Andaman Nicobar Group C 2023: A&N Health Department, Nursing Officer, CBT, Slot 7

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1. Which of the following school of Hindu philosophy asserts that Moksha is gained through right knowledge? (A) Yoga (B) Samkhya (C) Mimansa (D) Nyaya Answer: D (Nyaya) 2. ‘Kumarakom and Beypore’, which were selected under the Swadesh Darshan 2.0 Scheme, are located in which state? (A) Tamil Nadu (B) Kerala (C) Rajasthan (D) Haryana Answer: B (Kerala) 3.

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What is the expansion of ‘V-CIP’, which was seen in the news related to banking? (A) Venture Capital Identification Process (B) Video based Customer identification process (C) Voice based Customer identification process (D) Venture Capital Investment Process Answer: B (Video based Customer identification process) 4. Which pollution causes photochemical smog (A) Soil (B) Water (C) Air (D)

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Noise Answer: C (Air) 5. Who said that Indian National Congress is a ‘begging institute’? (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Bipin Chandra Pal (C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (D) Aurobindo Ghosh Answer: D (Aurobindo Ghosh) 6. Which Act of British Parliament took away the exclusive right of the company to trade in India? (A)

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Regulating Act of 1773 (B) Pitt’s India Act of 1784 (C) Charter Act of 1813 (D) Charter Act of 1833 Answer: C (Charter Act of 1813) 7. Bring out the incorrectly matched pair? (A) Baira Siul Project : Himachal Pradesh (B) Solal Project – Jammu & Kashmir (C) Tanakur Project – Uttar Pradesh (D) Koel Karo Project – Bihar Answer: D (Koel Karo Project – Bihar) 8. Which institution launched the ‘AI4Bharat’ initiative to build open-source language AI for Indian languages? (A) IIT Bombay

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(B) IIT Madras (C) Iisc Bengaluru (D) IIT Kanpur Answer: B (IIT Madras) 9. Rht13, which was seen in the news, is a semi-dwarf gene of which crop? (A) Rice (B) Wheat (C) Cotton (D) Jute Answer: B (Wheat) 10. Arjun Erigaisi, who was seen in the news, is associated with which sports? (A) Tennis (B)

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Chess (C) Squash (D) Basket Ball Answer: B (Chess) 11. A light year is a measure of__? (A) Speed (B) Velocity (C) Distance (D) Time Answer: C (Distance) 12. A bottle of sodalime, when grasped by neck and swung briskly in vertical circle, the bubbles will collect at __: (A) Near the bottom

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(B) In the middle of the bottom (C) Near the neck (D) Distributed uniformly Answer: C (Near the neck) 13. The moment of inertia of a body does not depend upon which of the following? (A) Axis of rotation (B) Angular velocity (C) Form of mass (D) Distribution of mass Answer: B (angular velocity) 14. Which of the following is an aluminium ore? (A) Bauxite (B)

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Dolomite (C) Calamine (D) Haematite Answer: A (Bauxite) 15. Which of the following is the maximum number of electrons that can be present in M- shell? (A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 18 (D) 32 Answer: C (18) 16. What is the valency of magnesium? (A) 1

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(B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Answer: B (2) 17. Which of the following is the strongest chamber of the human heart? (A) Left ventricle (B) Left atrium (C) Right ventricle (D) Right atrium Answer: (A) Left Ventricle 18 What happens when the ph in the blood reduces? (A)

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Blood supply to the brain reduces (B) Affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen decreases (C) Rate of heartbeat reduces (D) Rate of heartbeat increases Answer: (B) Affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen decreases 19 Which of the pair of an organ is meant for respiration in humans? (A) Kidney (B) Lung (C) Hand (D) Eye Answer: (B) Lung 20 Is it true that Herbivores have a longer small intestine than a carnivore? (A) False (B) True

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(C)
Can't say
(D)
May be
Answer: (B) True
SECTION B
21.
The main goal of treatment for acute glomerulonephritis is to:
(A)
Encourage activity.
(B)
Encourage high protein intake.
(C)
Maintain fluid balance.
(D)
Teach intermittent urinary catheterization.
Answer: Maintain fluid balance.
22.
The most common, preventable complication of abdominal surgery is:
(A)
Atelectasis
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(B) Fluid and electrolyte imbalance. (C) Thrombophlebitis (D) Urinary retention. Answer: Atelectasis 23. To prepare a patient on the unit for a bronchoscopic procedure, the medical-surgical nurse administers the IV sedative. The nurse then instructs the licensed practical/vocational nurse to: (A) Educate the patient about the pending procedure. (B) Give the patient small sips of water only. (C) Measure the patient's blood pressure and pulse readings. (D) Take the patient to the bathroom one more time. Answer: Measure the patient's blood pressure and pulse readings. 24.

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Which action best describes a sentinel event alert? (A) Documenting the breakdown in communication during a shift report. (B) Indicating that a community or institution is unsafe. (C) Recording the harm done when a medication error occurs. (D) Signaling the need for immediate investigation and response. Answer: Signaling the need for immediate investigation and response. 25. A nursing department in an acute care setting decides to redesign its nursing practice based on a theoretical framework. The feedback from patients, families, and staff reflects that caring is a key element. Which theorist best supports this concept? (A) Erikson (B) Maslow (C) Rogers (D) Watson

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Answer: Watson 26. Minimum & Maximum score of GCS are: (A) 8-9 (B) 8-12 (C) 12-13 (D) 3-15 Answer: 3-15 27. Nurse Linda was monitoring a 35-year-old male patient who was receiving blood transfusion. On assessment, the nurse found that the respiratory rate is 24 and Blood Pressure is 90/60. Which of the following is the priority action by the nurse? (A) Slow the infusion rate (B) Immediately flush IV line with normal saline (C) Immediately stop the transfusion

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(D) Notify the doctor Answer: Immediately stop the transfusion 28. A client admitted in the coronary care unit (CCU) has developed atrial fibrillation. The ventricular rate is at 155 beats per minute. The nurse should assess the client for: (A) Flat neck veins (B) Hypertension and headache (C) Nausea and vomiting (D) Hypotension and dizziness Answer: Hypotension and dizziness 29. The doctor orders cardiac catheterization for a client admitted in the CCU. The procedure will involve the use of a radiopaque dye. The nurse is aware that the most important part of the pre-procedure assessment is checking: (A) Allergy to iodine or shellfish

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(B) Height and weight (C) Baseline peripheral pulse rates (D) Intake and output Answer: Allergy to iodine or shellfish 30. Which solution is used for maintaing patency of intestinal tube- (A) Hypotonic saline (B) Hypertonic saline (C) Normal saline (D) Sterile water Answer: Normal saline 31.

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The secondary response of the antibodies against the same antigen is termed as? (A) Anamnestic response (B) Allergy (C) Anaphylactic reaction (D) Immune response Answer: Immune response 32. Xanthoma refers to? (A) Dry mouth (B) Dryness of conjunctiva (C) Yellowish plaques that occur most commonly near the inner canthus (D) Fatty growth develop underneath the skin Answer: Fatty growth develop underneath the skin

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33. A 32 year old patient is admitted to burns unit with burn injury to anterior, posterior chest and abdomen. Which of the following assessment is most important for this client in first 48 hours? (A) Frequent assessment of pain (B) Hourly urine output measurement (C) Hourly BP measurement (D) Assessment of skin color and capillary refill Answer: Hourly urine output measurement 34. If the incisional area of an abdominal surgery is weak, what is possible to happen when abdominal muscles contract and increases intraabdominal pressure? (A) Evisceratinn (B) Dehiscence (C) Laceration

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(D) Shearing Answer: Dehiscence 35. Which of the following is a substance that decreases pain transmission and causes an inflammatory response? (A) Substance P (B) Endorphin (C) Prostaglandin (D) Histamine Answer: Endorphin 36. Bacteria having clusters of flagella at both poles of cells are known as? (A) Amphitrichous (B)

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Monotrichous (C) Peritrichous (D) Lophotrichous Answer: Amphitrichous 37. What are the cell wall structural components of fungi? (A) Peptidoglycan (B) Cellulose (C) Chitin (D) Chitin, cellulose, or hemicellulose Answer: Chitin, cellulose, or hemicellulose 38. Posthitis is (A)

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Inflammation of penis (B) Inflammation of testes (C) Inflammation of scrotum (D) Inflammation of foreskin Answer: Inflammation of foreskin 39. Element helpful in blood coagulation (A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) Calcium (D) Chloride Answer: Calcium 40.

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A person is allergic for peanut butter an is going into anaphylactic shock. What do you do next? (A) Have them sit with their head between her knees and have them breathe deeply (B) Give them some water to cool the throat (C) Give them some aspirin immediately (D) Give them some sweet drinks Answer: Give them some aspirin immediately 41. When transferring a patient from a bed to a chair, the nurse should use which muscle to avoid back injury? (A) Abdominal muscles (B) Back muscles (C) Upper arm muscles (D) Leg muscles

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Answer: Leg muscles 42. To institute appropriate isolation precautions, the nurse first must know the, (A) Organism’s mode of transmission (B) Organism’s gram staining characteristics (C) Organism’s susceptibility to antibiotics (D) Patient’s susceptibility to the organism Answer: Organism’s mode of transmission 43. A client has a pressure ulcer with a shallow, partial skin thickness, eroded areas but no necrotic areas. The nurse would treat the areas with which dressing? (A) Alginate (B) Dry gauze (C)

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Hydrocolloid (D) No dressing is indicated. Answer: Hydrocolloid 44. Answerable to oneself and others for one’s own action is referred as (A) Accountability (B) Responsibility (C) Justice (D) Veracity Answer: Accountability 45.

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Which one of the following statement is false about donning sterile gloves (A) The first glove should be picked up by grasping the inside of the cuff (B) The second glove should be picked up by inserting the gloved fingers under the cuff, outside the glove (C) The inside of the glove is considered sterile (D) The gloves should be adjusted by sliding the gloved fingers under the sterile cuff and pulling the glove over the wrist. Answer: The inside of the glove is considered sterile 46. A new nursing graduate’s first job requires 12 hour night shifts. Which strategy will make it easier for the graduate to sleep during the day and remain awake at night? (A) Wear dark wrap a rounded sunglasses when driving home in the morning and sleep in a darkened bedroom. (B) Exercise on the day time (C) Drink several cups of strong coffee when beginning the shift (D) Try to stay in a brightly lit area when working at night

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Answer: Wear dark wrap a rounded sunglasses when driving home in the morning and sleep in a darkened bedroom. 47. Which one of the following measures are not recommended to prevent pressure ulcer (A) Using a water or air mattress (B) Adhering to a schedule for positioning and turning (C) Massaging over the bony prominences (D) Providing meticulous skin care. Answer: Massaging over the bony prominences 48. The client’s post operative orders state “diet tolerated”. The client has been NPO. The nurse will advance the client’s diet to clear liquids based on which assessment? (A) Pain level is maintained at a rating of 2-3 out of 10 (B) Ambulates with minimal assistance

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(C) Expresses feeling “hungry” (D) States passing flatus Answer: States passing flatus 49. Nursing students have been assigned to develop their own theory of nursing. Which of the following would they in their theory, often referred to as the meta paradigm nursing? (A) Society, medicine, nursing and biology (B) Client, environment, health and nursing (C) Patient, facility, health and nursing (D) Organization, medicine, nursing and client Answer: Client, environment, health and nursing 50. A client woke in the middle of the night, confused and unaware of the surroundings. Although the call light was within reach the client got out of bed unassisted, tripped

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on the bedside chair, and fell. Which of the following elements of malpractice is missing in this incident? (A) Forseeability (B) Damages (C) Injury (D) Duties Answer: Forseeability 51. Which of the following statement indicates the nurse has the right understanding of the drug Digoxin while explaining its action to the patient? (A) Digoxin increases the heart rate of the patient (B) Digoxin is administered to reduce Blood pressure (C) Digoxin increases the contractility of the heart muscle (D) It increases the coronary artery blood flow

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Answer: Digoxin increases the contractility of the heart muscle 52. Which of the following drug is commonly administered for a patient with supraventricular tachycardia which also has a short half-life (A) Metoprolol (B) Adenosine (C) Captopril (D) Amiodarone Answer: Adenosine 53. The common antiseptic agent used in burn wounds and active against pseudomonas is (A) Zinc salts (B) Silver sulfadiazine (C)

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Savlon (D) Mercury compounds Answer: Silver sulfadiazine 54. The drug that neutralizes gastric acid secretion in the stomach is (A) H2 blockers (B) Proton pump inhibitors (C) Antacids (D) Bismuth compounds Answer: Antacids 55. The frustration-aggression hypothesis; (A) Was developed by social learning theorist

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(B) Assumes that frustration produces aggression (C) Assume that aggression is basic instinct (D) Claims that frustration and aggression are both instinctive Answer: Assumes that frustration produces aggression 56. Psychophysics is the study of: (A) Depth perception (B) Perceptual illness (C) Movement perception (D) The psychological perception oh physical stimuli Answer: The psychological perception oh physical stimuli 57. In patient with AV Fistula which of the following nursing action is right

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(A) Encourage him not to perform exercises in fistulated arm (B) Taking blood samples in fistulated arm (C) Monitors Intake and output chart (D) Check BP in non fistulated arm Answer: Check BP in non fistulated arm 58. While administering IV Nitroglycerine the nurse must (A) Administer fluids to the patient (B) Check serum electrolytes (C) Monitor blood pressure of the patient (D) Monitor for arrhythmias Answer: Monitor blood pressure of the patient

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59. 1% sodium hypochlorite is used for disinfection of which of the following element? (A) Surface cleaning (B) Toilet cleaning (C) Blood-stained linen (D) Endoscopes Answer: Blood-stained linen 60. Type A blood can receive donations from (A) A and B (B) B and AB (C)

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O and AB (D) A and O Answer: A and O 61. What divides the Right side of the heart from the left side? (A) Septum (B) Atrium (C) Ventricles (D) Wall Answer: Septum 62.

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The heart has how many chambers? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Answer: 4 63. The role of the lacrimal glands is to - (A) Produce mucous to protect the throat (B) Produce tears to protect the eyes

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(C) Produce mucous to protect the nose (D) Produce salvia to protect the mouth Answer: Produce tears to protect the eyes 64. A group of people organised for a particular purpose is known as: (A) Community (B) Association (C) Society (D) Institution

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Answer: Association 65. One among the following is NOT a general principle of mental health nursing. (A) Being non-judgemental (B) Use of self understanding (C) Objective observation of patient (D) Maintaining unrealistic nurse patient relationship Answer: Maintaining unrealistic nurse patient relationship 66. --------------------------is a turning point in an individual life that produces an overwhelming emotional response.

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(A) Stress (B) Crisis (C) Adaptation (D) Mal adaptation Answer: Crisis 67. The theory which primarily focuses on the nurse patient relationship is (A) Orem’s self care theory (B) Paplau’s IPR theory (C)

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Roy’s adaptation theory (D) Rogers theory of human development Answer: Paplau’s IPR theory 68. A standard method of measuring the patients level of consciousness is ------------------ (A) APGAR Score (B) MMSE score (C) Glasgow Coma scale (D) Conscious scale Answer: Glasgow Coma scale 69.

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Government of India has initiated mandatory rules for broadcasting cessation of tobacco use advertisement before every movie telecasted in television. The type of audio visual aid used for this advertisement is? (A) Auditory AIDS (B) Combined A-V Aids (C) Visual AIDS (D) Multidimensional Aids Answer: Combined A-V Aids 70. Five qualified persons are discussing on “Technology impact on Health care” in front of 150 audiences in an auditorium. This is an example of which method of Health education? (A) Conference (B)

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Symposium (C) Seminar (D) Panel Discussion Answer: Panel Discussion 71. In Motipur village, in the year 2018 total live birth was 176, Still birth was 20, Midyear population of the village is 7500, calculate Birth rate of the stated Village? (A) 2.34 (B) 23.4 (C) 26.1 (D)

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2.61 Answer: 23.4 72. Who among the following can adopt a girl under “Hindu Child Adoption Act”? (A) Ms. Varsha a 24 years old female who is unmarried (B) Ms. Kashi a 27 years old woman married for 3 year and has 1 year old girl. (C) Mr. Sudhir 20-year-old unmarried man. (D) Mrs. Rani 26 years old married without consent of husband Answer: Ms. Varsha a 24 years old female who is unmarried 73. In which year Pre conceptional pre-natal diagnosis Test act was enacted? (A)

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1994 (B) 1996 (C) 2003 (D) 2006 Answer: 1994 74. Under National Malaria Control program, which is the primary method for vector control in rural area? (A) Indoor residual spray. (B) Insecticide treated bed nets (C)

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Anti-larval measures (D) Case management Answer: Indoor residual spray. 75. Mr. Kalia is diagnosed to have Kala azar and is undergoing treatment in district hospital. How much incentive he should receive under revised strategy of total eradication of Kala Azar? (A) Rs. 300 as daily wages for time spent in hospital (B) Rs. 500 as daily wages for time spent in hospital (C) Rs.2000 as lump sum (D) Rs. 200/ day till completion of treatment Answer: Rs. 500 as daily wages for time spent in hospital

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76. Which of the following demonstrates Intersectoral linkages? (A) Two-way referral system (B) Team approach (C) Endorsement done by a midwife to another midwife (D) Cooperation between the Nurse and public-school teacher Answer: Cooperation between the Nurse and public-school teacher 77. As a community health nurse, you are conducting a mass health education programme on Reduction of solid waste disposal. The most important concept of your education should be? (A) Recycling

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(B) More timber (C) Lesser pollution (D) Population control Answer: Recycling 78. Which of the following example best describe long-term goal of family health? (A) People in the community will acquire adequate knowledge regarding the cause, spread and prevention of Poliomyelitis within a month (B) Mother will acquire adequate knowledge regarding the cause, spread, treatment and prevention of diarrhoea within 2 hours. (C) Group of people acquire adequate skill to use Proposal protective equipment within 2 days.

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(D) Group of mothers learn hand washing technique with in one day. Answer: Group of mothers learn hand washing technique with in one day. 79. Mrs. Janaki is posted in sub centre. Which of the following Indicator will help her to assess MCH care in her area? (A) Maternal mortality ratio (B) Infant Mortality rate (C) Total fertility rate (D) Under 5 mortality rate Answer: Maternal mortality ratio 80. You are conducting a survey in your village. Whom do you include in “Target

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Couple”? (A) Couples who have 1-2 living children (B) Couples who have 2-3 living children (C) Married couple wherein the wife is in the age between "15 and 45" (D) Reproductive age group of male and female Answer: Couples who have 2-3 living children 81. The central health education bureau consists of all except (A) Training (B) Media research

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(C) Auditing (D) Evaluation Answer: Auditing 82. School health education division was established in (A) 1952 (B) 1953 (C) 1954 (D) 1958 Answer: 1958

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83. What connects the sender to the receiver? (A) Channel (B) Communication (C) Noise (D) Feedback Answer: Channel 84. The ___ in the usage of words may be a severe barrier to effective communication. (A) Disturbance (B) Discrimination (C) Disorder (D) Distortion

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Answer: Distortion 85. Most of us converse using ___ and ___ in addition to words when we speak. (A) Body language and posture (B) Gestures and body language (C) Words and gestures (D) Posture and eye gazing Answer: Gestures and body language 86. ___ refers to pitch, loudness, length, intonation, and tempo. (A) Haptics (B) Prosody (C) Gestures (D)

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Touches Answer: Prosody 87. Which of the following diseases is also called as “Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi”? (A) Typhoid (B) Malaria (C) Diarrhea (D) Yellow fever Answer: Typhoid 88. Sixteen years old primi gravid patient admitted with severe pregnancy-induced hypertension is given intravenous magnesium sulphate. The nurse should obtain which one of the following information? (A) Urinary output every 8 hours

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(B) Deep tendon reflexes every 4 hours (C) Respiratory rate every hour (D) Blood pressure every 6 hours Answer: Respiratory rate every hour 89. Twenty-five-year-old lactating woman presented with fever, acute breast pain, and swelling. Which one of the following organisms causes this acute breast problem? (A) Steptococcus (B) Staphylococcus (C) Enterococcus (D) Pneumococcus Answer: Staphylococcus 90.

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Nurse is about to catheterize the bladder of a pregnant lady. She should be aware that all the following facts about the female urethra are true except? (A) It is about 1.5 inches in length (B) It's posterior to the vaginal orifice (C) It pierces through the urogenital diaphragm (D) It is straight and offers minor resistance for catheterization Answer: It is straight and offers minor resistance for catheterization 91. Premature separation of a normally implanted placenta during the second half of pregnancy usually with severe hemorrhage is known as? (A) Placenta previa (B) Ectopic pregnancy (C) Incompetent cervix (D) Abruptio placentae

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Answer: Abruptio placentae 92. Purple-blue tinge of the cervix is? (A) Braxton-Hicks signs (B) Chadwick's sign (C) Goodell's sign (D) Mcdonald's sign Answer: Chadwick's sign 93. Which of the following can lead to a greenish discoloration of the amniotic fluid? (A) Lanugo (B) Hydramnios (C) Meconium

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(D) Vernix Answer: Meconium 94. The embryo/fetus gets its food supply from? (A) Arteries of the mother (B) The uterus (C) The placenta (D) The amniotic sac Answer: The placenta 95. A patient progresses from pre-eclampsia to eclampsia, the nurse's first action should be to? (A) Administer oxygen by face mask

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(B) Clear and maintain an open airway (C) Administer magnesium sulfate intravenously (D) Assess the blood pressure and fetal heart rate Answer: Assess the blood pressure and fetal heart rate 96. What is the primary goal of disaster management in healthcare? (A) To prevent disasters from occurring (B) To minimize the impact of disasters on the healthcare system (C) To provide immediate relief to disaster victims (D) To rebuild and restore the affected healthcare infrastructure Answer: To minimize the impact of disasters on the healthcare system 97. Which of the following is NOT a phase of disaster management?

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(A) Mitigation (B) Response (C) Rehabilitation (D) Evaluation Answer: Evaluation 98. During a disaster, what is the role of a triage nurse? (A) To provide immediate medical treatment to all patients (B) To prioritize patients based on the severity of their injuries (C) To coordinate the evacuation of patients to other healthcare facilities (D) To assess the overall impact of the disaster on the healthcare system Answer: To prioritize patients based on the severity of their injuries

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99. Which of the following strategy is recommended for pre-operative preparation of hair removal before surgical procedure? (A) Using Razor (B) Using scissors (C) Electrical clippers (D) Using creams Answer: Electrical clippers 100. For preoperative skin disinfection prior to minor surgical procedures which of the following antiseptic solution is recommended? (A) 2.0% chlorhexidine in 70% alcohol

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(B) 0.5% chlorhexidine in 70% alcohol solution (C) 2.0% chlorhexidine in 20% alcohol (D) 0.5% chlorhexidine in 20% alcohol solution Answer: 0.5% chlorhexidine in 70% alcohol solution
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Source: Andaman and Nicobar Administration. Question paper published by Andaman and Nicobar Administration.