APSC JE 2024: Junior Engineer, Public Health Engineering Department (Advt. 29/2023), Civil Engineering

Text of page 1
JEIPHE lCDltU24
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
Test Booklet No. Series
TEST BOOKLET
(}5& {}s
Paper-II
( Cwu, EucrrrlpuRrNe )
TlmeAllowed,z2Hours Full Marks : lOO
Read. the tolloulng lnstrucf,lons carefullg betore gou begln to ansllecr the questlons t
l. The name of the Subject, Roll Number as mentioned in the Admission Certificate, Test Booklet No. and Series
are to be written legibly and correctly in the space provided on the Answer-Sheet with Black/Blue ballpoint pen.
2. Answer-Sheet wlthout marklng Serles as mentloned above ln the space provlded for ln the Answer-Sheet
shsll not be evaluated.
3, All questions carry equal marks.
The Answer-Sheet should be submltted to the Invigllator.
Directions for giuing the answers: Directions for answering questions have already been issued to the respective
candidates in the 'Instructions for marking in the OMR Answer-Sheet'along with the Admit Card and Specimen
Copy of the OMR Answer-Sheet.
Example :
Suppose the following question is asked :
The capital of Bangladesh is
(A) Chennai
(B) London
(C) Dhaka
(D) Dhubri
You will have four alternatives in the Answer-Sheet for your response corresponding to each question of the
Test Booklet as below,
@ @ @ @
In the above illustration, if your chosen response is alternative (C), i.e., Dhaka, then the same should be
marked on the Answer-Sheet by blackening the relevant circle with a Black/Blue ballpoint pen only as below :
@@o@
The example shown above le the only correct method of answering.
4. Use of eraser, blade, chemical whitener fluid to rectify any response is prohibited.
5. Please ensure ttrat the Test Booldet has the required number of pages (16) and 100 questions immediately after
opening tJre Booklet. In case of any discrepancy, please report the same to the Invigilator.
6. No candidate shall be admitted to the Examination Hall/Room 20 minutes after the commencement of the
examination.
without prior permission of the Supervisor/ Invigilator. No
to hand over rswer-Sheet and leave the Examination Hall/Room before
expiry of the full
8. No Mobile Phone, Electronic Communication Device, etc., are allowed to be carried inside the Examination
Hall/Room by the candidates. Any Mobile Phone, Electronic Communication Device, etc., found in possession
of the candidate inside the Examination Hall/Room, even if on off mode, shall be liable for confiscation.
9. No candidate shall have in his/her possession inside the Examination Hall/Room any book, notebook or loose
paper, except his/her Admission Certificate and other connected papers permitted by the Commission.
lO. Complete silence must be observed in the Examination Hall/Room. No candidate shall copy from the paper of
any other candidate, or permit his/her own paper to be copied, or give, or attempt to give, or obtain, or attempt
to obtain irregular assistance of any kind.
11.This Test Booklet can be carried with you after answering the questions in the prescribed Answer-Sheet.
12. Noncompliance with any of tJ:e above instructions will render a candidate liable to penalty as may be
deemed fit.
13. No rough work is to be done on the OMR Answer-Sheet. You can do the rough work on the space provided in the
Test Booklet.
N.B. : There wlll be negatlve marklng @ O.2S per 1 (one) mark agalnst each wrong auawer.
t46 [ No. of Questions : 1OO
Text of page 2
1. For n number of sides, the total sum 5. The combined correction for
of interior angles of a closed refraction and earth's curvature (in
traverse is levelling operation) for a distance d
in kilometre, is
(A) (n+21x 90"
(B) Qn-41x 90" (A) o.O7857d2 m
(C) (2n+4)x 90' (B) O.OlL22d2 nt
(D) $n-21x 9O"
(C) o.o6735d.2 m
2. If the whole circle bearing of a line is
92540', then quadrantal bearing (D) o.o|7di m
will be
(A) N34"20',W
6. For a cun/e of radius 1O0 m ,and
(B) N55"40',W normal chord 10 m, the Rankine's
deflection angle is
(c) s55o40'rff
(D) None of the above (A) O"25',9o
(B) 125',53"
3. The magnetic bearing of a line is
57o3O' and the magnetic declination (c) 1"35',55"
at that place is 4o30' East. The true
bearing will be (D) 2"5t',53',
(A) 53"
(B) 62', 7. The least count of a vernier scale is
(c) 60' (A) the sum of the smallest
(D) 57" divisions of main and vernier
scale
4. In levelling, backsight is (B) the value of one division of the
(A) a fixed point of known primary scale divided bY tJle
elevation total number of divisions of
vernier scale
(B) the first staff reading taken
after setting the instrument (c) the value of one division of
(c) the last staff reading taken vernier scale divided by the
before shifting the instrument
total number of divisions of
primary scale
(D) any staff reading taken on a
point of unknown elevation (D) None of the above
JEi PHE/CElrr/24146-a 2
Text of page 3
; ,, 8. ABCD is a rectangular plot of land. If 11. The algebraic sum of the deflection
the bearing of one side AB is 75', angle of a closed traverse is
the bearing of DC is
(A) zero
(A) 75o (B) 90o
(B) 255" (c) 180"
(D) 360"
(c) 105"
12. A transition curve is introduced to
(D) 285"
gradually change the
(A) direction
Orientation of a plane table by (B) superelevation
solving two-point problem is only
adopted when (C) gradient
(A) saving of time is the main (D) camber
factor
TWo hilltops A and B 20 krn apart
(B) better accuracy is the main are intervened by a third hilltop C.
factor If the topmost contour of the three
hilltops are of the same value, then
(C) given points are inaccessible the line of sight AB
(A) passes clear of hilltop C
(D) None of the above
(B) passes below hilltop C
(C) grazes the hilltop C
10. Closed contours with higher values
inside represents a (D) None of the above
(A) depression 14. The standard size of modular brick is
(A) l0cmx10cmx9cm
(B) hill
(B) 19cmx9cmx9cm
'(C) plain surface
(C) 22.5 cm x 10 cm x 8.5 cm
(D) None of the above (D) 22.5cmx8cmx9cm
JEIPHEICE/tr/24146-a lP.T.O.
Text of page 4
15. Slump test of concrete is a measure 18. The radius of ryration of a section of
of its area A and least moment of inertia .I
about the centroidal a:ris is
(A) consistency
(AI A
(B) compressive strength I
f
(C) tensile strength (B) +
A
(D) impact value
(C)
E
16. The bearings of two traverse legs /,-,l
AB and BC are N52%5'E and \"t E
!;
N34o30'E respectively. The deflec-
tion angle is
(A) L8o15',E 19. Bulking of sand is caused due to
(B) 18'15',N (A) surface moisture
(c) 18o1S',R (B) air voids
(D) 18o1s',L (C) viscosity
(D) clay contents
L7. A load of 1960 N is raised at the end
of a steel wire. The minimum
diameter of the wire, so that stress 2O. The foundation in which a concrete
in the wire does not exceed beam is provided to join trvo
100 N/mm2, is footings, is known as
(A) 4'0 mm (A) strip footing
- (B) strap footing
(B) 4'5 mm
(C) 5'0 mm (C) combined footing
(D) 6'0 mm (D) raft footing
JE|PHElcElru2ll46-A 4
Text of page 5
21. lf 20 kg of coarse aggregate is sieved 24. A revised estimate is required to be
through 80 mm, 40 mm, 2O mm, prepared if the sanctioned estimate
10 mm, 4.75 mm, 2,36 mm, exceeds
L'18 mm, 60O micron, 300 micron
and 150 micron standard sieves (A) 2%
and the weights retained are 0 kg, (B) 5o/o
2 kg, I kg, 6 kg, 4 kg respectively,
the fineness modulus of the (C) 8o/o
aggregate is (D) lOo/o
(A) 7.3o
25. The number of bricks of size
(B) 7.ss 19 cm x 9 cm x 9 cm required for
10 cubic metres of masonry wall is
(c) 7.4o
(A) .2000
(D) 7.4s
(B) 40oo
22. Vicat's apparatus is used for (c) s00o
cement's (D) 10000
(A) fineness test
26. lf 10 cm x 10 cm size of sal wood is
(B) consistency test to be prepared for a door frame and
if the size of the door is
(C) compressive strength test 2.1 m x 1.2 m, then the total length
(D) soundness test of sal wood required is
(A) 2.52 m
29. If Bis the width of formation, d is the (B) 5.4 m
height of embankment and s: 1 is
side slope for a highway with no (c) 3'3 m
transverse slope, the cross- (D) 6.6 m
sectional area is
(A) B+ d+ sd 2?. Tlne minimum size of the particles of
silt soil is
(B) Bd.+ sd2
(A) 0'002 mm
(c) + (B) 0'05 mm
f,e 'a2l
(C) 0'06 mm
(D) +
!@a "a2l (D) O'08 mm
JE/PHE/CElrrl24l46-A lP.T.O.
Text of page 6
28. The ratio of weight of water to the 31. A soil sample is having a specific
weight of solid in a given mass of gravity of 2'60 and void ratio 0'78.
soil is known as The water content in percentage
required to fully saturatc the soil at
(A) void ratio that void ratio will be
(A) 10
(B) porosity
(B) 30
(C) specific gravity (c) so
(D) 70
(D) water content
92. Group symbols assigned to silty
sand and clayey sand are
respectively
29. The rammer used for. heary
compaction to determine the (A) SS and CS
optimum moisture content and (B) SM and CS
maximum dry density of a soil by
Proctor's test is having mass of
(C) SM and SC
(D) MS and CS
(A) 2'6 kg
33. The relation between dry density
(B) 3'1 kg (yo), bulk density (y) and water
content (o) is
(c) 4'5 kg (A) y = lc-1*.
(D) 4'e kg (B) ya =--t+o
,tl
(c) o= Y
3O. The relationihip between void ratio L+y d
(e) and porosity (n) is
(D) (D=
1-T d
o
(A) n = -Z-
e- 7
34. The property of soil which permits
the flow of water through its inter-
(B) e=n(l+el connected voids is called
(A) seep ability
(c) e=-L+n
L-e (B) porosity
(C) permeability
(D) n=-l+e (D) void ratio
1-e
JE/PrJE/ cE/fi124146-A 6
Text of page 7
35. The bearing capacity of soil is 39. The direct shear test suffers from
determined at the site by which of the following dis-
conducting advantages?
(A) plate load test (A) Drain condition cannot be
(B) dynamic penetration test controlled
(c) Both (A) and (B) (B) Pore water pressure cannot be
(D) None of the above measured
36. Foundation failure may occur due to (C) Shear stress on the failure
plane is not known
(A) unequal settlement of subsoil
(D) The area under the shear and
(B) shrinkage of soil bed vertical loads does not remain
(C) lateral escape of soil constant throughout the test
(D) All of the above
40. A rectangular channel 6 m wide and
3?. In a tiquid limit test, the moisture 3 m deep and having a bed slope as
content at 10 blows was 7Oo/o and at 1 in 2OOO is running full. If Chezy's
100 blows was2Ooh. The liquid limit constant C = 54.8, choose the
of the soil is correct specilication of the channel
(A) 3s% from the following.
(B) 5Oo/o (A) Hydraulic mean depth = 1.5 m
(c) 6s% (B) Velocity of flow = 1'5 m/sec
(D) None of the above
(C) Rate of flow = 27 m3 lsec
38. According to Coulomb's wedge
theory, the active earth pressure (D) All of the above
slides the wedge
(A) down and outwards on a slip 41. Hydraulic ram is a device
surface
(B) up and inwards on a slip (A) for lifting water without an
electric motor
surface
(C) horizontal upward and parallel (B) for accelerating water flow
to base
(C) for lifting heavy loads
(D) horizontal inward and parallel
to base (D) None of the above
JEIPHE/CEltU24l46-a lP.T.O.
Text of page 8
42. Tlne total head of a liquid particle in 46. Limiting value of moment of
motion is the sum of resistance for M2O grade of
(A) potentiar head and kinetic F:ffi""lt"jli}:lT#;::i
head effective dePth d is
(B) kinetic head and pressure (A) 2.22bd2
head
(B) 2.66bd2
(C) potential head and pressure
head (c) 2'76bd2
(D) potential head, kinetic head (D) 2'g6bd2
and pressure head
42. when depths of critical and actual
a'(es are the same in a
43. The velocity of the fluid particle at :::"'
the centre or a pipe section is llffiJ,";"f;: }"'"Tr"LliT
(A) minimum called as
(B)maximum(A)balancedsection
(C) equal throughout (B) under-reinforced section
(D) None of the above
(c) over-reinforced section
(D) All of the above
44. As per IS 456 : 200O, the morimum
cement content used for RCC 48' Limiting percentage of steel (pr, u-)
construction is
for M2O grade of concrete and
Fe415 steel is
(A) 350 kg/m3 (A) 1.76
(B) 400 kglm3 (B) o.e6
(c) 450 kg/m3 (c) o'7s
(D)500kg/m3(D)Noneoftheabove
49' A tbeam behaves as a rectangular
45. As per IS 456 : 2000, for RCC work, of width. equl to its flange' if
the grade of concrete should ; L:*
lower than
""; its neutral axis
(A)M15o)remainswithintheflange
(B) remains below the slab
(B) ll2o
(c) coincides the geometrical
(C) M25 centre of the beam
(D) M3O (D) None of the above
JE|PIjE/cD/tr/24146-a
Text of page 9
5O. Prestressed concrete means For one-way slab, the ratio of length
and breadth of the slab should be
(A) compressive stress induied in' (A) less than 1'5
concrete before bending
(B) more than 1'5
(B) compressive stress induced ih (C) less than 2'O
steel before bending
(D) more than 2'0
(C) tensile stress induced in steel
before bending 54. The maximum strain in concrete
in compression at ttre outermost
(D) tensile stress induced in fibre is
concrete before bending
(A) 0.002
(B) O.OO3
51. A simply supported beam has an (c) 0.003s
effective span of 16 m. As Per
IS 456 : 200O, the limiting ratio of (D) O.0O2s
span to effective depth for control of
deflection for the beam shall be In a prestressed member, it is
advisable to use
(A) 26
(A) low-strength concrete onlY
(B) 20 (B) low-strength steel onlY
(C) low-strength steel but high-
(c) t2.s strength concrete
(D) 7 (D) high-strength concrete and
high-strength steel
52. The maximum area of tension The distance between centre-to-
reinforcement in beams shall not centre of two adjacent rivet holes
exceed should not be less than
(A) 1'5 times the diameter of rivet
(A) O.O4bD hole
(B) O.O2bD (B) 1'5 times the diameter of rivet
(C) 1'5 times the diameter of rivet
(c) o.o8bD head
(D) r.tobD (D) 2'5 times the diameter of rivet
JE/PHE/CElfil24l46-a 9 lP.T.O.
Text of page 10
57. The heaviest I-section for same 61. The minimum size of weld for the
depth is thickness of thicker member up to
1o mm is
(A) ISMB
(B) ISLB
6) S mm
(c) rsHB
(D) rswB E) 5 mm
(c) 6 mm
68. If the diameter of bolt is 20 mm, then
the ma:<imum number of bolts that
can be accommodated in one row in (D) 8 rrtm
a 2OO mm wide flat is
(A) 2
62, ln water-bound macadam roads,
(B) 3 binding material is
(c) 4
(A) sand
(D) 6
(B) stone dust
s9. The partial safety factor for a
' material of bolts is
(C) cement
(A) 1.0
(B) 1'10 (D) brick dust
(c) r.15
(D) t.2s
63. On the recommendations of the
Indian Roads Congress, tl:e ruling
6o. The effective throat thickness of a gradient in plains is
fillet weld is K times the size of
weld. For a ZOo angle between
fusion faces, the value of l(will be 16) 1 in 15
(A) o.7 (B) 1 in 20
(B) 0.6s
(C) 1 in 3o
(c) 0.6
(D) 1.0 (D) 1 in t0
JE/PHE/CE/il124146-a
Text of page 11
64. The absolute minimum sight 6?. Rails are fixed on steel sleePers
distance required for stoPPing a
vehicle moving with a sPeed of (A) by bearing plates
80 kmph is
(B) by dog spikes
(A) t2o m (C) by keys in lugs or jaws
(B) 200 m (D) None of the above
(C) 640 m
68. The convexity Provided on the
surface of highwaY is known as
(D) 800 m
(A) curve
65. California Bearing Ratio method of (B) camber
designing flexible Pavements is
(C) superelevation
more accurate because it involves
(D) gradient
(A) characteristic of soils
(B) traffic intensities 69. Abrasion test is carried out to find
(A) hardness of aggregates
(C) character of the road making
materials
(B) toughness of aggtegates
(D) None of the above. (C) durability of aggpegates
(D) strength of aggregates
66. On Indian Railways, the standard
length of rails for BG track is 7O. The topmost layer of flexible
pavements is known as
(A) 33 ft (10'6 m)
(A) base course
(B) 36 ft (10'97 m)
(B) subbase course
(C) 39 ft (11'89 m) (C) surface course
(D) 42'6s ft (13 m) (D) subgrade
JEIPHEICE Ifi/24146-A 11 lP.T.O.
Text of page 12
71. As per IRC, the carriage way width 74. The standard height of a standard
for two-lane traflic road should be rain gauge is
(A) 7.5 m (A) L0 cm
(B) 10 m (B) 20 cm
(C) 12.5 m (C) 30 cm
(D) 15 m (D) 5O cm
72. Tt.c various treatment processes in 75. The rate of accumulation of sludge in
a water treatment plant are as septic tanks is recommended as
follows :
(A) 3O litres/person/year
1. Filtration
(B) 25 litres/person/year
2. Chlorination (C) 30 litres/person/month
3. Sedimentation (D) 25 litres/person/month
4. Coagulation
5. Flocculation 76. lf 27o solution of a sewage sample is
incubated for 5 days at 20 oC and
The correct sequence of these depletion of o:<ygen was found to be
processes in water treatment is 5 ppm, BOD of the sewage is
(A) L,2, 3, 4, 5 (A) 200 ppm
(B) 225 ppm
(B) 4, 5,3, L,2
(C) 250 ppm
(c) 2,3, 1, 5, 4
(D) None of the above
(D) L,2, 5, 3, 4
77. Self-cleansing velocit5r is
73. The permissible pH value for public
water supply is (A) velocit5r at dry weather flow
(A) 4.5 to 5.5 (B) velocity of water at flushing
(B) 5.5 to 6.5 (C) velocity at which no accumula-
tion remains in the drains-
(c) 6.5 to 8.5
(D) velocity of water in pressure
(D) 8.5 to 1o.5 filter
JElPHElCElrr/24t46-a
Text of page 13
74. The most dangerous Pollutant ln 81. In slow sand filters, the turbidity of
vehicular emissions is raw water can be removed only
up to
(A) co (A) 60 mgllitre
(B) SOz (B) 75 mg/litre
(C) 100 mg/litre
(c) coz
(D) 150 mg/litre
(D) 03
82, A septic tank is
(A) an aerobic method of on-site
79. The liquid waste from kitchens, sewage treatment
bathrooms and wash basins is not
known as (B) an anaerobic method of on-site
treatment
(A) liquid waste
(C) a physical method of water
treatment
(B) sullage
"
(D) a physiochemical method of
(C) sewage water treatment
(D) None of the above The father of principles of manage-
ment is
(A) Mary Parkett
8O. The amount of oxygen consumed by
the aerobic bacteria, which causes (B) Lillian Gilbert
the aerobic biological decomposi-
tion of sewage, is known as (C) Henry Fayol
(D) Elton Mayo
(A) Biochemical OxYgen Demand
(BoD)
84. Tender is the
(B) Dissolved O:<ygen (DO) (A) estimation of cost
(C) Chemical OxYgen Demand (B) estimation of profit
(coD) (C) estimation of selling Price.
(D) None of the above (D) estimation of units
JE/PHE/cE lfil24l46-a 13 lP.T.O.
Text of page 14
85. Labour turnover is g9. The minimum thickness of shear
walls as per IS : 13920 is
(A) productivity of labour
(A) l8o mm
(B) efficiency of labour
(B) 400 mm
(c) change in labour force
(C) 200 mm
(D) total cost of labour
(D) 1S0 mm
i
86. The minimum number of members
in a private company is 90' Grouting is used for
(A) 2 (A) strengthening beams
(B) strengthening columns
(B) 5
(C) rePairing cracks
(C) 7
. (D) strengthening floors
(D) l0
91' critical Path Method (cPM) network
gz. The seismic map of India given in
IS: 1893-2016 divides the country
into how many number of zones? (A) event oriented
(A) 2 E) activitY oriented
(B) 3 (c) slack oriented
(C) 4 (D) float oriented
(D) 5 92, Adummy activity :
(A) event but onlv a i
8g. Earthquake-resistant building ffi:alt""t#
" should have
(B) head event but no
(A) strong columns-strong beams Xi j":'1"
(B) weak columns-weak beams (C) does not require any resources
nor any time
(C) st4ong columns-weak beams
(D) has no sequence and can be
(D) weak columns-strong beams fitted anywhere
JE/PHEICE/[[/24146-a t4
Text of page 15
93. The most suitable equipment for 97. Addition of Poz,zolana to ordinary
compaction of cohesive soils is Portland cement causes
(A) smooth-wheeled roller (A) decrease in early strength
(B) vibratory roller (B) reduction in chemical action
with sulphates
(c) sheep-footed roller
(c) increase in shrinkage
i (D) tamper
(D) All of the above
94. As per IS:456-200O, the minimum 9g. Back bearing of a line is equal to
percentage of longitudinal steel in a
column is (A) fore bearing t 90"
,
(A) U5% (B) fore bearing t 180'
(B) O'7Vo. (C) fore bearing t 360"
(C) O'8o/o (D) fore bearingt2TO"
(D) L'oo/o
99. The vertical side member of a shutter
frame is known as
95. Short fails by
"oiu*, .o) style
(A) buckling (B) reveal
(B) bending (c) muuion
(C) crushing (D) post
(D) None of the above
1OO. Imaginary line passing through the
magnetic
e6. Due to attack ordry rot, tJre timber :::ffi.rrflJ?"J"Ti:
(A) cracks (A) isogonic line
(B) shrinks (B) agonic line
(C) reduces to powder (C) contour line
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above
JE/PHE/CElrrl24t46-A ls [P.T.O.
Text of page 16
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORI(
I
.I
i.di
***
JElPHE/CEltrl24l46-A 16 24T-1500x4
Text of page 1
..& q5f=f <rlf=F-E=f=ff qfc:ilt€t
i..-@Etr ).1 ASSA.]JI :'I.l BLIC SERVICE COll,III,TISSI('nl
Provisional Answer Key of OMR based Screening Test for
recruitment to the post of Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, Chemical) Public
Health Engineering Department
held on 14.07.2024
(Advt. No.29l2023 dated 3 1.10.2023)
Subiect: Paper - II (CIVIL ENGINEERING)
Series: A
Marks: f 00 Time: 2:00 hours
Q.NO. ANS_KEY Q.NO. ANS_KEY Q.NO. ANS_KBY Q. NO. ANS KEY
I B 26 B 5l C 76 C
2 C 27 A 52 A 77 C
3 B 28 D 53 D 78 A
4 B 29 D 54 C 79 C
5 C 30 B 55 D 80 B
6 D 31 B 56 D 81 A
7 B 32 C 57 C 82 B
8 A 33 B 58 B 83 C
o C 34 C 59 D 84 C
l0 B 35 C 60 A 85 C
11 D 36 D 61 A 86 A
12 A 37 C 62 B 87 C
13 B 38 A 63 C 88 C
t4 B 39 C 64 A 89 D
15 A 40 D 65 C 90 C
16 D 41 A 66 D 91 B
17 C 42 D 67 C 92 C
t8 C 43 B 68 B 93 C
t9 A 44 C 69 A 94 C
20 B 45 B 70 C 95 C
21 C 46 B 71 A 96 C
22 B 47 A 72 t] 9l D
B 48 B 73 C 98 B
24 B 49 A 74 C 99 A
25 C 50 A 75 A 100 A
Text of page 2
,&
:4,W.,;')
rry:Fr:5f
ASSAM PT.lELIC SEIIVICE
r=ilfc:ilf€t
Provisional Answer Key of OMR based Screening Test for
recruitment to the post of Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, Chemical) Public
Health Engineering Department
held on 14.07 .2024
(Advt. No.29l2023 dated 31.1,0.2023)
Subiect: Paper - II (CIVIL ENGINEERING)
Series: B
Marks: 100 Time: 2:00 hours
Q. NO. ANS-KEY Q. NO. ANS KEY Q. NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY
1 A lh D 51 B 76 D
2 B 27 B 52 C 77 C
3 C 28 A 53 B 78 B
4 C 29 C 54 C 79 D
5 C 30 B 55 C 80 A
6 A 31 D 56 D 8l A
1 C 32 A 51 C 82 B
8 C 33 B 5tt A 83 C
9 D 34 B 59 C 84 A
10 C 35 A 60 D 85 C
11 B 36 D 6l A 86 D
12 C 37 C 62 D 87 C
13 C 38 C 63 B 88 B
t4 C 39 A 64 C 89 A
15 C 40 B 65 B 90 C
16 C 41 C 66 B 9l A
t7 D 42 B 67 A 92 B
18 B 43 B 68 B 93 C
19 A 44 B 69 A 94 C
20 A 45 C 70 A 95 A
2t B 46 B 71 C 96 C
22 C 47 A 72 A 97 C
23 B 48 D 73 D 98 A
24 B 49 D 74 C 99 C
25 C 50 B 75 D 100 B
Text of page 3
.,,& q:rf=f CrIf=F-C:'f<f \rf,fc=ift€t
^s€ -
Provisional Answer Key of OMR based Screening Test for
recruitment to the post of Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, Chemical) Public
Health Engineering Department
held on 14.07 .2024
(Adrt. No.29i2023 dated 31.10.2023)
Subiect: Paper - II (CM ENGINEERING)
Series: C
Marks: 100 Time: 2:00 hours
Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO, ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY Q. NO. ANS KEY
1 A 26 A 51 D 76 D
2 B 27 C 52 A 77 C
3 C 28 C 53 B 78 A
4 A 29 D 54 B 79 C
5 C 30 C 55 A 80 D
6 D 31 B 56 D 8l A
7 C 32 C 57 C 82 D
8 B 33 C 58 C 83 B
9 A 34 C 59 A 81 C
10 C J) C 60 B 85 B
1l A 36 C 6t C 86 B
t2 B 37 D 62 B 87 A
13 C 38 B 63 B 88 B
14 C 39 A 64 B 89 A
15 A 40 A 65 C 90 A
16 C 41 B 66 Il 91 C
17 C 42 C 67 A 92 A
l8 A 43 B 68 D 93 D
l9 C 44 B 69 D 94 C
20 B 45 C 70 B 95 D
21 A 46 D 7l B 96 D
22 B 47 B 72 C o7 C
23 C 48 A 73 B 98 t]
24 C 49 C 74 C oo D
25 C 50 B 75 C 100 A
Text of page 4
q=|-=f Cqt<s-ta-=ft \5ttcE.t.5t
ASgiAN,l Pl,BLIC SERI'TCE C('PI IvIISSION'
Provisional Answer Key of OMR based Screening Test for
recruitment to the post of Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, Chemical) Public
Health Engineering Department
held on 14.07 .2024
(Adra. No.29l2023 dated 31.10.2023)
Subiect: Paper - II (CNIL ENGINEERING)
Series: D
Marks: 100 Time: 2:00 hours
Q. NO. ANS KEY Q. NO. ANS-KEY Q. NO. ANS KEY Q. NO. ANS_KEY
1 B l6 D 51 A 76 D
2 C 27 C >1- ts 77 B
3 B 28 B 53 C 18 A
4 C 29 D 54 C 79 C
5 C 30 A 55 C 80 B
6 D 31 A 56 A 8l D
7 C 32 B 57 C 82 A
8 A 33 C 58 C 83 ts
o C 34 A 59 D 84 B
10 D 35 C 60 C 85 A
11 A 36 D 6l B 86 D
t2 D C 62 C 87 C
13 B 38 B 63 C 88 C
14 C 39 A 64 C 89 A
l5 B 40 C 65 C 90 B
t6 B 41 A 66 C 91 C
t7 A 42 B 67 D 92 B
18 B 43 C 68 B 93 B
19 A 44 C 69 A 94 B
20 A 45 A to A 95 C
21 C 46 C 71 B 96 R
22 A 47 C 72 C 97 A
23 D 48 A 73 B 98 D
24 C 49 C 74 B 99 D
25 D 50 B 75 C 100 BPage 1 of 16
Source: Assam Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Assam Public Service Commission.