Andaman Nicobar Group C 2023: A&N Health Department, Nursing Officer, CBT, Slot 6

1.
Which among the following was the work of Sultan Feroz Shah Tughlaq?
(A)
Fautuhat-i-Ferozshahi
(B)
Fatawa-i-Jahandari
(C)
Tarikh-i-Ferozshahi
(D)
Tughlaqnama


Answer: “Fautuhat-i-Ferozshahi”


2.
Which state organises the world’s largest open-air theatre ‘Dhanu Yatra’ festival?
(A)
Gujarat
(B)
Odisha
(C)
West Bengal
(D)
Kerala


Answer: “Odisha”


3.
Common Mormon, which was seen in the news recently, belongs to which species?
(A)
Snake
(B)
Butterfly

(C)
Spider
(D)
Turtle


Correct Answer: “Butterfly”




4.
What is the incorrect statement in the following list?
(A)
Carbon monoxide is the major environmental pollutant
(B)
All pollutants are not waste
(C)
Nitrogen and magnesium can pollute water
(D)
Lichens are affected by Sulphur


Answer: “All pollutants are not waste”


5.
The revolt of 1857 had its beginning in
(A)
Meerut
(B)
Plassey
(C)
Madras
(D)
Bombay

Answer: “Meerut”




6.
Which among the following was the strength of Lok Sabha after India’s first general elections?
(A)
289
(B)
389
(C)
489
(D)
500


Answer: “489”


7.
Which of the following is a correct sequence of sea ports of India from “South to North”?
(A)
Cochin – Thiruvananthapuram – Calicut – Mangalore
(B)
Calicut – Thiruvananthapuram – Cochin – Mangalore
(C)
Thiruvananthapuram – Cochin – Calicut – Mangalore
(D)
Thiruvananthapuram – Calicut – Mangalore – Cochin


Answer: “Thiruvananthapuram – Cochin – Calicut – Mangalore”


8.
Which country has developed ‘CoVarScan’ rapid test that can accurately detect all current variants of
SARS-CoV-2?

(A)
India
(B)
USA
(C)
China
(D)
Israel


Answer: “USA”


9.
Which country detected the Interstellar meteors IM1 and IM2?
(A)
China
(B)
Russia
(C)
USA
(D)
Israel


Answer: “USA”


10.
Olympic champion Neeraj Chopra won which medal in the 2022 World Athletics Championships?


(A)
Gold
(B)
Silver

(C)
Bronze
(D)
Copper


Answer: “Silver”




11.
Linear momentum can be described in which of the following units?
(A)
kgm2/s2
(B)
kg/ms2
(C)
kg/ms
(D)
kgm/s


Answer: “kgm/s”


12.
What is the S.I. unit for Luminous Intensity?
(A)
mole
(B)
ampere
(C)
candela
(D)
weber

Answer: “candela”


13.
Light year is a unit of which of these following?
(A)
distance
(B)
time
(C)
pressure
(D)
power


Answer: “distance”


14.
Consider the following:
1.      Atomic number
2.      Atomic mass
3.      Number of protons
4.      Number of neutrons
Which among the above is / are same for each of C-12, C-13 and C-14?


(A)
1&3
(B)
2&4
(C)
2&3
(D)
1&4

Answer: “1 & 3”


15.
As per the Mohs scale of mineral hardness, which of the following are soft metals?
1.      Gold
2.      Copper
3.      Diamond
4.      Thorium
Select the correct option from codes given below:


(A)
1 & 4 Only
(B)
1, 2 & 4 Only
(C)
2 & 4 Only
(D)
1, 2, 3 & 4


Answer: “1, 2 & 4 Only”


16.
Which of the following are used as chemical agents in war?
1.      Mustard Gas
2.      Phosgene
3.      Sarin
4.      VX
Select the correct option from codes given below:


(A)
1 & 3 Only
(B)

1, 3 & 4 Only
(C)
2 & 4 Only
(D)
1, 2, 3 & 4


Answer: “1, 2, 3 & 4”


17
Which of the following is the largest gland of the human body?
(A)
Gastric glands
(B)
Pancreas
(C)
Liver
(D)
Salivary Glands


Answer: “Liver”


18
Which of the following mode of nutrition is found in fungi?
(A)
Autotrophic Nutrition
(B)
Saprotrophic Nutrition
(C)
Holozoic Nutrition
(D)
Heterotrophic Nutrition

Answer: “Saprotrophic Nutrition”




19
The instrument used to measure the blood pressure is -
(A)
Sphygmomanometer
(B)
Barometer
(C)
Photometer
(D)
Manometer


Answer: “Sphygmomanometer”


20
The normal range of blood pressure in a human being is -
(A)
120/80 mm Hg
(B)
120/90 mm Hg
(C)
160/80 mm Hg
(D)
130/80 mm Hg


Answer: “120/80 mm Hg”


21.
The secondary response of the antibodies against the same antigen is termed as?
a.

Anamnestic response
b.
Allergy
c.
Anaphylactic reaction
d.
Immune response


Answer: “Immune response”


22.
Xanthoma refers to?
a.
Dry mouth
b.
Dryness of conjunctiva
c.
Yellowish plaques that occur most commonly near the inner canthus
d.
Fatty growth develop underneath the skin


Answer: “Fatty growth develop underneath the skin”

23.
A 32 years old patient is admitted to burns unit with burn injury to anterior, posterior chest and
abdomen. Which of the following assessment is most important for this client in first 48 hours?

a.
Frequent assessment of pain

b.
Hourly urine output measurement

c.
Hourly BP measurement

d.
Assessment of skin color and capillary refill

Answer: “Hourly urine output measurement”


24.

If the incisional area of an abdominal surgery is weak, what is possible to happen when abdominal
muscles contract and increases intraabdominal pressure?

a.
Evisceratinn

b.
Dehiscence

c.
Laceration

d.
Shearing

Answer: “Dehiscence”


25.

Which of the following is a substance that decreases pain transmission and causes an inflammatory
response?

a.
substance P

b.
Endorphin

c.
Prostaglandin

d.
Histamine

Answer: “Endorphin”

26.

Which of the following is NOT a plasma-derived chemical mediators?

a.
Cytokines

b.
Complement components

c.
Kinins

d.
Coagulation proteins

Answer: “Cytokines”

27.

Which of the following can lead to greenish discolouration of the amniotic fluid –

a.
Lanugo

b.
Hyframnios

c.
Meconium

d.
Vernix

Answer: “Meconium”


28.

Physiological anaemia during pregnancy is a result of –

a.

Increased blood volume

b.
Decreased dietary intake

c.
Decreased erythropoiesis after first trimester

d.
Increased detoxification demands on mother's liver

Answer: “Increased blood volume”




29.

Fever, headache and nuchal rigidity are classic symptoms seen in-

a.
Parkinson disease

b.
Alzheimer’s disease

c.
Brain abscess

d.
Meningitis

Answer: “Meningitis”

30.

Which of the following is most important to prevent the progress of disease in thrombo-angitis
obliterans (Buerager's disease) –

a.
Controlling blood pressure

b.
Controlling diabetes

c.
Weight reduction

d.
Smoking cessation

Answer: “Smoking cessation”

31.

A patient is scheduled for a IVP using a radio opaque dye, which of the following assessment is most
critical before the procedure-

a.
History of intake and output

b.
Measurement of baseline peripheral pulse rate

c.
Measurement of heights and weight

d.
History of allergy of iodine

Answer: “History of allergy of iodine”


32.

Which of the following method of intracranial pressure monitoring provides most accurate results-

a.
Epidural cathester

b.
Intraventricula catheter

c.
Subarachnoid cathester

d.
Intravertebral cathester

Answer: “Subarachnoid cathester”

33.

During head injury what is the cause of increase in body temperature-

a.
Pons injury

b.
Hypothalamus injury

c.
Cerebellum injury

d.
Medulla injury

Answer: “Hypothalamus injury”


34.

During Lumbar puncture which position is given to a patient-

a.
Supine position

b.
Side-lying 'C'

c.
Lithotomy position

d.
Fowler's position

Answer: “Side-lying 'C'”

35.

Which position is used for insertion of gavage tube-

a.

Trendelenburg position

b.
Supine position

c.
Mid-Fowler's position

d.
High-Fowler's position

Answer: “Supine position”


36.

Plasmodium divides by which of the following method most commonly?

a.
Regeneration

b.
Budding

c.
Binary fission

d.
Multiple fission

Answer: “Multiple fission”


37.

Which of the following inhibits DNA replication?

a.
x-rays

b.
gamma rays

c.

UV light

d.
cathode rays

Answer: “cathode rays”


38.

Turner`s sign is ?

a.
Redness of skin

b.
Bluish discoloration of flanks

c.
Bluish discoloration of Periumbilical area

d.
Flapping of fingers

Answer: “Bluish discoloration of flanks”


39.

Goitre occurs due to

a.
Iodine deficiency

b.
gulcocorticocoids excess

c.
Deficiency of Vit C

d.
Excess of iodine

Answer: “Iodine deficiency”

40.

What names are given to the three different depths of burns?

a.
Small, medium and large.

b.
First, second and third degree.

c.
Minor, medium and severe.

d.
Superficial, partial thickness, full thickness.

Answer: “Superficial, partial thickness, full thickness.”


41.

When transferring a patient from a bed to a chair, the nurse should use which muscle to avoid back
injury?

a.

Abdominal muscles

b.

Back muscles

c.

Upper arm muscles

d.

Leg muscles

Answer: “Leg muscles”

42.

To institute appropriate isolation precautions, the nurse first must know the,

a.
Organism’s mode of transmission

b.
Organism’s gram staining characteristics

c.
Organism’s susceptibility to antibiotics

d.
Patient’s susceptibility to the organism

Answer: “Organism’s mode of transmission”


43.

A client has a pressure ulcer with a shallow, partial skin thickness, eroded areas but no necrotic areas.
The nurse would treat the areas with which dressing?

a.
Alginate

b.
Dry gauze

c.
Hydrocolloid

d.
No dressing is indicated.

Answer: “Hydrocolloid”


44.

Answerable to oneself and others for one’s own action is referred as

a.
Accountability

b.
Responsibility

c.
Justice

d.
Veracity

Answer: “Accountability”

45.

Which one of the following statement is false about donning sterile gloves

a.
The first glove should be picked up by grasping the inside of the cuff

b.
The second glove should be picked up by inserting the gloved fingers under the cuff, outside the glove

c.
The inside of the glove is considered sterile

d.
The gloves should be adjusted by sliding the gloved fingers under the sterile cuff and pulling the glove
over the wrist.

Answer: “The inside of the glove is considered sterile”


46.

A new nursing graduate’s first job requires 12 hour night shifts. Which strategy will make it easier for the
graduate to sleep during the day and remain awake at night?

a.
Wear dark wrap a rounded sunglasses when driving home in the morning and sleep in a darkened
bedroom.

b.

Exercise on the day time

c.
Drink several cups of strong coffee when beginning the shift

d.
Try to stay in a brightly lit area when working at night

Answer: “Wear dark wrap a rounded sunglasses when driving home in the morning and sleep in a
darkened bedroom.”

47.

Which one of the following measures are not recommended to prevent pressure ulcer

a.
Using a water or air mattress

b.
Adhering to a schedule for positioning and turning

c.
Massaging over the bony prominences

d.
Providing meticulous skin care.

Answer: “Massaging over the bony prominences”

48.

The client’s post operative orders state “diet tolerated”. The client has been NPO. The nurse will advance
the client’s diet to clear liquids based on which assessment?

a.
Pain level is maintained at a rating of 2-3 out of 10

b.
Ambulates with minimal assistance

c.
Expresses feeling “hungry”

d.

States passing flatus

Answer: “States passing flatus”

49.

Nursing students have been assigned to develop their own theory of nursing. Which of the following
would they in their theory, often referred to as the meta paradigm nursing?

a.
Society, medicine, nursing and biology

b.
Client, environment, health and nursing

c.
Patient, facility, health and nursing

d.
Organization, medicine, nursing and client

Answer: “Client, environment, health and nursing”

50.

A client woke in the middle of the night, confused and unaware of the surroundings. Although the call
light was within reach the client got out of bed unassisted, tripped on the bedside chair, and fell. Which
of the following elements of malpractice is missing in this incident?

a.
Foreseeability

b.
Damages

c.
Injury

d.
Duties

Answer: “Foreseeability”

51.

Which of the following statement indicates the nurse has the right understanding of the drug Digoxin
while explaining its action to the patient?

a)
Digoxin increases the heart rate of the patient

b)
Digoxin is administered to reduce Blood pressure

c)
Digoxin increases the contractility of the heart muscle

d)
It increases the coronary artery blood flow

Answer: “Digoxin increases the contractility of the heart muscle”

52.

Which of the following drug is commonly administered for a patient with supraventricular tachycardia
which also has a short half-life

a)
Metoprolol

b)
Adenosine

c)
Captopril

d)
Amiodarone

Answer: “Adenosine”

53.

The common antiseptic agent used in burn wounds and active against pseudomonas is

a)
Zinc salts

b)
Silver sulfadiazine

c)
Savlon

d)
Mercury compounds

Answer: “Silver sulfadiazine”

54.

The drug that neutralizes gastric acid secretion in the stomach is

a)
H2 blockers

b)
Proton pump inhibitors

c)
Antacids

d)
Bismuth compounds

Answer: “Antacids”

55.

The frustration-aggression hypothesis;

a.
Was developed by social learning theorist

b.
Assumes that frustration produces aggression

c.
Assume that aggression is basic instinct

d.

Claims that frustration and aggression are both instinctive

Answer: “Assumes that frustration produces aggression”


56.

Psychophysics is the study of:

a.
Depth perception

b.
Perceptual illness

c.
Movement perception

d.
The psychological perception of physical stimuli

Answer: “The psychological perception of physical stimuli”


57.

While giving a passive range of motion exercises to the patient, the nurse finds it resistant to moving the
limb, it is termed as

a)
Increase muscle strength

b)
Spasticity

c)
Clonus

d)
Flaccidity

Answer: “Spasticity”

58.

while caring patient with increased intracranial pressure which of the following classical manifestation
suggest the presence of the crushing triad

a)
Bradycardia, hypertension, bradypnea
b)
Bradycardia, hypotension, bradypnea
c)
Tachycardia, hypotension, eupnoea
d)
Brady cardia, hypertension, tachypnoea

Answer: “Bradycardia, hypertension, bradypnea”

59.

which of the following body fluid is considered as potentially infectious in a health care setting?

a)
Amniotic fluid

b)
saliva

c)
Tears

d)
sweat

Answer: “Amniotic fluid”


60.

Function of tendons is to

a.
Attach muscles to bones

b.
Attach one bone to another joint

c.
Attach one muscle to another muscle

d.
Attach muscle to hinge joints

Answer: “Attach muscles to bones”

61.

The muscle that pumps blood throughout our body is :

a.
Smooth muscle

b.
Cardiac muscle

c.
Flexible muscle

d.
Skeletal muscle

Answer: “Cardiac muscle”

62.

Which muscle helps to move our shoulders ?

a.
Deltoid muscle

b.
Quadriceps

c.
Tendons

d.
Smooth muscle

Answer: “Deltoid muscle”

63.

Which muscles are found on the front of our thighs ?

a.
Quadriceps

b.
Biceps

c.
Pectorals

d.
Deltoids

Answer: “Quadriceps”

64.

Social relationships are concerned with :

a.

the relationships between passengers travelling by the same train

b.

the relationships that exists between pen and ink

c.

the mutual interactions of the individuals

d.

the sense of comradeship

Answer: “the mutual interactions of the individuals”

65.

The nurse is developing outcomes for a client with a histrionic personality disorder. What is the most
appropriate outcome for this client?

a.
Contracts for safety and is free of self-inflicted injury

b.
Participates in impulse control training

c.
Participates in anger management classes

d.
Participates in group without being the centre of attention

Answer: “Participates in group without being the centre of attention”


66.

Participates in group without being the centre of attention

a.
Grandiose and entitled

b.
Submissive and clinging

c.
Impulsive and unstable emotionally

d.
Provocative and seductive

Answer: “Grandiose and entitled”


67.

Thought process characterized by a series of ideas without apparent logical connections is referred to
as?

a.
Loosening of association

b.

Flight of ideas

c.
Confabulation

d.
Tangentiality

Answer: “Loosening of association”


68.

The ability to understand one’s own behaviour and emotion is called?

a.
Judgement

b.
Insight

c.
Intelligence

d.
Personality

Answer: “Insight”


69.

Which of the following child will be admitted in newborn stabilization unit?

a)
Respiration rate >54/min

b)
Newborn with weight of 1790gms

c)
Peripheral Cyanosis

d)

Hypothermia (<35.4-degree C)

Answer: “Newborn with weight of 1790gms”

70.

Tanmay is a 13 years old boy, under WIFS programme. He is supposed to receive which of the following
services?

a)
Administration of supervised bi-weekly iron and folic acid supplements

b)
Screening of target group for STI

c)
Biannual de worming

d)
Nutrition supplements to the child.

Answer: “Biannual de worming”

71.

Under Colombo plan, which of the following activities were planned?

a)
Mid-day meal program

b)
Malaria eradication program

c)
Water supply and drainage scheme

d)
Cobalt Units

Answer: “Cobalt Units”

72.

Kasturba memorial fund is a Voluntary health agency and it provides fund for training. Who among the
following gets benefited?

a)
Gram Pradhan

b)
Local dais

c)
Gram sevikas

d)
Family planning workers

Answer: “Gram sevikas”

73.

Which year International labour Organization was established?

a)
1936

b)
1919

c)
1909

d)
1905

Answer: “1919”

74.

Which of the following is a function of Rockefeller Foundation?

a)
Family Planning Programme

b)
Humanitarian service on behalf of the victims of war

c)
Water supply and drainage scheme

d)
Training abroad of candidates from India through Fellowship

Answer: “Training abroad of candidates from India through Fellowship”


75.

During first International Sanitary conference, International sanitary code was prepared which include
article dealing with all of the following diseases EXCEPT?

a)
Cholera

b)
Plague

c)
 Anthrax

d)
Yellow Fever

Answer: “Anthrax”

76.

Which of the following is NOT a function of USAID?

a)
Malaria Eradication

b)
Help nation to raise living standard

c)
contribution to improve nursing Education

d)
control of communicable disease

Answer: “Help nation to raise living standard”


77.

Which of the following is INCORRECT about CARE (Cooperative for Assistance and Relief Everywhere)?

a)
Founded in year 1940

b)
Focuses on food Support in the ICDS

c)
Began its operation in India in 1950

d)
It helps in Anaemia control project

Answer: “Founded in year 1940”

78.

The central social welfare board was set up in 1953 with the objective of promoting social welfare
activities and implementing welfare programmes. Who does it support?

a)
Women, Children and Handicapped

b)
Only Children

c)
Animals

d)
Only Handicapped

Answer: “Women, Children and Handicapped”

79.

In which year, a World Freedom from Hunger Campaign was organized by Food and Agriculture
Organization?

a)
1960

b)
1965

c)
1970

d)
1971

Answer: “1960”

80.

Under National Programme for Health care of the elderly, where was National Centre of ageing
established?

a)
Madras Medical college, Chennai

b)
Armed forces Medical college, Pune

c)
King George’s Medical University, Lucknow

d)
Guru Govind Singh Indraprastha university, Delhi

Answer: “Madras Medical college, Chennai”

81.

In principles of health education soil refers to

a.
Content
b.
people

c.
audio visual aid

d.
speaker

Answer: “people”

82.

In principles of health education SEED refers to

a.
Health fact

b.
People

c.
Media

d.
Speaker

Answer: “Health fact”

83.

Most of us converse using ___ and ___ in addition to words when we speak.

a.
body language and posture

b.
gestures and body language

c.
words and gestures

d.
posture and eye gazing

Answer: “gestures and body language”

84.

___ refers to pitch, loudness, length, intonation, and tempo.

a.
Haptics

b.
Prosody

c.
Gestures

d.
Touches

Answer: “Prosody”


85.

In ___ main intention is to seek specific information that will be appreciate

a.
Empathetic

b.
Comprehension

c.
Appreciative

d.
Therapeutic

Answer: “Therapeutic”


86.

Dialogic listening is also known as ___.

a.

Therapeutic

b.
Appreciative

c.
Relational

d.
Evaluative

Answer: “Appreciative”


87.

Cleanliness, physical exercise, rest and sleep are a part of ________.

a.
Hygiene

b.
Social hygiene
c.
Personal hygiene

d.
External

Answer: “Personal hygiene”


88.

Blush colouration vaginal mucosa is called as

a.
Jacquemier’s sign

b.
Hegar sign

c.
Palmer sign

d.
Goodell’s sign

Answer: “Jacquemier’s sign”


89.

A 38th-week primigravida mother reported to the duty nurse a sense of relief from the pressure on the
abdomen and a frequency of micturition. What would be the reply to the mother by the nurse?

a.
It’s due to lightening
b.
Increased amniotic fluid volume
c.
Fibroid uterus
d.
Foetal movements

Answer: “It’s due to lightening”

90.
A recently married woman visited antenatal OPD with complaints of amenorrhoea in the past 2 months.
History revealed that her menstrual cycle was regular. What would be the first action by the
obstetrician?
a.
Collection of a urine sample
b.
Calculating the expected date of delivery
c.
Prescribing iron tablets
d.
Ask her to eat iron-rich food items

Answer: “Collection of a urine sample”

91.
A 6 weeks primigravida mother’s speculum examination the nurse notices the bluish discoloration of the
cervix. She understood that it was due to

a.
Copious mucous discharge

b.
Increase vascularity
c.
The vaginal walls become softened
d.
Upper part of the body was enlarged

Answer: “Increase vascularity”

92.
Palmer sign is
a.
A regular and rhythmic uterine contraction elicited by bimanual examination
b.
Firm cervix
c.
Uterus becomes globular shape
d.
Bluish discolouration of the vagina

Answer: “A regular and rhythmic uterine contraction elicited by bimanual examination”




93.
Confirmation of pregnancy by detecting HCG test in maternal serum or urine not reliable after

a.
4 weeks
b.
6 weeks
c.
12 weeks
d.
10 weeks

Answer: “12 weeks”

94.
The perception of active foetal movements by the antenatal woman is labelled as
a.
Lightening
b.
Braxton hick’s contractions

c.
Quickening
d.
Onset of labour pain

Answer: “Quickening”

95.
The obstetrician can estimate the foetal weight during sonography by using this formula
a.
Shepard’s formula
b.
Naggle’s formula
c.
Burn’s formula
d.
Cooper’s formula

Answer: “Shepard’s formula”

96.

A hospital attached to medical college, primarily meant for teaching and research and the provision of
health care services are considered secondary is -------------------


a.
General hospital

b.
Specialized hospital

c.
Isolation hospital

d.
Teaching cum research hospital

Answer: “Teaching cum research hospital”




97.

The tapping with fingers to elicit sounds to indicate underlying tissues are solid or filled with fluid is -------
-------------------technique

a.
Inspection

b.
Palpation

c.
Percussion

d.
Auscultation

Answer: “Percussion”

98.

“Nurses should make all efforts to promote the patient’s rights to make her own decision”. This is
explained by ----------------principle.

a.
Confidentiality

b.
Autonomy

c.
Protection from harm

d.
Professional development

Answer: “Autonomy”

99.

All of the following are potential sources of catheter-related bloodstream infection, except?

a)
Contaminated infusate

b)

Scrubbing the port with an alcohol swab

c)
Infected healthcare worker

d)
Contaminated device

Answer: “Scrubbing the port with an alcohol swab”

100.

Which of the following is not a recommended strategy for the prevention of catheter-related
bloodstream infection?

a)
Replace catheter site dressing if the dressing becomes damp

b)
Replace catheter site dressing daily

c)
Prepare clean skin with a >0.5% chlorhexidine preparation

d)
Avoid using the femoral vein for central venous access

Answer: “Replace catheter site dressing daily”