradesh


Answer: A (Maharashtra)

10.


Which country plays host to the ‘Asia Cup 2022’?
(A)
India
(B)
Sri Lanka
(C)
UAE
(D)
Bangladesh


Answer: C (UAE)


11.


What do we call the temperature at which the liquid and the vapour states of the
substance coexist?


(A)
Freezing point
(B)
Melting point
(C)
Boiling point
(D)
Normal point


Answer: C (Boiling point)


12.


What do we call the material which gets strongly magnetised when placed in an
external magnetic field?

(A)
Pyromagnetic
(B)
Ferromagnetic
(C)
Paramagnetic
(D)
Diamagnetic


Answer: B (Ferromagnetic)


13.


What do we call the phenomenon of spontaneous disintegration of the nucleus of an
atom?


(A)
Nuclear Fusion
(B)
Ionisation
(C)
Radioactivity
(D)
Covalent Bonding


Answer: C (Radioactivity)


14.


What is used as a sowing agent in the preparation of soft drinks?
(A)
Phosphorus acid
(B)

Boric acid
(C)
Benzoic Acid
(D)
Phosphoric acid


Answer: D (Phosphoric acid)


15.


Which of the following is not a primary fuel?
(A)
Natural Gas
(B)
Wood
(C)
Kerosene
(D)
Coal


Answer: C (Kerosene)


16.


Who discovered electron?
(A)
J. chadwick
(B)
Ernest Rutherford
(C)
J.J.Thomson
(D)
E.Goldstein

Answer: C (J.J.Thomson)


17


In amoeba, digestion of food occurs in -
(A)
Cytoplasm
(B)
Nucleus
(C)
Food vacuole
(D)
Acid vacuole


Answer: C (Food vacuole)


18


Which of the following is the function of the large intestine?
(A)
Assimilation of food
(B)
Digestion of fats
(C)
Digestion of carbohydrates
(D)
Absorption of water


Answer: D (Absorption of water)


19


Which of the following is the functional unit of the lung?
(A)

Bronchus
(B)
Alveoli
(C)
Bronchiole
(D)
Trachea


Answer: B (Alveoli)


20


In a minute, how many times human heartbeats?
(A)
108
(B)
120
(C)
180
(D)
72


Answer: D (72)




                                   Section B


21.


The secondary response of the antibodies against the same antigen is termed as?
(A)
Anamnestic response
(B)

Allergy
(C)
Anaphylactic reaction
(D)
Immune response


Answer: Immune response


22.


Xanthoma refers to?
(A)
Dry mouth
(B)
Dryness of conjunctiva
(C)
Yellowish plaques that occur most commonly near the inner canthus
(D)
Fatty growth develop underneath the skin


Answer: Fatty growth develop underneath the skin


23.


A 32 year old patient is admitted to burns unit with burn injury to anterior, posterior
chest and abdomen. Which of the following assessment is most important for this
client in first 48 hours?


(A)
Frequent assessment of pain
(B)
Hourly urine output measurement
(C)
Hourly BP measurement

(D)
Assessment of skin color and capillary refill


Answer: Hourly urine output measurement


24.


If the incisional area of an abdominal surgery is weak, what is possible to happen
when abdominal muscles contract and increases intraabdominal pressure?


(A)
Evisceratinn
(B)
Dehiscence
(C)
Laceration
(D)
Shearing


Answer: Dehiscence


25.


Which of the following is a substance that decreases pain transmission and causes
an inflammatory response?


(A)
substance P
(B)
Endorphin
(C)
Prostaglandin
(D)
Histamine

Answer: Endorphin


26.


Which of the following is NOT a plasma-derived chemical mediators?
(A)
Cytokines
(B)
Complement components
(C)
Kinins
(D)
Coagulation proteins


Answer: Cytokines


27.


Which of the following can lead to greenish discolouration of the amniotic fluid -
(A)
Lanugo
(B)
Hyframnios
(C)
Meconium
(D)
Vernix


Answer: Meconium


28.


Physiological anaemia during during pregnancy is a result of -

(A)
Increased blood volume
(B)
Decreased dietary intake
(C)
Decreased erythropoiesis after first trimester
(D)
Increased detoxification demands on mother's liver


Answer: Increased blood volume


29.


Fever, headache and nuchal rigidity are classic symproms seen in-
(A)
Parkinson diease
(B)
Alzheimer;s disease
(C)
Brain abscess
(D)
Meningitis


Answer: Meningitis


30.


Which of the following is most important to prevent the progress of disease in
thrombo-angitis obliterans (Buerager's disease) –


(A)
Controlling blood pressure
(B)
Controlling diabetes

(C)
Weight reduction
(D)
Smoking cessation


Answer: Smoking cessation


31.


A patient is cheduled for a IVP using a radio opaque dye,which of the following
assessment is most critical before the procedue-


(A)
History of intake and output
(B)
Measurement of beseline peripheral pulse rate
(C)
Measurement of hieghts and weight
(D)
History of allergy of iodine


Answer: History of allergy of iodine


32.


Which of the following method of intracranial pressure monitoring provides most
accurate results-


(A)
Epidural cathester
(B)
Intraventricula catheter
(C)
Subarachnoid cathester

(D)
Intravertebral cathester


Answer: Subarachnoid cathester


33.


During head injury what is the cause of increase in body tenperature-
(A)
Pons injury
(B)
Hypothalamus injury
(C)
Cerebellum injury
(D)
Medulla injury


Answer: Hypothalamus injury


34.


During Lumbar puncture wgic position is given to a patient-
(A)
Supine position
(B)
Side-lying 'C'
(C)
Lithotomy position
(D)
Fowler's position


Answer: Side-lying 'C'


35.

Which position is used for insertion of gavage tube-
(A)
Trendelenburg position
(B)
Supine positine
(C)
Mid-Fowler's position
(D)
High-Fowler's position


Answer: Supine positine


36.


Plasmodium divides by which of the following method most commonly?
(A)
Regeneration
(B)
Budding
(C)
Binary fission
(D)
Multiple fission


Answer: Multiple fission


37.


Which of the following inhibits DNA replication?
(A)
x-rays
(B)
gamma rays

(C)
UV light
(D)
cathode rays


Answer: UV light


38.


Turner`s sign is?
(A)
Redness of skin
(B)
Bluish discoloration of flanks
(C)
Bluish discoloration of Periumbilical area
(D)
Flapping of fingers


Answer: Bluish discoloration of flanks


39.


Goiter occurs due to
(A)
Iodine deficiency
(B)
gulcocorticocoids excess
(C)
Deficienancy of Vit C
(D)
Excess of iodine


Answer: Iodine deficiency

40.


What names are given to the three different depths of burns?
(A)
Small, medium and large.
(B)
First, second and third degree.
(C)
Minor, medium and severe.
(D)
Superficial, partial thickness, full thickness.


Answer: Superficial, partial thickness, full thickness.


41.


When transferring a patient from a bed to a chair, the nurse should use which muscle
to avoid back injury?


(A)
Abdominal muscles
(B)
Back muscles
(C)
Upper arm muscles
(D)
Leg muscles


Answer: Leg muscles


42.


To institute appropriate isolation precautions, the nurse first must know the,

(A)
Organism’s mode of transmission
(B)
Organism’s gram staining characteristics
(C)
Organism’s susceptibility to antibiotics
(D)
Patient’s susceptibility to the organism


Answer: Organism’s mode of transmission


43.


A client has a pressure ulcer with a shallow, partial skin thickness, eroded areas but
no necrotic areas. The nurse would treat the areas with which dressing?


(A)
Alginate
(B)
Dry gauze
(C)
Hydrocolloid
(D)
No dressing is indicated.


Answer: Hydrocolloid


44.


Answerable to oneself and others for one’s own action is referred as
(A)
Accountability
(B)
Responsibility

(C)
Justice
(D)
Veracity


Answer: Accountability


45.


Which one of the following statement is false about donning sterile gloves
(A)
The first glove should be picked up by grasping the inside of the cuff
(B)
The second glove should be picked up by inserting the gloved fingers under the cuff,
outside the glove


(C)
The inside of the glove is considered sterile
(D)
The gloves should be adjusted by sliding the gloved fingers under the sterile cuff and
pulling the glove over the wrist.


Answer: The inside of the glove is considered sterile


46.


A new nursing graduate’s first job requires 12 hour night shifts. Which strategy will
make it easier for the graduate to sleep during the day and remain awake at night?


(A)
Wear dark wrap a rounded sunglasses when driving home in the morning and sleep
in a darkened bedroom.


(B)

Exercise on the day time
(C)
Drink several cups of strong coffee when beginning the shift
(D)
Try to stay in a brightly lit area when working at night


Answer: Wear dark wrap a rounded sunglasses when driving home in the
morning and sleep in a darkened bedroom.


47.


Which one of the following measures are not recommended to prevent pressure
ulcer


(A)
Using a water or air mattress
(B)
Adhering to a schedule for positioning and turning
(C)
Massaging over the bony prominences
(D)
Providing meticulous skin care.


Answer: Massaging over the bony prominences




48.


The client’s post operative orders state “diet tolerated”. The client has been NPO.
The nurse will advance the client’s diet to clear liquids based on which assessment?


(A)
Pain level is maintained at a rating of 2-3 out of 10
(B)

Ambulates with minimal assistance
(C)
Expresses feeling “hungry”
(D)
States passing flatus


Answer: States passing flatus


49.


Nursing students have been assigned to develop their own theory of nursing. Which
of the following would they in their theory, often referred to as the meta paradigm
nursing?


(A)
Society, medicine, nursing and biology
(B)
Client, environment, health and nursing
(C)
Patient, facility, health and nursing
(D)
Organization, medicine, nursing and client


Answer: Client, environment, health and nursing


50.


A client woke in the middle of the night, confused and unaware of the surroundings.
Although the call light was within reach the client got out of bed unassisted, tripped
on the bedside chair, and fell. Which of the following elements of malpractice is
missing in this incident?


(A)
Forseeability

(B)
Damages
(C)
Injury
(D)
Duties


Answer: Forseeability


51.


Which of the following statement indicates the nurse has the right understanding of
the drug Digoxin while explaining its action to the patient?


(A)
Digoxin increases the heart rate of the patient
(B)
Digoxin is administered to reduce Blood pressure
(C)
Digoxin increases the contractility of the heart muscle
(D)
It increases the coronary artery blood flow


Answer: Digoxin increases the contractility of the heart muscle




52.


Which of the following drug is commonly administered for a patient with
supraventricular tachycardia which also has a short half-life


(A)
Metoprolol
(B)

Adenosine
(C)
Captopril
(D)
Amiodarone


Answer: Adenosine


53.


The common antiseptic agent used in burn wounds and active against pseudomonas
is


(A)
Zinc salts
(B)
Silver sulfadiazine
(C)
Savlon
(D)
Mercury compounds


Answer: Silver sulfadiazine




54.


The drug that neutralizes gastric acid secretion in the stomach is
(A)
H2 blockers
(B)
Proton pump inhibitors
(C)
Antacids

(D)
Bismuth compounds


Answer: Antacids


55.


The frustration-aggression hypothesis;
(A)
Was developed by social learning theorist
(B)
Assumes that frustration produces aggression
(C)
Assume that aggression is basic instinct
(D)
Claims that frustration and aggression are both instinctive


Answer: Assumes that frustration produces aggression


56.


Psychophysics is the study of:
(A)
Depth perception
(B)
Perceptual illness
(C)
Movement perception
(D)
The psychological perception oh physical stimuli


Answer: The psychological perception oh physical stimuli


57.

While giving a passive range of motion exercises to the patient, the nurse finds it
resistant to moving the limb, it is termed as


(A)
Increase muscle strength
(B)
Spasticity
(C)
Clonus
(D)
Flaccidity


Answer: Spasticity


58.


While caring patient with increased intracranial pressure which of the following
classical manifestation suggest the presence of the crushing triad


(A)
Bradycardia, hypertension, bradypnoea
(B)
Bradycardia, hypotension, bradypnoea
(C)
Tachycardia, hypotension, eupnoea
(D)
Brady cardia, hypertension, tachypnoea


Answer: Bradycardia, hypertension, bradypnoea


59.

Which of the following body fluid is considered as potentially infectious in a health
care setting?


(A)
Amniotic fluid
(B)
saliva
(C)
Tears
(D)
sweat


Answer: Amniotic fluid




60.


Function of tendons is to
(A)
Attach muscles to bones
(B)
Attach one bone to another joint
(C)
Attach one muscle to another muscle
(D)
Attach muscle to hinge joints


Answer: Attach muscles to bones


61.


The muscle that pumps blood throughout our body is:
(A)
Smooth muscle

(B)
Cardiac muscle
(C)
Flexible muscle
(D)
Skeletal muscle


Answer: Cardiac muscle


62.


Which muscle helps to move our shoulders?
(A)
Deltoid muscle
(B)
Quadriceps
(C)
Tendons
(D)
Smooth muscle


Answer: Deltoid muscle


63.


Which muscles are found on the front of our thighs?
(A)
Quadriceps
(B)
Biceps
(C)
Pectorals
(D)
Deltoids

Answer: Quadriceps


64.


Which of the following can be a suitable area of study in the scope of   sociology?
(A)
Trade
(B)
community
(C)
Education
(D)
Individual


Answer: community


65.


Social relationships are concerned with:
(A)
the relationships between passengers travelling by the same train
(B)
the relationships that exists between pen and ink
(C)
the mutual interactions of the individuals
(D)
the sense of comradeship


Answer: the sense of comradeship


66.


The eight-stage classification of human life is proposed by

(A)
Sigmund
(B)
Freud
(C)
Pavel Strauss
(D)
Erikson


Answer: Erikson


67.


A client tells the nurse that his co-workers are sabotaging the computer. When the
nurse asks questions, the client becomes argumentative. What is the most
appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement?


(A)
Encourage the client to vent his anger about his computer
(B)
Tell the client that his co-workers haven’t touched his computer
(C)
Use clear and consistent speech when talking to the client
(D)
Tell the client to go to his room and stay there until he calms down


Answer: Use clear and consistent speech when talking to the client


68.


A client with paranoid personality disorder is discussing current problems with a
nurse. What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?


(A)

Have the client look at sources of frustration
(B)
Have the client focus on ways to interact with others
(C)
Have the client discuss the use of defence mechanisms
(D)
Have the client clarify thoughts and belief about an event


Answer: Have the client clarify thoughts and belief about an event


69.


Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be appropriate for a client with an
avoidant personality disorder?


(A)
Risk for self-mutilation related to a desperate need for attention
(B)
Ineffective coping related to negative attitudes toward health behaviour
(C)
Anxiety related to fear of criticism, disapproval, and rejection
(D)
Risk for injury related to uncontrolled anger and hostility toward others.


Answer: Anxiety related to fear of criticism, disapproval, and rejection


70.


Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding diagnosis under RNTCP?
(A)
Cough for 2 weeks’ suspect TB.
(B)
Only 2 samples of sputum are needed
(C)

Chest X ray is essential
(D)
Only one positive sample is enough for diagnosis


Answer: Chest X ray is essential


71.


Master Rohan has been brought to Sub centre at 11 months’ age for immunization.
He has received BCG, Hep B-1, Pentavalent 1 and OPV-1 at 5 months of age.
Which is most appropriate vaccine you can administer to him?


(A)
Start from beginning as vaccine should be given at a 4-week interval.
(B)
Administered Hep B-2, Pentavalent 2 , OPV-2 and Measles
(C)
Administered Hep B-2, Pentavalent 2 , OPV-2
(D)
Refer to PHC for seeking medical officer advice.


Answer: Administered Hep B-2, Pentavalent 2 , OPV-2 and Measles


72.


Which of the following statement is NOT CORRECT regarding DPT vaccine?
(A)
A child who is allergic to DPT and develop encephalopathy should be replace with
DT/DTaP.


(B)
If child has never received DPT, DPT vaccine can be given up to age of 9 year
(C)

The gap between two doses of DPT must be 4 weeks to achieve optimum antibody
level.


(D)
DPT is replaced by DT for children above 2 years.


Answer: A child who is allergic to DPT and develop encephalopathy should be
replace with DT/DTaP.


73.


What is measles Catch up Campaign?
(A)
A special campaign to vaccinate all children in wide range of age group in a state.
(B)
A special campaign to vaccinate all drop out child.
(C)
A special campaign to vaccinate all immunized child with booster dose.
(D)
A special camp for early identification and treatment of measles.


Answer: A special campaign to vaccinate all immunized child with booster
dose.


74.


Baby Yoshika is 3-month-old and has been brought to you by parents complaining of
no scar formation on BCG site. What will be your most appropriate answer to the
parents?


(A)
Wait till one year if scar does not develop repeat the dose.
(B)

Vaccine is not administered properly so; baby need to administered BCG
immediately.


(C)
There is no need to re vaccinate the child.
(D)
Refer to Physician as child might has TB.


Answer: There is no need to re vaccinate the child.


75.


Which of the following service is NOT available in Upgraded PHC?
(A)
Child health and Nutrition
(B)
Treatment for vector borne disease
(C)
Treatment for Hearing Impairment
(D)
Chest infection


Answer: Treatment for Hearing Impairment


76.


Which of the following is INCORRECT about impact level target of NUHM?
(A)
Reduce IMR by 40%
(B)
Reduce MMR by 80%
(C)
100% institutional delivery
(D)

Achieve TFR of 2.1


Answer: Reduce MMR by 80%


77.


Under RBSK child screening and early intervention has 4 Ds. Which of the following
is NOT part of 4 Ds?


(A)
Defect at birth
(B)
Developmental delay
(C)
Disability
(D)
Deworming


Answer: Deworming


78.


In which year, Rastriya Kishore Suraksha Karyakaram was launched?
(A)
2007
(B)
2012
(C)
2014
(D)
2017


Answer: 2014

79.


Which of the following is part of PHC strengthening action plan under NRHM?
(A)
Adequate and regular supply of essential drugs.
(B)
Provision of 24 hours’ service in at least 80% of PHC.
(C)
Upgradation of 50% PHCs for 24 hours’ referral services.
(D)
Following availability-based treatment.


Answer: Adequate and regular supply of essential drugs.


80.


Mrs. Kalyani lives in urban area of low performing state. She delivered a girl baby in
hospital. How much incentive she should receive under Janani Suraksha Yojana?


(A)
Rs. 1400
(B)
Rs. 700
(C)
Rs. 1000
(D)
Rs.600


Answer: Rs. 1000


81.

Master Raju a 5year old child is suffering from Severe acute malnutrition. He is
admitted for nutritional correction and presently he is in transitional phase of
management. Which of the following is NOT a part of transitional phase?


(A)
He has begun to loss oedema
(B)
He is alert and active
(C)
His appetite has improved
(D)
He is on naso gastric feeding.


Answer: He is on naso gastric feeding.


82.


In principles of health education soil refers to
(A)
Content
(B)
people
(C)
audio visual aid
(D)
speaker


Answer: people


83.


In principles of health education SEED refers to
(A)
Health fact

(B)
People
(C)
Media
(D)
Speaker


Answer: Health fact


84.


What connects the sender to the receiver?
(A)
Channel
(B)
Communication
(C)
Noise
(D)
feedback


Answer: Channel


85.


The ___ in the usage of words may be a severe barrier to effective communication.
(A)
disturbance
(B)
discrimination
(C)
disorder
(D)
distortion

Answer: distortion




86.


Most of us converse using ___ and ___ in addition to words when we speak.
(A)
body language and posture
(B)
gestures and body language
(C)
words and gestures
(D)
posture and eye gazing


Answer: gestures and body language




87.


___ refers to pitch, loudness, length, intonation, and tempo.
(A)
haptics
(B)
prosody
(C)
gestures
(D)
touches


Answer: prosody

88.


Which of the following diseases is also called as “Salmonella enterica serotype
Typhi”?


(A)
Typhoid
(B)
Malaria
(C)
Diarrhea
(D)
Yellow fever


Answer: Typhoid


89.


A primigravida at 38 weeks of gestation comes to the hospital with complaints of
leaking fluid per vaginum. The nurse should assess which of the following to confirm
rupture of membranes?


(A)
Fetal heart rate
(B)
Cervical dilation
(C)
Nitrazine test
(D)
Maternal blood pressure


Answer: Nitrazine test


90.

A pregnant woman is diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus. Which of the
following is the most appropriate management for this condition?


(A)
Insulin therapy
(B)
Oral hypoglycemic agents
(C)
Dietary modifications
(D)
Regular exercise


Answer: Dietary modifications


91.


Which of the following is a potential complication of postpartum hemorrhage?
(A)
Uterine atony
(B)
Oliguria
(C)
Hypertension
(D)
Placental abruption


Answer: Uterine atony


92.


A newborn is assessed to have a heart rate of 80 beats per minute. What should be
the immediate nursing action?

(A)
Administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
(B)
Provide oxygen by mask
(C)
Initiate kangaroo care
(D)
Inform the healthcare provider


Answer: Provide oxygen by mask


93.


Addition amount of calorie that should be taken by a pregnant woman
(A)
300 Kcal
(B)
500 Kcal
(C)
1000 Kcal
(D)
100 Kcal


Answer: 300 Kcal


94.


Golden colour of amniotic fluid is seen in
(A)
Rh incompatibility
(B)
Fetal distress
(C)
Post maturity

(D)
Intrauterine death


Answer: Rh incompatibility


95.


Which hormone is helpful in the growth of ovarian follicles?
(A)
FSH
(B)
LH
(C)
Estrogen
(D)
Progesterone


Answer: FSH


96.


Gravida denotes?
(A)
Pregnant state
(B)
Previous pregnancy
(C)
Pregnancy at the stage of 30 and above
(D)
Pregnancy at the stage of 20 and above


Answer: Pregnant state


97.

The wounded victim is unable to walk, respiratory rate is absent but when airway is
repositioned breathing is noted. The wounded victim is assigned what tag colour?




(A)
Green
(B)
Red
(C)
Yellow
(D)
Black


Answer: Red


98.


The wounded victim is unable to walk, respiratory rate is absent and when airway is
repositioned breathing is still absent. The wounded victim is assigned what tag
colour?


(A)
Green
(B)
Red
(C)
Yellow
(D)
Black


Answer: Black


99.

The wounded victim is able to walk and obey commands. The wounded victim is
assigned what tag colour?


(A)
Green
(B)
Red
(C)
Yellow
(D)
Black


Answer: Green


100.


Which of the following action is recommended for the patient with a needle stick
injury?


(A)
Squeeze the finger
(B)
Cut the finger and let out blood
(C)
Wash with soap and water
(D)
Put into mouth to suck the blood
Answer: Wash with soap and water