APSC JE 2026: Junior Engineer, Public Health Engineering Department (Advt. 27/2025), General Studies
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E r/rPH lscltlzsl L2
Series
Test Booklet No. :
TEST BOOKLET
08133
Gprpnan SruPrPs
Tlme Allowed:2 Hours Full Marks : 1OO
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(B) London
(C) Dhaka
(D)Dhubri
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25th Shanghai Cooperation Organi- b. Identi$ the correct statement.
zation (SCO) Heads of State Council
.Summit (2025t, was held in
(A) Central Council for Research in
Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS)
(A) Beijing (B) Tianjin has revived the rare Ayurvedic
manuscrip ts- D raug aratnaleara
(C) Moscow (D) New Delhi Niglwnfu and Draugannmalcara
Nighanfii
2. _ won the men's singles title at (B) The Ministry of AYUSH has
the 2025 Wimbledon Tennis revived the rare Ayurvedic
Championship. manuscript, Draugaratnalcara.
(A) Jannik Sinner (C) National Institute of Mental
Health and Neurosciences
(B) Carlos Alcaraz (NIMHANS) has revived the rare
manuscript Drauganamakara
(C) Novak Djokovic Nighantu.
(D) Roger Federer (D) AIIMS, Delhi has revived the rare
manuscript Draugantamnltara
Nighantu.
The theme of the tenth Governing
Council Meeting of NITI Aayog was
6, In weight category, Mirabai
(A) Viksit Rajya for Viksit Bharat Chanu won gold at the 2025
@2047 -
Commonwealth Weightlifting Cham-
pionship in Ahmedabad.
(B) Atmanirbhar Bharat
(C) Digital India
(A) 4e kg (B) 48 kg
(D) None of the above (c) 50 kg (D) 45 kg
The digital academy and e-learning 7. Amalsad Chikoo, which has received
platform for tribal art and culture the Geographical Indication (GI) tag
launched by the Ministry of Tribal belongs to
Affairs is
(A) Gujarat
(A) Janjatiya Kala Kendra
(B) Aadi Mahotsav (B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Adi Sanskriti (C) Odisha
(D) VanvasiVishwavidyalaya (D) Kerala
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8. The full form of NISAR, the satellite 12. SAKSHAM-3000 is a high-caPacitY
launched by ISRO on JulY 30, 2025 is switch-router and is develoPed bY
(A) National Indian Satellite lbr (A) Bharat Electronics Limited
(BEL)
Agricultural Research
(B) Centre for DeveloPment of
(B) NASA-ISRO SYnthetic APerture Telematics (C-DOT)
Radar
(C) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(C) New Indian Satellite for Aerial (HAL)
Reconnaissance
(D) Defence Research and DeveloP-
(D) None of the above ment Organisation (DRDO)
9. The headquarters of the United Match the following GrouPs with
Nations Office on Drugs and Crime
(UNODC) is located in their Regions regarding their
historical presence in ancient India :
(A) Geneva, Switzerland Groups Regions
(B) New York, USA Indo-Aryans 1. Northern and
(C) Paris, France Central India
(D) Vienna, Austria b. Dravidians 2. South India
c. Tibeto-Burrnan 3. Eastern India
10. and signed the India-UK
speakers (Jharkhand
Free Trade Agreement (FTA) in JulY
and Odisha)
-2025.
(A) Narendra Modi, Rishi Sunak Austro-Asiatic 4. North-East
(B) Amit Shah, Keir Starmer speakers India and
Himalayas
(C) Narendra Modi, Keir Starmer
(D) RishiSunak, NirmalaSitharaman Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below.
11. In the recently concluded cricket (A) a bcd
Test series between India and South 1 243
Africa played in India, the outcome
of the series was (B) a bcd
1 234
(A) India-O, South Africa-2
(c) a bcd
(B) India-l, South Africa-2 1 432
(C) India-O, South Africa-1 (D) a bcd
(D) India-O, South Africa-3 1 324
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L4. The organizatisn of society during Select the correct answer using the
the Ahom rule was known as codes given below.
(A) Paik or Khel system H a b c d
(B) Tewalsystem
L 2 3 4
(-B)a b c d
(C) Dewalsystem 4 g 2 1
(D) Got system (C) a b c d
1324
15. The Ahom king who first attempted (D) a b c d
to establish cultural contacts with 4 2 3 I
Delhi and Hindu rulers of India was
(A) Gadadhar Singha
18. The lirst urbanization in India is
(B) Rudra Singha associated with
(C) Jayadvaj Singha
B) Mahajanapadas
(D) Siva Singha (B) Mauryan Empire
(c) Harappan (Indus) civilization
16. which of the following is not
correcfly matched? (D) Gupta Age
(A) The Jaintia Rebellion-
186H3 19. The Indian National congress was
(B) The Phulaguri Uprising-1861 founded in
(C) The Patharughat Movement-
18e8 (A) 191e (B) 19os
(D) The Assam Riots-1893-94 (C) l8SZ (D) r88S
17. Match List-I with List-II :
List-r List_n 20' In#;T:",r"3o**t""ro' was
(Euents) (years)
a. Jallianwala Bagh 1. 1919 H it only proposed economic
Massacre refor:rls
b. Non-cooperation 2. l92o (B) it was set up by Gandhi
Movement
c. Salt Satyagraha 3. 1930 (C) it supported Independence
d. Quit India Movement 4. 1942 (D) it had no [ndian member
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2L. Which one of the following 29. IdentiS the correct statement
statements is not correct? regarding Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
(A) The lirst Session of the Assam (A) Tilak popularized the term
Association was held at 'Swaraj'.
Dibrugarh in 1905. (B) Tilak was the founder of the
(B) Ghanashyam Barua was its Indian National Army'
first General Secretary. (C) Tilak led the Non_violent Civil
Disobedience Movement'
(c) The Assam Association wanted
to uplift the common lives of 1p) Tilak was a Moderate leader
people in Assam. who avoided confrontation with
the British'
(D) The Association also represented
mainly the interests of the rising
middle class. 24. The major aim of the Salt
Satyagraha was
22. Match the Leaders with the (A) complete Independence
Movements they are most associated
with : (B) breaking the Salt law and
boycotting British salt
List-I List-r
(Leaders) (Mouements) (C) formation of a new Government
a.' Mahatma Gandhi 1. Home Rule (D) abolition of Zamindari system
,r\r
Movement
b. Subhas Chandra 2. Extreme 25. The famous book, India Wins
Bose Nationalism Freedom is the autobiography of
c. Lala Lajpat Rai 3. INA and
Forward Bloc (A) Bipin Chandra Pal
d. Annie Besant 4. Civil (B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Disobedience
Movement (C) Maulana Abul Iklam Azad
Select the correct answer using the (D) Lala Lajpat Rai
codes given below.
(Ala b c d
| 2 3 .4 26. The Chinese pilgrim Hiuen Tsang
visited Kamrupa during the reign of
(B) a b c d
4321 (A) Bhaskaravarman
(C) abcd/RlFrlraoqrtarra (B) Bhagadatta
1 3 2 4
(D) a b c d (C) Naraka
4 2 3 (o) salastambha
'
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27. Where is the Export Promotion In which district of Assam, a
Industrial Park situated in Assam? semiconductor plant is being set up
(A) Bamunimaidam in partnership with one of the
subsidiary companies of the Tata
(B) Amingaon Group?
(C) Chaygaon (A) Morigaon
(D) Haibargaon' (B) Nagaon
The Plastic Park situated at (C) Kamrup (Rural)
Gelapukhuri is in which district of (D) Sonitpur
Assam?
(A) Golaghat (B) Dibrugarh 33. SEED, an initiative under the
(C) Tinsukia (D) Dhemaji Department of Science and
Technolory, Government of India,
stands for
The 'Make in India'initiative (20l4l
targets increasing manufacturing (A) Science for Equity Empower-
sector's share in GDP to what ment and Development
percentage by 2025?
(B) Scientific Enquiry for Equitable
(A) t6o/o (B) 20% Development
(c) 25o/o (D) 30% (C) Scientific Evaluation for
Equitable Development
30. As a part of the 1991 reform (D) Science for the Earth, Equity
measures, which Committee and Development
recommended disinvestment in
PSUs?
34. INSPIRE is a flagship programme of
(A) NarasimhamCommittee the Department of Science and
(B) Abid Hussain Committee Technolory to attract young talents
to science. Which of the following is
(C) Rangara.ian Committee not an objective of INSPIRE?
(D) Bimaf Jalan Committee (A) To build the required critical
human resource pool for
31. Which of the following is a key strengthening science and
component of the 'Digital India' technologr in the country
initiatives?
(B) To expand science and techno-
(A) Enhancing physical infra- logr system in the country
structure
(C) To upgrade R & D base of the
(B) Promoting traditional industries country
(C) Providing digital infrastructure (D) To generate recruitment oppor-
as a utility to every citizen
tunities for the poor youth of
(D) Increasing agriculture the country
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g5. Which institute has developed a 38. Which organization has launched
next-generation device that produces the Agricultural Monitoring and
green hydrogen using only solar Detection (AMED) API for
PYt
Indian farmers?
energr?
(A) Google
(A) Indian Institute of Science, (B) Indian Council of Agricultural
Bengaluru Research (ICAR)
(B) centre for Nano and soft Matter (c) Food and Agricultural organi-
zation (FAo)
sciences, Bengaluru
(D) Ministry of Agriculture
(C) National Physics Laboratory,
New Delhi 99. Which phase of agricultural
(D) rndian rnstitute or rechnolory, il:lHl?;t""r"T;f"T"'J"1"y"Jl:
Bombay fike IoT and AI?
(A) Agriculture l'0
36. which institute has developed a (B) Agriculture 2'o
bamboo-polymer composite as an (c) Agriculture 3'o
eco-friendly alternative to plastic in (D) Agriculture 4'0
vehicle interiors?
(A)IlT,Guwahati40.Nametheinstitutewhichdeveloped
venom maps to predict the venom
(B) IIT, Delhi characteristics of Russell,s viper.
(A) University of Mumbai
(C) IIT, Ahmedabad (B) AIIMS, Delhi
(D) IIT, Bombay (c) Indian Institute of science,
Bengaluru
(D) IIT'' Delhi
97. which institute of India has
developed Al-powered robot for 41. Which body is responsible for the
border surveillance? devolution of taxes between Centre
states in India?
(A) IIT, Madra" 'nd
(A) NITI Aayog
(B) IIT, Bombay (B) Finance Commission
(C) . nT, Delhi
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(D) Ministry of Finance, the
(D) IIT, Guwahati Government of India
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42. Consider the following statements and In which case did the Supreme
identify the lnconect statement(s) : Court of India concede the right of
(a) The 42nd Amendment Act the Parliament to amend the Consti-
(19761 is known as 'Mini tution but denied it the right to
Constitution'. amend the basic structure of the
Constitution?
(b) The 42nd, Amendment Act
(L9761 added six new Directive (A) Golai<nath Case
Principles to the original list. (B) Uma Devi Case
(c) The 42nd Amendment Act (C) Kesavananda Bharati Case
{1976l' transferred live subjects (D) None of the above
to Concurrent List from the
State list.
(d) The 42nd Amendment Act Identify the lncotrect statement
connected to the President of India.
(19761 temporarily curtailed the
judicial review power of High (A) President is considered as an
Court. integral part of the Indian
Parliament.
Choose the correct aiswer from the
codes given below. (B) He is a member of the
Parliament.
(A) (a) only
(C) He summons and prorogues
(B) (b) only the meetings of the Union
(C) (b) and (c) only Parliament.
(D) (b) and (d) only (D) No bill passed by the Indian
Parliament can become an Act
43. Who among the following is/are not without his assent.
appointed by the President of India?
(A) Governors of the States 47. Consider the following statements :
(B) Chief Justice and'Judges of the (a) Habeas colpus literally means a
High Courts demand to produce the body.
(C) Vice President (b) Mandamus is a command to act
lawfully, and to desist from
(D) Chief Justice and Judges of the perpetrating an unlawful act.
Supreme Court of India
(c) Writ of prohibition is issued
44. Which of the following State against the administrative
agencies.
Governors enjoys special powers
with regard to the administration of Which of the above statements is/
tribal areas? are correct?
(A) odisha (A) (a) only
(B) Madhya Pradesh (B) (b) only
(C) Bihar (c) (c) only
(D) Assam (D) (b) and (c) only
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Text of page 9
Consider the following statements : 51. The Constitution of India names our
country as
(a) The first meeting of the
Constituent AssemblY was held (A) Hindustan
on 11 December 1946. (B) Bharat
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad was (C) India, that is Bharat
elected as its Permanent (D) Bharatvarsha
Chairman.
(c) On 13 December L946, the The Constitution of India was
Constituent Assembly adoPted adopted by
an Objective Resolution.
(A) the Constituent AssemblY
Which of the above statements is/ (B) the Governor General of India
are correct?
(C) the Parliament of India
(A) (a) only (D) the British Parliament
(B) (b) only
(C) (a) and (c) only 1
53. Which of the following is not true
about our Constitution?
(D) (a), (b) and (c) (A) A written Constitution
(B) Federal form of Government
49. As per the Indian Constitution, who (C) Parliamentary form of Govern-
is the Supreme Commander of the ment
Armed Forces in India?
(D) Dual Citizenship
(A) The Minister of Defence, India
(B) The Prime Minister of India 54. Which of the following Indian States
does nothave Sixth Schedule areas?
(C) The Chief of Defence Staff of
India
(A) Meghalaya (B) Tripura
(C) Nagaland (D) Mizoram
(D) The President of India
55. As per the Constitution of India, who
50. The Lok Sabha has the supremacy has the power to frame laws on the
in which of the following matters? subjects mentioned in the Union List
of Schedule 7?
(A) Railway Budget
(A) The Rajya Sabha
(B) Defence Budget
(B) The Lok Sabha
(C) Foreign Affairs (C) The Parliament
(D) Financial Bill (D) The Legislative Council
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Text of page 10
56. Which of the following is/are 59. Consider the following statements :
essential characteristic(s) of the (a) BrahMos is a supersonic
basic structure of the Indian medium range missile.
Constitution?
(A) Supremacy of the Constitution (b) BrahMos is a cruise missile
that can be launched only from
(B) Parliamentary Sovereignty land.
(C) Federal Character of the (c) BrahMos is manufactured in
Constitution Hyderabad by BrahMos Aero-
(D) Both (A) and (C) space.
(d) BrahMos Aerospace is a joint
57. Consider the following statements venture between India and
regarding Compressed Natural Gas Israel.
(cNG) :
Which of the above statements is/
(a) The CNG does not produce any are not correct?
greenhouse gas.
(A) (a) only
(b) The CNG is used in vehicles due (B) (b) only
to high autoignition tempera-
ture. (C) (b) and (c) only
Choose the lncon'ect statement (D) (b) and (d) only
from the codes given below :
The headquarters of International
(A) (a) only Renewable Enerry Agency (IRENA) is
(B) (b) only located at
(C) Both (a) and (b) (A) Abu Dhabi (B) Dubai
(D) Neither (a) nor (b) (C) Geneva (D) New York
Consider the following statements : 6L. Which of the following Indian States
have a boundary with Bangladesh?
(a) Tejas is a Light Combat Aircraft (a) Assam (b) Tripura
(LCA).
(c) Meghalaya (d) Mizoram
(b) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
(HAL) produces Tejas. Select the correct answer from the
codes given below.
(c) Tejas is capable of mid-air
refuelling. (A) (a) and (b) only
(d) Tejas is a multi-role jet fighter (B) (a), (b) and (c) only
and is powered by single (C) (a) and (c) only
engine.
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Which of the above statements are
correct? 62. Durand Line is the border between
(A) (a) and (b) only (A) India and Pakistan
(B) (a), (b) and (c) only (B) Pakistan and Afghanistan
(C) (a), (c) and (d) only (C) Iran and Afghanistan
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (D) Iran and Iraq
EJIEPH/ SC / | I 25 / 12 I 44-A 10
Text of page 11
63. Consider the following statements 67. The Southern tip of the Peninsular
and select the correct statement(s) Plateau is formed by the meeting of
from the codes given below : which two hill ranges?
(a) Mercury is the hottest planet in (A) Western Ghats and Cardamom
the solar system due to its Hills
proximity to the Sun. (B) Eastern Ghats and Nilgiri Hills
(b) Recent probes to Venus have (C) Western Ghats and Eastern
found traces of water on the Ghats
planet.
(D) Satpura and Vindhya
(A) (a) only
(B) (b) only 68. ONGC's Palatana Power Project is
(C) Both (a) and (b) located in
(D) Neither (a) nor (b) (A) Meghalaya (B) Assam
(C) Tripura (D) Kerala
The largest river of all the west-
flowing rivers of the Peninsular India 69. The 'Indira Point', India's southern-
is most tip is located in
(A) Tapti (B) Narmada (A) Car Nicobar island
(C) Krishna (D) Kaveri (B) Little Andaman island
(C) Great Nicobar island
Uranium is found in which of the (D) Middle Andaman island
following rocks?
(A) Sedimentary rocks Identify the pair that correctly
(B) Igneous rocks matches a southern tributary with
its State of origin.
(C) Metamorphic rocks (A) Kopili-MeghalayaHills
(D) Basalt rocks
(B) Dhansiri-Arunachal Pradesh
Indian oflicial (C) Digaru (Umtru)-Nagaland
66. According to
geography descriptions, the Thar (D) Bhogdoi-Manipur
Desert is split into 'Great Desert'and
'Little Desert'. Identiff the river that 71. The geographical area of Assam is
marks the boundary between these
two by its course. (A) 72ooo sq. km
(A) Luni river (B) 78438 sq. km
(B) Sabartrrati river
(C) Ghaggar river (C) 83500 sq. km
(D) Indus river (D) 69210 sq. km
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Text of page 12
72. Which of the following is not a 76. Folk dance 'Veeragase'is symbolic of
topographical division of Assam?
(A) celebration of harvest moon
(A) Brahmaputra valley
(B) rituals for peace treaties
(B) Surma valley
(C) heroism and valour of
(C) Assam ranges Veerabhadra during mytho-
(D) Shillong plateau logical conflict
79. Which of the following districts of (D) fertility workshop
Assam has/have boundary with
Bhutan? ?7. The Karnataka 'Puj? Kunitha' folk
dance is traditionally performed to
(a) Kokrajhar (b) Udalguri propitiate
(c) Sonitpur (d) Bongaigaon (A) sea deities
Select the correct answer from the (B) harvest deities only
codes given below.
(A) (a) only (C) Goddess Shakti
(B) (a) and (b) only (D) village ancestors
(C) (a), (b) and (c) only The 'Feast of Merit' among Naga
(D) (a), (b) and (d) only Communities functions historically
to
74. The Paa Saa festival of Arunachal
Pradesh primarily celebrates
(A) celebrate victory in war
(A) traditional Tai Khamti dance (B) confer social status and honour
upon the host
(B) preparation.of a traditional fish
dish (C) raise funds for festivals
(C) harvest rituals of the Tai (D) mark the New Year
Khamti
(D) bamboo handicraft making ?9. Name the month in which
Ambubachi Mela in Guwahati is
The Tribal and Folk Art Scheme celebrated.
under the South Central Zone (A) April (B) May
Cultural Centre (SCZCC) supports
which of the following among its (C) June (D) July
participating States?
(A) Only classical musicians 80. Which of the following dance forms
(B) Preserwation and promotion of is associated with the tea gardens of
Assam?
tribal folk art forms including
performances, festivals, costumes (A) Bihu dance
and musical instruments
(B) Jhumur dance
(C) Building new theatres only
(C) Sattriya dance
(D) Only visual arts, not dance or
music (D) Chhau dance
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Text of page 13
81. What is 'Thuria'? 85. If A is the brother of B, B is the
(A) It is a design worn as an sister of C and C is the father of D,
earring by ancient Assamese how is D related to A?
women. (A) Father
(B) It is a special dish prepared (B) Brother
during the celebration of Bihu
in ancient time. (C) Cousin
(C) It is a traditional cloth worn by (D) Nephew/Niece
male Bihu dancers.
(D) It is a form of traditional folk 86. A I kilometre long train is running
muSic sung during festivals. at a speed of 60 km per hour. It is
passing through a tunnel which is
1000 metres long. How much time
A2. The Cultural Mapping of Art and will the train take to come out of the
Ethnicity of Assam Project aims tunnel completely?
primarily to
(A) create a tourism brochure of (A) 1 minute (B) 2 minutes
ethnic outfits (C) 5 minutes (D) 29 minutes
(B) :documentation and scientifi-
cally preserve dft, traditions a7. Find the next number in the series :
and cultures of Assam's ethnic 22, 21, 19, 16, 12, .?..
groups
(C) export tribal handicrafts (A) 10 (B) e
globally
(D) promote one lingua franca (c) 8 (D) 7
among all tribes in Assam
88. On selling 17 balls at( 72O, there is
83. Ankia /Vaaf was written by a loss equal to the cost price of
5 balls. The cost price of a ball is
(O Srimanta Sankardev
(B) Madhavdev (A) il s0 (B) r 60
(C) Srimanta Sankardev and (c) t 6s (D) r s5
Madhavdev
(D) Srimanta Sankardev and 89. Paw : Cat :: Hoof : ?
Madhava Kandali
(A) Ttger (B) Horse
84. Introducing a man, Mukul said, oHis (C) Elephant (D) Wolf
wife is the only daughter of my wife".
How is Mukul related to the man?
90. When we multiply the first 5 prime
(A) Father numbers, we get
(B) Grandfather
(A) 232e (B) 2310
(C) Father-in-law
(D) Son-in-law (c) 2L3o (D) 2317
qrlEPH/ sc / t I 25 I L2 I +4-A 13 lP.T.O.
Text of page 14
91. A student scored the following marks 96. In a certain code ALPACA is written
in five of six subjects : as ACAPLA. How will ANIMAL be
written in that code?
91, 86, 81,79 and 92
The average of his/her marks in six
(A) LAMTNA (B) ALAMTN
subjects is 85. How many marks did (c) Lq,MNr.A (D) AAMLTN
he/she receive in the sixth subject?
(A) 83 (B) 85 97. Prabir starts for his oflice every
morning at 9:15 a.m. and reaches
(c) 81 (D) 88 there at 9:55 a.m. On Wednesday,
he started five minutes later than
92. In the first 10 overs of a cricket the time he started on Friday. Three
match, the run rate was only 3.20. days out of five days in the week he
What should be the run rate in the started late out of which Friday was
remaining 40 overs to reach the one of.the days. On how many days
target of 3O2 runs?
he started in time?
(A) 6.2s (B) 6.s0
(A) Two days (B) Three days
(c) 6.75 (D) 7.oo
(C) Four days (D) One day
93. A does 80% of a work in 20 days. He
then calls B and they together finish 98. If the day .before yesterday was
the remaining work in 3 days. How Thursday, when will Sunday be?
many days B alone would take to do
the whole work? (A) Tomorrow
(A) 29 days (B) 34Yz days , (B) Day after tomorrow
(C) 3672 days (D) 37Yz days (C) Today
94. Find the next number in the series. (D) None of the above
2,6, 12,20, 30, .?.. 99, Metal is related to CONDUCTIQN in
the same manner in which Plastic is
(A) 38 (B) 40 related to
(c) 42 (D) 44 (A) TNDUCTTON
95. Sudeshna is richer than Rima (B) INFLAMMATION
whereas Ananta is richer than Priya.
Amal is as rich as Rima. Shyama is (c) TNSULATTON
richer than Sudeshna. Which of the (D) PETROCHEMTCALS
following statements is correct
according to the above propositions?
1OO. A is the father of B and C. B is the
(A) Rima is poorer than Priya. son of A but C is not the son of A.
(B) Priya is richer than Amal. What is C's relation with A?
(C) Amal is poorer than Sudeshna. (A) Daughter (B) Son
(D) Ananta is richer than Rima. (C) Niece (D) Nephew
E J/EPH/SC I | / 25 / t2 I 4+A 14
Text of page 16
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
"I
c
***
EJ/EPH/ SG / r I 25 ! 12 I 44-A 16 26T-255Ox4
Text of page 1
q=f=f ffiqTcjilt€f
A=iSAtr'I PII ELIIC SER.\'ICE COIgl NNI=ISIIC'!{
Jawaharnagar. Ktranapara,
Provisional Answer Key of Screening Test (OMR based MCQ type) for the post of
Junior Engineer (CiviV Mechanical/ Chemical/ Electrical)
under Public Health Engineering Department.
(Advt. No. 27 12025 Dtd. 1110812025)
Date of Examination: 22,02.2026
Subiect: (Paper-I) GENERAL STUDIES
Series: A
Marks: 100 Time: 2:00 hours
Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KBY
1 B 26 A 51 C 76 C
2 A 27 B 52 A 77 C
a
J A 28 C 53 D 78 B
4 Cr 29 C 54 C 79 C
5 A 30 C 55 C 80 B
6 B 31 C 56 D 81 A
7 A 5Z A 57 A 82 B
8 B JJ A 58 D 83 A
9 D 34 D 59 D 84 C
10 C 35 B 60 A 85 D
l1 A 36 A 6t D 86 B
12 B 37 D 62 B 87 D
13 A 38 A 63 D 88 B
t4 A 39 D 64 B 89 B
15 B 40 C 65 C 90 B
16 C 4t B 66 A 9t D
I7 A 42 B 67 C 92 C
18 C 43 C 68 C 93 D
t9 D 44 D 69 C 94 C
20 D 45 C 70 A 95 C
21 B 46 B 7l B 96 A
22 B 47 C 72 D 97 A
23 A 48 D /J B 98 A
24 B 49 D 74 B 99 C
25 C 50 D 75 B 100 A
Text of page 3
q=fsf ffiqtclsft€t
ASIsAFI P1I BLIC EIER,I'ICE CO]'I fUIIS=IIOn|
anaPara. G u uvatr ati-787-O22 -
Provisional Answer Key of Screening Test (OMR based MCQ type) for the post of
Junior Engineer (CiviU MechanicaU Chemical/ Electrical)
under Public Health Engineering Department.
(Advt. No. 27 12025 Dtd. 1110812025)
Date of Examination: 22.02.2026
(Paper-I) GENERAL STUDIES
C
100 Time: 2:00 hours
Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY
1 D 26 B 51 A 76 A
2 D 27 B 52 C 77 B
J D 28 B 53 A 78 C
4 C 29 C 54 B 79 A
5 A 30 C 55 A 80 B
6 D 31 B 56 A 81 C
7 C 32 C 57 C 82 C
aa
8 C JJ B s8 A 83 C
9 D 34 A 59 B 84 C
10 A 35 B 60 A 85 A
11 D 36 A 6t B 86 A
I2 D 37 C 62 D 87 D
13 A 38 D 63 C 88 B
l4 D 39 B 64 A 89 A
l5 B 40 D 6s B 90 D
t6 D 41 B 66 A 9t A
t7 B 42 B 67 A 92 D
18 C 43 B 68 B 93 C
19 A 44 D 69 C 94 B
20 C 45 C 70 A 95 B
21 C 46 D 7l C 96 C
22 C 47 C 72 D 97 D
23 A 48 C IJ D 98 C
24 B 49 A 74 B 99 B
25 D 50 A 75 B 100 C
Text of page 4
q=rsf ffiqtcilt€t
,\S!5Ai'I PII BLIG SER\'IGE COM MI!=IS TON
Jawah arnagar, Kh anaPa ra. G Ll lvah ati- 747-a 22.
Provisional Answer Key of Screening Test (OMR based MCQ ffie) for the post of
Junior Engineer (Civil/ Mechanical/ Chemical/ Electrical)
under Public Health Engineering Department.
(Advt. No. 27 12025 Dtd. 1110812025)
Date of Examination: 22.02.2026
Subiect: (Paper-I) GENERAL STUDIES
Series: D
Marks: 100 Time: 2:00 hours
Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY
I B 26 B 51 B 76 A
2 B 27 C 52 D 77 A
J A 28 D 53 B 78 A
4 B 29 D 54 B 79 C
5 C 30 D 55 B 80 A
6 A 31 C 56 C 81 B
7 B )Z A 57 C 82 A
aa
8 C JJ D 58 B 83 A
9 C 34 C 59 C 84 C
10 C 35 C 60 B 85 A
11 C 36 D 6T A 86 B
t2 A 37 A 62 B 87 A
13 A 38 D 63 A 88 B
t4 D 39 D 64 C 89 D
15 B 40 A 65 D 90 C
t6 A 41 D 66 B 91 A
t7 D 42 B 67 D 92 B
18 A 43 D 68 B 93 A
t9 D 44 B 69 B 94 A
20 C 45 C 70 B 95 B
21 B 46 A 7l D 96 C
22 B 47 C t2 C 97 A
Z) C 48 C 73 D 98 C
24 D 49 C 74 C 99 D
25 C 50 A 75 C 100 DPage 1 of 16
Source: Assam Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Assam Public Service Commission.