APSC JE 2024: Junior Engineer, Public Health Engineering Department (Advt. 29/2023), Electrical Engineering

Text of page 1
JEIPHE leElttl24
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Test Booklet No. Series
TEST BOOKLET
01325
Paper-II
( Er,ucrRrcAL EucrrppRrNc )
TlneNlowed:2Hours Full Marks : lOO
Read the followlng lnstructlons care;fullg before gou begln to ansuter tle questlons :
1. The name of the Subject, Roll Number as mentioned in the Admission Certificate, Test Booklet No. and Series
are to be written legibly and correctly in the space provided on the Answer-Sheet with Black/Blue ballpoint pen.
2, Anewer-Sheet wlthout marklng Series as mentioned above ln the space provlded for ln the Answer-Sheet
shall lot be evaluated.
3. All questions carry equal marks.
The Answer-Sheet should be submltted to the Invlgllator.
Drections for giuing the answers: Directions for answering questions have already been issued to the respective
candidates in the 'Instructions for marking in the OMR Answer-Sheet'along with the Admit Card and Specimen
Copy of the OMR Answer-Sheet.
Example :
Suppose the following question is asked :
The capital of Bangladesh is
(A) Chennai
(B) London
(C) Dhaka
(D) Dhubri
You will have four alternatives in the Answer-Sheet for your response corresponding to each question of the
Test Booklet as below :
@@e@
In the above illustration, if your chosen response is alternative (C), i.e., Dhaka, then the same should be
marked on the Answer-Sheet by blackening the relevant circle with a Black/Blue ballpoint pen only as below :
@@c@
The example shown above ls the only correct method of answerlng.
4. Use of eraser, blade, chemical whitener fluid to rectify any response is prohibited.
S. Please ensure that the Test Booklet has the required number of pages (16) and 100 questions immediately after
opening the Booldet. In case of any discrepancy, please report the same to the Invigilator.
6. No candidate shall be admitted to the Examination Hall/Room 20 minutes after the commencement of the
examination.
7. No candidate shall leave the Examination Hall/Room without prior permission of the Supervisor/ Invigilator. No
candidate shall be permitted to hand over his/her Answer-Sheet and leave tJle Examination Hall/Room before
expiry of the full time allotted for each paper.
8. No Mobile Phone, Electronic Communication Device, etc., are allowed to be carried inside the Examination
Hall/Room by the candidates. Any Mobile Phone, Electronic Communication Device, etc., found in possession
of the candidate inside the Examination Hall/Room, even if on off mode, shall be liable for confiscation.
9. No candidate shall have in his/her possession inside the Examination Hall/Room any book, notebook or loose
paper, except his/her Admission Certificate and other connected papers permitted by the Commission.
1O. Complete silence must be observed in the Exarnination Hall/Roorn, No candidate shall copy from the paper of
any otJrer candidate, or permit his/her own paper to be copied, or give, or attempt to give, or obtain, or attempt
to obtain irregular assistance of any kind.
11. This Test Booklet can be carried with you after answering the questions in the prescribed Answer-Sheet.
12. Noncompliance with any of the above instructions will render a candidate liable to penalty as may be
deemed fit.
13. No rough work is to be done on the OMR Answer-Sheet. You can do the rough work on ttre space provided in the
Test Booklet.
N.B. : There wlll be negatlve marking @ O.2S per I (onel nark agelnst each wrong anawer.
ne I No. of Questlons : 1OO
Text of page 2
1. A wire of length I and of circular 5. If two incandescent light bulbs
cross-section of radius r has a of 40 W and 60 W ratings are
resistance of R ohm. Another wire connected in series across the main
of same material and cross- supply, then
sectional radius 2r will have same
(A) the bulbs together consume
resistance R, if the length is
100 w
(A) 2t
(B) together consume
(B) 4t :Tr l"to"
(C) the 60 W bulb glows brighter
(c) ^,
2 (D) the 40 W bulb glows brighter
I
4 6. A network has 4 nodes and 3
independent loops. What is the
number of branches in the
2. Which of the following materials network?
possesses the least resistivity?
(A) 6
(A) Iron
(B) s
(B) Manganin
(c) 7
(C) Copper
(D) 8
(D) Aluminium
7. Superposition theorem can be
3. An electric bulb can be worked from applicable to only
(A) AC supply (A) linear network
(B) DC supply (B) linear bilateral network
(C) battery supply only (C) non-linear network
(D) All of the above (D) bilateral network
4. Which of the following is an active 8. An inductor stores ener5/ in what
element of a circuit? form?
(A) Resistance (A) Electrostatic field
(B) Inductance (B) Electromagnetic lield
(C) Capacitance (C) Magnetic lield
(D) Ideal current source (D) Core
JE/PHE/EElrr/24148-a 2
Text of page 3
9. Kirchhoff's current law at a junction 12. For . ma:rimum power transfer
deals with theorem, the value of maximum
power is
(A) conservation of energr
(A) pmax = ufi l2nu
(B) conservation of charge
(C) consenration of momentum (B) Pmax = Vh l2R,*-
(D) consenration of power
(C) P*o = u& /+nt,
1O. Two heaters, rated at 1 kW, 250 V (D) Pmax = Ufi t+nfl
each, are connected in series across
a 250 V, 50 Hz AC mains. The total
power drawn from the supply would
be
13. The average power in a pure
inductive circuit is
(A) soo w
(A) 0
(B) 1000 w
(B) vr
(c) 2s0 w
(C) Vf cos $ ..
(D) 2000 w
(D) ^,6 w sin q
: 11. Two electric bulbs rated for same
i voltage have powers of 200 W and 14. When a series R-L circuit is
' 1OO W. If their resistances are connected to a voltage source V at
respectively R1 and R2, then f = 0, the current passing through
the inductor L at t = O+ is
(A) Rr =2Rz
(A) v lL
(Bl Rz =2Rr
(B) inlinite
(c) R2=4R1 pl vlR
(D) R1= 4R2 (D) o
JE/PHE/EE Ir/24I48-A lP.T.O.
Text of page 4
15. A passive element in a circuit is one 18. In parallel LC circuit, what will be
which the value of current (in ampere) at
resonance?
(A) supplies enerry
(B) receives enerry (A) O
(C) Both supplies and receives (B) 10
eners/
(D) None of the above (c) 100
(D) Inlinite
16. An ideal voltmeter connected across
the terminals A and B is shown in
the figure below :
l.?
9^ A 19. What is the correct expression for
AAAH form factor of a pure sinusoidal
Constant current
source with --tEl ;4 o signal?
infinite resistance
B (A) Product of Ir-" and -["ru
It will read
(A) 64 v (B) r.rg/rr-"
(B) 4v (c) /r-"//.re
(c) 48 v
(D) None of the above
(D) t2 v
17. When a network is loaded by a 20. For a certain load, the real power is
resistance equal in value to the lOO W and the reactive power is
Norton's resistance, the network IOO VAR. The apparent power is
current is I11. The current through
the load will be (A) lOO VA
(A) rN 14
(B) 120 VA
(B) 2/r.r
(c) IN 12
(c) 141'4 vA
(D) None of the above (D) 250 VA
JE/PHE/EE/fi/2414e-A
Text of page 5
21. Commutation in a DC machine may 25. A separately excited DC generator is
be improved by not used because
(A) reducing the number of turns 6) it is costly
in the armature and segments
of commutator (B) separate DC source is required
for field circuit
(B) increasing the resistance of
brushes (C) voltage drops considerably
(c) neutralizing the reactance with load
voltage by producing a reverse (D) None of the above
e.m.f. in the coil undergoing
commutation
26. The efficiency of a DC generator is
(D) All of the above ma:rimum when its variable loss is
equal to
22. T}:e maximum number of brushes
which may be used in an electrical
(A) the constant loss
machine is equal to (B) half of the constant loss
(A) number of poles in the (c) double of the constant loss
machine
(D) None of the above
(B) 2
(c) 4
(D) Either (A) or (B) 2"'
'3:T:T:ti:';x;1il"ffl:l't:
back e.m.f. (E6) is equal to _ of
23. DC machines are most the'applied voltage.
common.
- (A) 2-pole (A) twice
(B) 4-pole (B) half
(C) 6-po1e (C) one-third
(D) 8-pole (D) None of the above
24, The voltage equation of a DC motor 2g. DC shunt motors are used in those
is applications where is
(A) V=Vb+IoRo required.
(B) V = Vb - IoRo (A) high starting torque
1
(C) V = Vb - *Iopo (B) practically constant speed
'2
(c) high no load sPeed
(D) v = vb + lrn-
|-a--a (D) variable speed
JE/PHE/EE/il124148-A lP.T.O.
Text of page 6
29. Which motor should notbe used for 32. Slip ring motor is recommended
centrifugal pump? when
(A) Shunt (A) speed control is required
(B) Series (B) frequent starting, stopping and
reversing are required
(C) Cumulative compound (c) high starting torque is required
(D) Differential compound (D) All of the above
A 400 kw, 3-0, 44o v, 50 Hz 33. In case of voltage injection method of
induction motor has a speed of speed control, the injected e.m.f.
950 r.p.m. on full load. The motor should be of
has 8 poles. The slip of the motor
will be (A) (1-s),f
(A) 0.01 (B) (2 - s).f
(C) slip frequency (s/)
(B) 0.04
(D) supply frequency (f )
(c) 0.05
(D) 0.06
I\ro series motors are mechanically
coupled. One machine is run as a
motor and other as a generator. The
31. What is the primary reason for iron and friction losses of the
placing field on rotor in an machines will be identical when
alternator?
(A) their speeds are identical
(A) Small power in the field circuit
(B) their speeds and excitations
are identical
(B) Insulation of high voltage is
made easy on stator than on (C) their speeds are equal but
rotor back e.m.f. is the half of the
supply voltage
(C) Large power in stator
(D) their rating and armature size
(D) Large current in stator are equal
JE/PHE/EElrrl24l48-a 6
Text of page 7
35. A DC series motor is running at 39. In order to reduce the cost of
rated speed without any additional generation of electrical energr, the
resistance in series. If an additional value of diversity factor (DF) and
resistance is placed in series, then load factor (LF) should be
the speed of the motor (A) both DF and LF high
(A) increases (B) LF low and DF high
(B) decreases (c) LF high and DF 1ow
(c) remains same (D) both LF and DF row
(D) None of the above
4O. In a power transformer, the breather
36. Is it possible to have current in a is provided in order to
transmission line under no load 1A) filter transformer oil
condition?
(B) prevent ingress of moisture
(A) Yes, because of capacitance with air
effect (c) provide or(ygen to the cooling
(B) No, because of proximity effect oil
(C) Yes, because of corona effect (D) provide fresh air for increasing
(D) Yes, because of skin effect cooling effect
3?. If the AC supply to transformer is 41. A given amount of power is to be
replaced by DC, then transmitted over a certain distance
(A) the primary winding wn burn ['IfrT":",[1ffi ?}il:*,Hjj
(B) the secondary winding will voltage = V, load p.f. = cosQ) is
burn
1A) directly proportional to v
(c) the transformer has no effect (B) inversely proportional.to v
(D) All of the above (c) proportional to (l 1v2 cos2 q,1
38. A load draws an active power P at a (D) proportional to V2 cos2 q
lagging power factor cos Q1. If the
p.f. is improved to cos 02, then the i2. ln order to improve p.f. in case of a
leading kVAR supplied by p.f. 3-phase load, the capacitors are
correction equipment will be connected in
(A) P(cos 02 -cos $r) (A) delta
(B) P(sin 02 - sin qrl (B) star
(C) P(tan$1 + tan02) (C) star or delta
(D) P(tanQ1 - tanQ2) (D) None of the above
JE/PHE/EElrrl24l4e-a lP.T.O.
Text of page 8
43. Fleming's left-hand rule is applicable 47. Hydroelectric power plant is
to
(A) non-renewable source of
. (A) DC generator 6nerS/
(B) DC motor 18) conventional source of enerry
(C) alternator (C) non-conventional source of
(D) transformel enerry
(D) continuous source of enerry
44. The purpose of the conservator rn a
transformer is
4g. Load curve helps in deeiding
(A) to cool the winding
(B) to prevent moisture in the 6) total installed capacity of plant
transformer (B) sizes of the generating units
: _.
(c) to prevent short circuit of (c) operating schedule of the
primary and secondary generating units
winding
(D) All of the above
(D) to take up contraction and
expansion of oil
49. A feeder in a transmission system
feeds power to
45. A magnetic circuit mainly consists of
a material having permittivity
16) generation station
(A) high (B) distributors
(B) low
(C) senrice mains
(C) medium
(D) All of the above
(D) constant
to' t:-:^ benefit of scADA in power
46. cogeneration is the simultaneous sYstem is
generation of
(A) heat and power (A) improved quality of senrice
(B) mechanical enerry and power (B) improved reliability
(c) steam and condensate (c) Both of the above
(D) All of the above (D) None of tlre above
JE/PHE/ED/il124148-A
Text of page 9
51. The equal area criterion of stability is 55. Polarization P in a solid dielectric is
used for related to the electric field E and
lectric flux density D by the
(A) no load on the busbar relation
(B) one machine and infinite
busbar (A) E=P+e6D
(C) more than one machine and (B) D = E+ e6D
infinite busbar
(C) D=eoB+P
(D) None of the above
(D) D=eoP+E
52. The transient stability limit of the
power system can be increased by s6. The acceptance value of grounding
introducing resistance to domestic appliance is
(A) series inductance
(A) 0.r o
(B) shunt inductance
(B) 1o
(C) series capacitance
(c) 10 ()
(D) shunt capacitance
(D) 1O0 o
53. The relative permeability of
paramagnetic material is
57. An ideal OP-AMP has
(A) one
(A) infinite A'
(B) less than one
(C) little more than one (B) infinite 'Q
(D) several hundred (C) zeto Ro
(D) All of the above
54. Which of the following materials is
particularly suitable for uqe in
. standard resistance coil and 58. LEDs normally work on a voltage of
instrument shunts?
(A) 1Vto2V
(A) Nichrome
(B) 1o v to 2o v
(B) Graphite
(C) Manganin (C) 50 V to 60 V
(D) Alnico (D) 100 V to 150 V
JElPHE/EElfil24l4$-L e [P.T.O.
Text of page 10
59. The characteristics of thyristor 62. Tlrle instrument used for DC
closely resemble to the measurement alone is
characteristics of
(A) moving-iron type
(A)' P-IVjunction (B) electrodynamic type
(B) constant voltage source (C) permanent magnet type
(D) induction type
(c) constant current source
(D) thyratron gas tube 63. The difference between the indicated
value by an instrument and true
value of a variable is called
6O. The Class B push-pull amplifier has (A) dead zone error
the advantage of being free from
(B) relative error
(A) any circuit imbalance (C) static error
(B) unwanted noise (D) drift error
(c) even-order harmonic distortion 64. which of the following instruments
lowest power
(D) DC magnetic saturation effect [ljlffi",r,l"
(A) VTVM
61. The following figure represents a/an (B) PMMC instrument
(C) Electrostatic instrument
:lil
(D) d'Arsonval instrument
65. The phenomenon of creeping occurs
(A) JV-P-/V transistor in
(A) ammeter
(B) P-N-P transistor
(B) enerry meter
(C) Zener diode
(C) wattmeter
(D) power diode (D) voltmeter
JEIPHE/EEltU24l48-a 10
Text of page 11
66. CRO is used to measure The 2's complement of 10002 is
(A) phase (A) 1000
(B) frequency (B) 0001
(C) voltage (c) 0111
(D) All of the above
(D) 0101
67. Hay's bridge is particularly suited for
measurement of 71. The output of the logic circuit given
below represents _ gate.
(A) capacitance over a wide range
of values
(B) inductance having high
Qvalue
(C) capacitance having high
QvaIue
(A) NAND
(D) inductance having low Qvalue (B) oR
(c) NoR
The number 10002 is equivalent to
decimal number
(D) AND
(A) one thousand
72. Determine the output expression for
(B) eight the circuit shown below :
(C) four
A
(D) sixteen B
C
D
69. The cumulative addition of the four
binary bits (1+1+1'r1) gives
(A) AB+C
(A) 1111
(B) (A+ E/1.CD
(B) 111
(c) 100 (c) AB+ C
(D) 1001 (D) AB+ D
JEIPHE/EE /rr124l4e-a 11 lP.r.o.
Text of page 12
73. Microprocessor 8085 is the 7?. Resistance grounding is used for
enhanced version of with voltage between
essentially the same construction
set. (A) 33 kV to 66 kV
(A) 6800 (B) t 1 kv to 33 kV
(B) 68000
(c) 8O8O (C) 3'3 kv to 11 kV
(D) 80OO (D) None of the above
74. lncomputer parlance, handshaking'
means 78. No ceiling fan should be installed at
(A) checking the status register the height of less than
(B) controlling the information 2.5 m from the floor
exchange via I/O ports
H
. between microcomputer and (B) 5.5 m from the floor
external logic
(c) data transmission by external (c) 4'5 m from the floor
logic to r/o port (D) 3.S m from the floor
(D) reading I/O port data by a
microprocessor
79. The frequencies and voltage used in
75. Switchgear is a device used for dielectric heating are
(A) intemrpting an electrical
circuit (A) 10 MHz-3O MHz up to 25 kV
(B) switching an electrical circuit (B) 5O MHz-60 MHz up to 25 kV
(C) switching and controlling an
electrical circuit
(C) l0 MHz-30 MHz up to 1O0 V
(D)switching,controllingand(D)5oMHz-6oMHzupto23oV
protecting the electrical circuit
and equipment
8O. The loads on 3-phase, 4-wire
76. An isolator is installed distributor are usually
(A) to operate the relay of t,.e
circuit breaker (CB)
(o) balanced
(B) as a substitute for CB (B) unbalanced
(C) always independent of the
position of cB
(c) either balanced or unbalanced
(D) generally on both sides of a CB (D) None of the above
JE/PHE/EEfirl24l4e-L t2
Text of page 13
81. When the length of cable increases, 85. The material used for fuse must have
its capacitance
(A) low melting point and high
(A) decreases specific resistance
(B) increases
(B) low melting Point and low
(C) remains same specific resistance
(D) None of the above
(c) high melting point and low
specific resistance
82. A wattmeter measures: power.
(D) low melting point and any
(A) instantaneous specilic resistance
(B) apparent
(c) reactive 86. which IE rule is applicable to service
mains?
(D) average
(A) Rule 30
83. 8085 is capable of addressing
of memory. (B) Rule 33
(A) 8K (C) Rule 77
(B) 16K
(D) All of the above
(c) 24K
(D) 64K
87. Which among the following fuses is
very fast in operation?
84. How many buses are connected as a
part of 8085 microprocessor? (A) Semiconductor fuse
(A) 2
(B) High rupturing capacity fuse
(B) 3
(C) Kit Kat fuse
(c) s
(D) 8 (D) Cartridge fuse
JE/PHE/EEltrl24l48-L 13 lP.T.O.
Text of page 14
88. Steel rail poles of height 13 meters 91. In monthly maintenance of storage
are used for transmission purpose batteries, which activity is
of _ voltage. performed?
(A) Voltages
(A) 33 kV
(B) Cleaning
(B) 11 kv (C) Terminals
(c) 22 kv (D) All of tl:e above
(D) Both (A) and (B) 92. ln annually inspection, which is .
mainly inspected in less than
.lOO kVA transformer?
89. On which of the following, routine (A) Fire system
tests are conducted?
(B) Core
(A) Oil circuit breakers (CBs) (C) Coil
(D) oil
(B) Air blast CBs
(c) Minimum oil CBs 93. In annually inspection, which is
mainly inspected in overhead tine?
(D) All of the above (A) Insulation
(B) Tower
(c) Earth wire
9o. which among the following is a
commissioning check during site (D) All of t.Le above
testing for an induction motor?
(A) Insulation resistance
94' which of the following is nof, a type
of electric resistance welding?
(B) Terminal shrouds (A) Butt welding
(B) Seam welding
(C) Heater supply
(C) Helium welding
(D) All of the above (D) Spot welding
JElPHE/EEltr/24148-A t4
Text of page 15
95. Biogas mainly consists of 98. For any medium, electric flux density
D and electric intensitY E are
(A) fossil related as
rvrq
(B) cowdung (A) D=eoE
(C) petroleum (B) D = eo lE
(D) All of the above (C) D = E leoe,
(D) D = Eoer4
95. Which of the following is a
conventional source of enerry
derived from decayed plant and
animal remains? 99. Most of single-phase induction
motors are machines.
(A) Wind -
(A) 2-pole
(B) Geothermal
(B) 6-pole
(C) Solar
(c) 8-pole
(D) Coal
(D) 4-pole
, 97. Which non-conventional source of
i: enerry involves tapping into the loo' A synchronous motor delivers
Barth,s internal heat for power reactive Power when
generation?
(A) Solar enerry (A) over-excited
(B) Wind enerry (B) under-excited
(c) Geothermal enerry (c) normally excitid
(D) Tidal enerry (D) None of the above
JE/PHE/EElIll24l48-a 15 lP.T.O.
Text of page 16
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORX
I
il
a
l
.l
arrl
I
I
l
rl
.l
i
***
JE/PHE/EE/rrl24l48-A 16 24T-425x4
Text of page 1
q=r.:sr cqf5c=-<rt qtc=I-t€t
Att!sA!' Pt'ALIC SEITI'IGE GO II./I }I I SISiI O nl
Provisional Answer Key of OMR based Screening Test for
recruitment to the post of Junior Engineer (civil, Mechanical, Electrical, chemical) Public
Health Engineering Department
held on 14.07.2024
(Advt. No.29l2023 dated 31.10.2023)
Subiect: Paper - II (ELECTRJCAL ENGINEERING)
Series: A
Marks: 100 Time: 2:00 hours
Q.NO. ANS KEY Q. NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY Q. NO. ANS_KEY
I B 26 A 51 B 76 D
2 C 21 B 52 C 77 C
, D 28 B 53 C 78 A
4 D 29 B 54 C 79 A
5 D 30 C 55 B 80 B
6 A 31 B 56 B 8l B
7 B 32 D 57 D 82 D
8 C JJ C 58 A 83 D
9 B 34 B 59 D 84 B
10 A 35 B 6t) C 85 A
11 B 36 A 61 A 86 D
t2 C 37 A o1- C 87 A
13 A 38 D 63 C 88 A
14 D 39 A 64 C 89 D
15 B 40 B 65 B 90 A
16 A 4t C 66 D 91 D
17 C 42 A 61 B 92 C
l8 A 43 B 68 B 93 D
19 C 44 D 69 C 94 C
20 C 45 A 70 A 95 A
2t D 46 A 7l A L)6 l)
22 D 47 B 72 B 97 C
23 B 48 D 73 C 98 D
11 A 49 C 74 B 99 D
25 B 50 C 75 D 100 A
Text of page 2
q-5r5r cHf=F-rGrT=If qtc]fl'tr5t
A!ISA!' Pt!BLTC SEIiI\,ICE CG'!,l fUIISSIOII
Provisional Answer Key of OMR based Screening Test for
recruitment to the post of Junior Engineer (civil, Mechanical, Electrical, chemical) Public
Health Engineering Department
held on 14.07.2024
(Advt. No.29l2023 dated 3 1.10.2023)
Subiect: Paper - II (ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING)
Series : B
Marks: 100 Time: 2:00 hours
Q. NO. ANS_KEY Q. NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY Q. NO. ANS_KEY
1 B 26 A 51 B 76 B
2 D 21 B 52 D 71 D
3 D 28 C 53 C 78 A
4 B 29 B 54 B 19 D
5 A 30 A 55 B 80 C
6 D 31 B 56 A 8l A
7 A 32 C 57 A 82 C
8 A 33 A 58 D 83 C
9 D 34 D 59 A 84 C
10 A 35 I} 60 B 85 B
l1 D 36 A 61 C 86 D
12 C C 62 A 87 R
13 D 38 A 63 B 88 B
14 C 39 C 64 D 89 C
15 A 40 C 6s A 90 A
16 D 4t D 66 A 91 A
17 C 42 D 67 B 92 B
18 D 43 B 68 D 93 C
19 D 44 A 69 C 94 B
20 A 45 B 70 C 95 D
21 B 46 A 7l l) 96 D
22 C 47 B 72 C 97 C
23 D 48 B 73 C 98 A
24 D 49 B 74 C 99 A
25 D 50 C 75 B 100 B
Text of page 3
q5r5f cHT=Ft-5r=rt \slf?:tr5t
,\sSiAi,/I FII BLIC SER\,IGE GG'!',T]"IISSIOn|
Provisional Answer Key of OMR based Screening Test for
recruitment to the post of Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, Chemical) Public
Health Engineering Department
held on 14.07 .2024
(Advt. No.2912023 dated 31.10.2023)
Subiect: Paper - II (ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING)
Series: C
Marks: 100 Time: 2:00 hours
Q.NO. ANS_KEY Q. NO. ANS KEY Q. NO. ANS-KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY
26 D B '76 A
1 B 51
2 C 27 C 52 C '77 B
, C 28 A 53 D 78 B
4 C 29 A 54 D 79 B
5 B 30 B 55 D 80 C
6 B 3l B 56 A 81 B
7 D 32 D 57 B 82 D
8 A 33 D 58 C 83 C
9 D 34 B 59 B 84 B
10 C 35 A 60 A 85 B
11 A 36 D 61 B 86 A
12 C 37 A 62 C 87 A
13 C 38 A 63 A 88 D
t4 C 39 D 64 I) 89 A
15 B 40 A 65 B 90 ts
16 D 4t D 66 A 91 C
o_)
17 B 42 C 61 C A
l8 B 43 D 68 A 93 u
19 C 44 C 69 C 94 D
20 A 45 A 10 C 95 A
21 A 46 D 7l t) 96 A
22 B 47 C 72 t) 97 B
23 C 48 D t3 B 98 D
24 B 49 D 74 A 99 C
25 D 50 A 75 B 100 C
Text of page 4
q:rTT cqf<E-":r<t qtc-=rter
assarr.t Pl,BLrc sERt IcE Corlt3rlrSltION
Provisional Answer Key of OMR based Screening Test for
recruitment to the post of Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanicaln Electrical, Chemical) Public
Health Engineering DePartment
held on 14.07.2024
(Advt. No.29i2023 dated 31.10.2023)
Subiect: Paper - II (ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING)
Series: D
Marks: 100 Time: 2:00 hours
Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY Q. NO. ANS_KDY
1 D 26 A 51 A 76 D
2 D 27 B 52 B 77 C
3 B 28 D 53 C 78 D
4 A 29 C 54 B 79 D
5 B 30 C 55 D 80 A
6 A 31 B 56 D 81 B
7 B 32 C 57 C 82 C
8 B 33 C 58 A 83 l)
9 B 34 C 59 A 84 D
10 C 35 R 60 B 85 D
11 B 36 B 61 B 86 A
12 D 31 D o1- D 87 B
13 C 38 A 63 D 88 C
t4 B 39 D 64 B 89 B
15 B 40 C 65 A 90 A
16 A 41 A 66 D 9l B
17 A 42 C 67 A 92 C
l8 D 43 C 68 A 93 A
19 A 44 C 69 D 94 D
20 B 45 B 70 A 95 B
21 C 46 D 7l D 96 A
22 A 4l B 72 C 97 C
z3 B 48 B 73 D 98 A
49 C '74 C 99 C
24 D
25 A 50 A 75 A 100 CPage 1 of 16
Source: Assam Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Assam Public Service Commission.