APSC JE 2026: Junior Engineer, Public Health Engineering Department (Advt. 27/2025), Mechanical Engineering

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKID TO DO SO
Sedes
Test Boolrlet No. :
01393 TEST BOOKLET
MpCxINICAL ETCITIPERING
Time Allowed: 3 Hours Futl Marks : lOO
Read tlrc folloulng lnstructdons earefiilly betote gou begln to answer rlte qt*stlons t
1. The name of the Subject, Roll Number as mentioned in t}le Admission Certificate, Test Booklet No. and Series
are to be written legibly and correctly in the space provided on the Ansu-er-Sheet with Black/Blue ballpoint pen.
2. Aaswer-Sheet without marklng Series as meatloned above ln the space povided for ln the Answei-Sheet
shall not be evaluated,
3. All questions carry equal marks.
The Answer-Sheet should be submitted to the Invlgllator.
Direaior* for giuing tle ansuters : Directions for answering questions have alr:ady been issued to the respective
candidates in the 'Instructions for marking in the OMR Answer-Sheet'along with the Admit Card and Specimen
Copy of the OMR Answer-Sheet.
bamplet
Suppose the following
The capital of Bangladesh i
(A) Chennai
(E) lnndon
(C) Dhaka
(D) Dhubri
You will have four in the Answer-Sheet for your response corresponding to each question of the
Test Booklet as below :
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In the above illustration, if en response is alternative (C), i.e., Dhaka, then the same should be marked
on the Answer-Sheet by the relevant circle with a Black/Elue ballpoint pen only as below :
The example shown above is
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only correct method of answerirg.
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5. Please ensure that t}le Test has the required number of pages 116) ard lOO questions immediately after
opening the Booldet. In case discrepancy, please report the sane to Lre invigilator.
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shall be permitted hand over his/her Answer-Sheet and have the Examination Halt/Room before
expiry of the full time allotted each paper.
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Hall/Room by the candidates. Mobile Phone, Electronic Communication Device, etc., found in possession
of the inside the HaII/Room, even if on off mode, shall be liable for confiscation.
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paper, except Certificate and other connected papers permitted by the Commission.
10. Complete must be in the Examination Hall/Room. N: candidate shali copy from the paper of
any other , or permit her own paper to be copied, or give or atbmpt to give, or obtain, or attempt
to obtain assistance any kind.
11. This Test t can be with you after answering the questiors in dre prescribed Answer-Sheet.
L2. Noncompliance any of above instructions will render a candilate liable to penalty as may be deemed
fit.
13. No rough work to be done on OMR Answer-Sheet. You can do the rough work on the space provided in the
Test Booklet.
N.B. : There will raegatiwe tnarking Gg ()'26 per I (onel rnark 4ainst each wrorrg arrslnrer.
146-A I No. of Questions : 1OO I
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1. Resolution of a force means 4. The angle of inclination of the plane
at which the body begins to move
(A) changing the direction of a force down the plane is called
without altering magnitude
(A) angle of friction
(B) combining multiple forces to
form a single resultant (B) angle of repose
(C) splitting a force into (C) angle of projection
components without changing
its effect (D) None of the above
(D) reducing the magnitude of a
force in given direction D. A body of weight 2OO N is placed on
a rough horizontal plane. If the
coe{ficient of friction between the
2. A force of 100 N is acting at a point body and the horizontal plane is 0'3,
making an angte of 30' with the the horizontal force required to just
horizontal. If the force is resolved in slide the body on the plane is
two components namely & and &
along horizontal (x-axis) and vertical (A) 7ON (B) 4s N
(y-axis) directions, then Fs
component of the force in vertical (c) 60 N (D) es N
direction will be
(A) 1OO sin 6O'
6. Triangular shape frame is a/afi
(B) 100 sin3O' frame.
(c) 100 cos5O" -{A) imperfect (B) deficient
{D} 1OO cos 3O"
(C) perfect (D) redundant
A. A small block of weight lOO N is 7. The law of a machine is defined by
placed on an inclined plane which ?rt eguation wtrich gives the
makes an angle 0 = 45o with the relationship between the
honzontal The component of the
weight perpendicular to the inclined (A) effort required and the
plane will be corresponding load
(A) 1OO sin 45" (B) mechanical advantage and the
crrresponding load
(B) IOO sin 6O"
(C) lifting machine and t}te load
(C) 1OO cos 45"
(D) effort and tlee efficiency of the
tD) 1O0 tan 45" machine
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I
8. A machine having an e{Iiciency less L2. Sagging bending moment occurs at
than 50% is known as the of the beam.
I
(A) reversible machine (A)-srppcats
(B) non-reversible machine (B) r:rid span
(C) ideal machine (C) point of contraflexure
(D) None cd the above
(D) point of emergence
9. The wheel d a moving car possesses
(A) potential enerry only 13. The area moment of inertia of a
triangular section of base b and
(B) kinetic enerry of translation height h about an axis through its
only base is
(C) kinetic enerry of rotation onlY
bh3
(D) kinetic enerry o: translation \.r,
4
and rotation both
bh3
(B)
I
10. Bending raoment in a beam is
mildmum when the
(c) *
(A) shear force is minimum
tB) shear force is maximurn
(D)
(C) shear force is zero *
{D} shear force is corstant
L4. The stress acts tangential to
11. The point cf contra-fLex-:re is a point ci(cu:nference is called stress.
where
:roop -
(A) bending moment changes sign
:luid
(B) bending moment:s maximum
(C) bending moment:s minimum iongitudinal
(D) shear force is zero (D yield
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15. When is a fluid called hrbulent? 19. Bernoulli's equation is applied to
(A) High viscosity of fluid (A) venturi meter
(B) Reynolds number is greater (B) orilice meter
than 2ooo
(c) pitot tube meter
(c) number is less than (D) Au of the above
SIlous
(D) The density of the fluid is low 20. Reynolds number is the ratio of the
inertia force to the
(A} gravitational force
16. The compressible flow is assumed to
be (B) surface tension
(A) adiabatic only (C) viscous force
(B) isentropic only (D) elasticity
(c) isentropic and adiabatic bot].
zr. According to the principre of
(D) polytropic buoyancy, a body totally or partially
immersed in fluid will be lifted up by
a force equal to
17, An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill (4 the weight of ttre body
which of the following?
(B) ** the weight of the
tA) Newton,s law of motion il:T
{B,) Newton's law of viscosit5r tC} less than the weight of the body
tc) continuity equation (D) weight of the fluid displaced by
the body
{D} Bounda4r layer theory
22. When a fluid is flowing past an
18. The pressure of a liquid measured immersed body, and at a point on
with the help of a piezometer tube is the body if the resultant velocity
becomes zero, the point is called
(A) vacuum pressure (A) Mach point
{B) atmospheric pressure (B} static point
tC) absolute pressure (C) stagnation point
(D) gauge pressure (D) zero point
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I
23, The surface tension of mercury at 27. is an inversion of double-siider
normal temperature compared to cranl.: chain.
that of water is
(A) rloupling rod of locomotive
(A) more (B) Scotch yoke mechanism
(B) less (C) Hand pump
(C) same (D: Reciprocating engine
(D) more or less depending on size
of glass tube 28. A higfer pair has
(A) point contact
24. A fluid in equilibrium cannot sustain
(BI surface contact
(Ci :o contact
(A) tensile stress
(DJ llone of the above
(B) compressive stress
(C) shear stress 29. The relation between number of
pairs p forming a kinematic chain
(D) bending stress and the number of links I is
(AI 1=2p-Z
25. A balloon lifting in air follows which
of the following principles?
(Br l=2p-3
$ Law of gravitation (Ct l=2p-4
(B) Archimedes principle
(C) Principle of buoyancy
30. The efficiency of a screw jack is
(D) All of the above maximum, when
tAi cr= 450+02
25. The stress-strain relation of the
Newtonian fluid is
{Br a=45o-92
(A) linear
(q G=90"*Q
(B) parabolic
(C) hyperbolic
(D) o=90o-s
where s=Helix angle and Q=angle
(D) inverse t5rpe of friction.
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31. The module of a gear is 94. A porter governor is a/an
(A) (A) pendulum type governor
?
(B) dead weight governor
(B) tC) spring loaded governor
;
(D) inertia governor
(c)
T
(D) 35. The size of a gear is usually specified
T by
(A) pressure angle
82. The centrifugal tension in belt
(B) circular pitch
(A) increases power transmitted
(C) diametral pitch
(B) decreases power transmitted
(D) pitch circle diameter
(c) have no effect on power
transmitted
(D)
*[:-T" ,f;."3,* 'T,]:1 s6.
Il:.-"nr,*
uPon its
speed or a shart depends
transmission
(A) mass
33. The ratio of height of porter governor (B) stiffness
(when length of arms and links are
equa$ to the height of watt governor {c) mass and stiffrress
is (D) stiffness and eccentricigr
* {m+M}
m
37. Drawing showing the position of
M
{Bl -_________:_:: each part with respect to each other
lm+ Ml is called.
,^\ m (A} assembly drawing
\\., {m+ Ml
(B) part drawing
(D) None of the above
(C) machine drawing
wtrere m is tlre mass of the ball and
M is the mass of the sleeve. (D) installation drawing
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38. Detaited drawing of each part of a 42, A hexagon is placed parallel to
machine is catled vertical plane. Which of tlle following
projections is true?
(A) part drawing
(A) Front view-line, top view-
(B) assembly drawing hexagon
(C) patent drawing (B) Front view-hexagon, top view-
line
(D) tabular drawing
(C) Front view-line, toP view-line
39. Isometric drawings are often used by (D) Top view-hexagon, side view-
to help illustrate complex line
designs.
43. In an isothermal process
(A) mechanicalengineers
(A) internal enerry increases
(B) piping drafters
(B) internal enerry decreases
(C) aerospaceengineers
(C) there is no change in internal
(D) All of the above energr
(D) None of the above
40. A line drawn with a long section,
short dash and another long section #. lVork done in a free expansion
is a Procesg is
(A) hidden feature (A)
",ero
{B) center of a circle {B} positive
(C) center axis of a hidden cytnder (C) negative
{D) center of a radius (D} mardmum
45. The area uader the temperature-
41. The angle between the isometric entropy curue (f-s cunre) of any
axes is thermod5mamic process represents
(A) 180' (A) heat absorbed
tB) 12O" (B) heat rejected
(C) 90" (C) Either (A) or (B)
(D) 60' (D) None of the above
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46. In Carnot cycte, heat is received at 50. In thermodynardcs, standard fixed
_ temperature. point is
(A) lower {A} vapour point of water
(B) higher (B) ice point of water
(C) constant (C) boiling point of H2
{D) None of the above (D) triple-point of water
47. When the temperature difference
increases, the coefficient of sl. lf m1 arrd rb are the masses of
performance (coP) of a carnot heat [quid and vapour respectivety ia a
pump fiquid-vapour mixture, then what is
(A) increases the formula for dryness fraction x?
(B) decreases ($ * =l*r+*z)
m1
{C) first increases, then decreases
(D) None of the above (B) * =(*, **zl
m2
48. Carnot cycle has maximum
efficiency for tC) x=--m\-
(m1+m2l
tA) reversible engine
{B} irreversible engine ) ry2 :
{D} x = {m1+m2l
(C) petrol engine
(D) diesel engine
62. What is the dryness fraction x for
49. which of the following items is not a when water just
path function? :*t""t"s#ter'
(A) Heat (A) 'tr = o
(B) Work (B) x = I
(C) Kinetic eners/ (C) x = O.9
tD) Thermal conductivi[r (D) x = O .5
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53. The graphical representation of 57. Reheating of steam
transformation of lkg of ice into
l kg of superheated steam at (A) decreases steam rate
constant pressure is known as
(B) increases steam rate
(A) u-u diagram
(C) No effect on steam rate
(B) h-s diagram
(D) None of the above
(C) p-u diagraan
(D) t-h diagram
58. The efficiency of diesel cYcle
increases with
54. is a boiler mounting. (A) decrease in cut-off
-(CI Injector (B) increase in cut-off
(B) Economizer (C) constant cut-off
(C) Superheater (D) None of the above
(D) Fusible plug
59. The thermal efficiency of diesel
engines is about
55. Gas turbine is also known as
(A) 15o/o
(A) steam flrrbine
(B) 30o/o
{B} combustion turbine
(c) 50%
(C) velocity turbine
(D) None of the above {D} TOV|
60. Which of the following gases has the
56. Gas turbines work on which of the highest calorific value?
following cycles?
(A) Coal gas
(A) Otto cycle
(B) Producer gas
(B) Diesel cYcle
(c) Rankine rycle (c) Moad gas
(D) Brayton cycle (D) Blast furnace gas
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61. What is a hydropower plant? 65. Compounding of steam turbine is
(A) It produces mechanical eners/ done for
from the moving water currents (A) reducing the work done
(B) It produces electrical energr from (B) increasing the rotor speed
:
the stagaant water currents
(C) It produces potential ener*r (C) reducing the rotor speed
from the moving water currents (D) balancing the turbine
(D) It produces electrical energ,
from the moving water currents
66. In Rankine cycle, the work output
62. Where was India's first nuclear from the turbine is given by
power plant installed?
()
(A) obninsk ;:tr3; ;1:, ITXi","',"'o
(B) Tarapur, Maharashtra
tB) change of enthatpy between
(C) Boisar, Maharashtra inlet and outlet
(D) None of the above (c) change of entropy between inlet
and outlet
68. Rankine efliciency of a steam power
plant {D) thanse of temperature between
inlet and outlet
(A) improves in summer as
compared to that in winter
(B) improves in winter as compared 67. A single-stage impulse turbine is
to that in summer also known as
(C) is una"ffected by climatic (A) Curtis stage turbine
conditions (B) reaction turbine
(D) None of the above
{C) De Laval turbine
&. The draught produced by chimney of {D) Rateau turbine
given height at given outside
temperature
(A) decreases if the chimney gas 68. The pressure ratio per stage for a
temperature increases centrifugal compressor is
(B) increases if the chimney gas (A) 16 : I
temperature increases
(B) 1o:1
(C) remains same irespective of
chimney gas temperature (C) 8 : 1
(D) may increase or decrease (D) 4 : I
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69, Jigs and fixtures are used for 79. Grinding of hard materials requires
(A) mass production (A) Iine grit size and hard grades
(B) identical parts production (B) fine grit size and soft grades
(C) Both (A) and (B) (C) coarse grit size and soft grades
(D) None of the above (D) coarse grit size and hard grades
I[Ihich of the following is/arc the Continuous chips with built-up edge
function(s) of a jig? are formed during machining of
(A) Holding (A) brittle metals
(B) Locating
(B) ductile metals
(C) Guiding
(C) hard metals
(D) All of the above
(D) soft metals
7t. The angle on which the strength of
the tool depends is Tool signature consists of
elements.
(A) rake angle
(A) two
(B) cutting angle
(C) clearance angle (B) four
(D) lip angle (C) five
(D) seven
72, In gnnding to get good surface
finish, the grain size of the abrasive
used is 76. T\rmbler gear in lathe is used to
(A) coarse (A) reduce the spindle speed
(B) fine (B) cut gears
(C) Grain size does not aIfect (C) grve desired direction of
surface finish movement to the lathe carriage
(D) None of the above (D) drill a workpiece
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Text of page 12
?7. The lead screw of a lathe has 81. In drilling operation, the metal is
threads. removed by
-
(A) single start (A) shearing
tB) double start (B) extrusion
(C) multi-start (C) shearing and extrusion
{D} None of the above tD) shearing and compression
7A. In shaper machine a2. A twist drill is a/an
(A) tool is stationar5r while (A) end cutting tooi
workpiece reciprocates .
(B) side cutting tool
(B) workpiece is stationary while
tool reciprocates (C) front cutting tool
(C) both the tool and workpiece (D) None of the above
reciprocate
(D) both the tool and workpiece gg. The hot working of metals is carried
rotate out
(A) at the recrystallization
79. The size of a shaper is given by temperature
(A) stroke length (B) below the recrystallization
temperature
{B} motor power
(C) above the recrystallization
(C) mass of machine temperature
{D} rate siae (D} at any temperature
8(). Which type of mechanism is used in 84. The increase in hardness due to cold
shaper machine? working is called
(A) Indexing mechanism (A) age hardening
(B) Four-bar mechanism {B) work hardening
tC) Quick rehrrn mechanism (C) induction hardening
(D) None of the above (D) flame hardening
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Text of page 13
85. Cast iron and steel pipes afe 89. Which of the following is un-
produced by conventional machining process?
(A) slush casting (A) Grinding
(B) investment casting {B} Milling
(C) true centrifugal casting (C) Ttrrning
(D) die casting (D) Electrochemical machining
86, The brass.and bronze are welded by
flame.
90. Which of the following is
conventional machining process?
tA) neutral
(B) oxidizing (A) Electrochemical machining
(C) carburizing (B) Milling
(D) All of the above (C) Electro-discharge machining
(D) None of the above
a7. Seam welding is a/an
(A) c.ontinuous spot welding
process 91. In electro-discharge machining, tool
is made of
(B) multi-spot welding proc€ss
(C) arch welding process (A) brass
(D) process used for joining round (B) coPper
bars (c) copper-tungsten alloy
88. A neutral flame in o;ry-acegrlene gas {D} All of the above
welding is obtained by supplying
(A) equal volume of o>irygen and
acet5rlene 92. Dielectric is used in
(B) more volume of oxygen and less (A) electrochemical machining
volume of acetylene
(B) ultrasonicmachining
(C) more volume of acetylene and
less volume of o>grgen (C) electro-discharge machining
(D) None of the above (D) laser machining
EJ I EPI{ / EM I tr I 2s I t2 I 46'A 13 lP.r.o.
Text of page 14
93. Why is metal removal process 97. Which of the following casting
costly? techniques has a greater impact in
semiconductor industry?
(A) More energr is required
(4 single crystal
tB) some of the materials is wasted
(c) Both, more enerry is required E) Induction melting
and some of the
L*s materials r-
r'ralsrrqD is (C) Directional solidilication
wasted
(D) None of the above (D) Conventional casting
94. The toor material for faster 98' which of the following functions of I
production planning and control is
machining should have
related to the timetable of activities?
(A) wear resistance
1A; Scheduling
(B) red hardness
(B) Dispatching
(C) toughness
(C) Expediting
(D) All of the above
(D) Routing
95. What is the relationship between
CAD and CAM? 99. Which of the following is not a
popular production system?
(A) Manufacturing and marketing
(B) science and engineering tA) continuous production
(B) Job order production
{c} Design s.d rnanufacturing
(D) Design and marketing (c) Batch production
(D) Project production
96. Why are designs periodically
modified? 1(x). which of the following is not the
D
(A) To strive for zero-based system of flexible manufacturing r
rejection and waste sYstem?
(B) To make products easier and (A) F'abrication
faster to manufacture
(B) Drilling
(C) To improve product
performance (C) Machining
(D) All of the above (D) Assembly
EJ I EPH / EM I il / 2s / t2 I 46-A 14
Text of page 15
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK EJIEPIJIE,rl'd/il/25112146-A 15 lP.r.o.

Text of page 16
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
lal
I rnl
-
Lil
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***
Dr / EP}J / EM I tr | 25 / L2 I 46-A 16 26T-425x4
Text of page 1
q=f=f ffiqtc=rt€t
AStSAlvt Pl.t BLIC SER.\'ICE COIUT t IISSTOhI
Provisional Answer Key of Screening Test (oMR based MCQ type) for the post of
Junior Engineer (CiviU MechanicaU ChemicaU Electricat)
under Public Health Engineering Department.
(Advt. No. 27 12025 Dtd. lll08l202s)
Date of Examination: 22.02.2026
Subiect: (Paper-II) MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
Series: A
Marks: 100 Time: 2:00 hours
Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY
I C 26 A 51 D 76 C
2 B 27 B 52 A 77 A
a
J C 28 A 53 D 78 B
4 B 29 C 54 D 79 A
5 C 30 B 55 B 80 C
6 C 3t A s6 D 81 C
7 A 32 D 57 A 82 A
aa
8 B JJ A 58 A 83 C
9 D 34 B s9 D 84 B
10 C 35 D 60 A 85 C
il A 36 C 6I D 86 B
I2 B )/ A 62 B 87 A
13 C 38 A 63 B 88 A
t4 A 39 D 64 B 89 D
l5 B 40 C 65 C 90 B
16 B 4t B 66 B 9l D
t7 C 42 B 67 C 92 C
18 D 43 C 68 D 93 C
t9 D 44 A 69 C 94 D
20 C 45 C 70 D 95 C
21 D 46 B 71 A 96 D
22 C 47 B 72 B 97 A
23 A 48 A 73 B 98 A
24 C 49 D 74 B 99 D
25 D 50 D 75 D 100 B
Text of page 2
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ASISAIVI PI.l ELIC SER.\'IICE GOIIJ! MTSSIOn|
Jawaharnaqor, Kl-ranapara, Guwa 7A7.O2Z-
Provisional Answer Key of Screening Test (oMR based MCQ ffie) for the post of
Junior Engineer (Civil/ MechanicaU ChemicaU Electrical)
under Public Health Engineering Department.
(Advt. No. 27 12025 Dtd. 1110812025)
Date of Examination: 22.02.2026
Subiect: (Paper-II) MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
Series: B
Marks: 100 Time: 2:00 hours
Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KBY Q.NO. ANS KEY
1 A 26 B 51 B 76 A
2 B 27 C 52 A 77 D
a
J A 28 B 53 C 78 D
4 C 29 C 54 B 79 B
5 C 30 C 55 A 80 D
6 A 3t A 56 D 81 A
7 C 32 B 57 A 82 A
8 B 53 D s8 B 83 D
9 C 34 C 59 D 84 A
10 B 35 A 60 C 85 D
11 A 36 B 61 A 86 B
t2 A 37 C 62 A 87 B
13 D 38 A 63 D 88 B
14 B 39 B 64 C 89 C
15 D 40 B 65 B 90 B
16 C 4t C 66 B 9l C
t7 C 42 D 67 C 92 D
18 D 43 D 68 A 93 C
t9 C 44 C 69 C 94 D
20 D 45 D 70 B 95 A
2l A 46 C 7l B 96 B
22 A 47 A 72 A 97 B
23 D 48 C t) D 98 B
24 B 49 D 74 D 99 D
25t C 50 A 75 D 100 C

Text of page 4
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ASISAN'T PII BLIC SER.I'ICE COIYI ll'IISSIOnl
JawaFrarnagar, Khanapara, Gu
Provisional Answer Key of Screening Test (oMR based MCQ type) for the post of
Junior Engineer (CiviU Mechanical/ Chemical/ Electrical)
under Public Health Engineering Department.
(Advt. No. 27 12025 Dtd. 1110812025)
Date of Examination: 22.02.2026
Subieqt: (Paper-II) MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
$eries: D
Marks: 100 Time: 2:00 hours
Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY Q.NO. ANS KEY
1 A 26 A 51 B 76 A
2 C 27 D 52 B 77 D
J D 28 D 53 D 78 B
4 A 29 D 54 C 79 C
5 B 30 A 55 A 80 B
6 A 31 D 56 B 81 C
7 C 32 D 57 A 82 B
8 B JJ B s8 C 83 C
9 A 34 D 59 C 84 C
10 D 35 A 60 A 85 A
11 A 36 A 61 C 86 B
t2 B 37 D 62 B 87 D
13 D 38 A 63 C 88 C
t4 C 39 D 64 B 89 A
15 A 40 B 65 A 90 B
t6 A 4l B 66 A 9l C
t7 D 42 B 67 D 92 A
18 C 43 C 68 B 93 B
t9 B 44 B 69 D 94 B
20 B 45 C 70 C 95 C
21 C 46 D 71 C 96 D
22 A 47 C 72 D 97 D
23 C 48 D 73 C 98 C
24 B 49 A 74 D 99 D
25 B 50 B 75 A 100 CPage 1 of 16
Source: Assam Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Assam Public Service Commission.