GPSC Assistant Engineer 2018: Preliminary, Assistant Engineer (Civil) Class-2 (Special Drive)
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AAA
PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
GENERAL STUDIES & CONCERNED SUBJECT
NAME OF THE POST Assistant Engineer (Civil), Class-2
Advertisement No. 40/2017-18 (Special Drive)
Preliminary Test held on 07-01-2018
Que No. 001– 300
Publish Date 11-1-2018
Last Date to send
suggestion(s) 19‐1‐2018
Note:‐
(1) All Suggestions are to be sent with reference to website published Question paper
with Provisional Answer Key Only.
(2) All Suggestions are to be sent in the given format only.
(3) Candidate must ensure the above compliance.
(1) ઉમેદવાર વાંધા- ૂચનો ર ૂ કરવા વેબસાઇટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત ન ૂનાનો ઉપયોગ કરવો.
(2) ઉમેદવારોએ પોતાને પર ામાં મળે લ સીર ઝની ુ તકામાં છપાયેલ માંક ુ બ વાંધા-
જ
ૂચનો ર ૂ ન કરતા તમામ વાંધા- ૂચનો વેબસાઇટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર ક ના
માંક ુજબ અને તે સંદભમાં ર ૂ કરવા
(3) ઉમેદવારોએ ઉ ત ૂચના ંુ અ ૂક પાલન કર ંુ અ યથા વાંધા- ૂચનો ગે કરલ ર ૂઆતો યાને
લેવાશે નહ .
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AAA
PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
NAME OF THE POST Assistant Engineer (civil) Class- II
Advertisement No. 40/2017-18
Preliminary Test held on 07-01-2018
Que No. 101– 300
Publish Date 11-1-2018
Last Date to send
suggestion(s) 19‐1‐2018
Note:‐
(1) All Suggestions are to be sent with reference to website published Question paper
with Provisional Answer Key Only.
(2) All Suggestions are to be sent in the given format only.
(3) Candidate must ensure the above compliance.
(1) ઉમેદવાર વાંધા- ૂચનો ર ૂ કરવા વેબસાઇટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત ન ૂનાનો ઉપયોગ કરવો.
(2) ઉમેદવારોએ પોતાને પર ામાં મળે લ સીર ઝની ુ તકામાં છપાયેલ માંક ુ બ વાંધા-
જ
ૂચનો ર ૂ ન કરતા તમામ વાંધા- ૂચનો વેબસાઇટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર ક ના
માંક ુજબ અને તે સંદભમાં ર ૂ કરવા
(3) ઉમેદવારોએ ઉ ત ૂચના ંુ અ ૂક પાલન કર ંુ અ યથા વાંધા- ૂચનો ગે કરલ ર ૂઆતો યાને
લેવાશે નહ .
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101. Correct match of Column I (types of rocks) with Column II (method
of formation) and Column III (example of rock) is
Column I Column II Column III
P. Igneous L. Deposition of layers in X. Marble
water bodies followed by
intense pressure
Q. Metamorphic M. Volcanic action followed by Y. Granite
cooling of lava
R. Sedimentary N. Formed from other rock Z. Dolomite
types due to heat or
pressure or both
(A) PMX, QLY, RNZ (B) PNY, QMZ, RLX
(C) PMY, QNX, RLZ (D) PLZ, QNY, RMX
102. Correct match of Column I (chemical classification of rocks) with
Column II (main mineral/s contained in the rock) is
Column I Column II
P. Silicious rocks 1. carbonate of lime
Q. argillacious rocks 2. sand, quartz
R. calcarius rocks 3. clay minerals
(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-2
(C) P-1, Q-3, R-2 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-3
103. Correct match of Column I (types of stones) with Column II (types
of work for which they are used) is
Column I Column II
P. Marble 1. damp-proofing, flooring, roofing, etc.
Q. Slate 2. Fire resistant masonry
R. Limestone 3. ornamental work, flooring, etc.
S. Compact sandstone 4. raw material for cement
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (B) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
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104. A simple field test carried out to determine deterioration of stones
when immersed in water is known as
(A) Absorption test (B) Moh’s hardness test
(C) toughness test (D) Smith’s test
105. The machine used to determine hardness of stone is called
(A) Dorry’s testing machine
(B) Deval testing machine
(C) Brinell Hardness testing machine
(D) Rockwell hardness test machine
106. Correct match of Column I (types of bricks) with Column II
(properties or use) is
Column I Column II
P. Ground-moulded bricks 1. Also called stock bricks
Q. Table-moulded bricks 2. Irregular dimensions
R. Machine-moulded bricks 3. Used for decorative works
S. Pressed bricks 4. Also called wire-cut bricks
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (B) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
107. The main disadvantage of concrete blocks used for masonry as
compared to bricks is
(A) lower strength
(B) higher moisture content
(C) more requirement of mortar
(D) Shrinkage due to moisture movement
108. Ordinary lime mortar is cured by
(A) water (B) air
(C) covering it with sand (D) exposing to high temperature
109. The total percentage of dicalcicum silicate and tricalcium silicate in
all types of Portland cement is around
(A) 50% (B) 60%
(C) 70% (D) 90%
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110. White cement is white in colour due to
(A) use of limestone and china clay free from metal oxides
(B) its modified manufacturing process
(C) specific chemical treatment given to ordinary cement
(D) none of these
111. Correct match of Column I (types of cement) with Column II
(properties or preparation) is
Column I Column II
P. Portland pozzolana 1. Ordinary Portland cement with less
cement than 5% tricalcium aluminate
Q. Sulphate-resisting 2. Contains 25 to 60% slag which
Portland cement offers good sulphate resistance
R. Portland slag cement 3. Grinding the clinkers with oleic acid
S. Hydrophobic cement 4. Requires longer curing time than
Ordinary Portland cement
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (B) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
112. The fineness of cement is expressed as
(A) mm (B) m2/kg
(C) grade (D) kg/m3
113. Soundness test is carried out on cement to determine
(A) sound penetration capacity of cement
(B) the presence of sound material in cement
(C) the presence of uncombined lime in cement
(D) none of these
114. The apparatus used for measuring soundness of cement is
(A) Vicat’s apparatus (B) Le Chatelier’s apparatus
(C) Briquette apparatus (D) Lechate apparatus
115. In Vicat’s apparatus, the cross-sectional area of needle used is_____ ,
and time to penetrate ______ is used to measure initial setting time
of cement.
(A) 1 mm2, 33-35 mm (B) 10 mm2, 20-25 mm
(C) 1 mm2, 0.5 mm (D) 5 mm2, 5 mm
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116. The main advantage of adding pozzolanas in cement is
(A) longer life
(B) reduced cost and permeability of concrete
(C) slower setting time
(D) faster setting time
117. The most undesirable properties of water used for making concrete or
mortar are:
(A) high concentration of carbonates
(B) high concentration of bicarbonates
(C) high concentrations of sulfate and chloride
(D) high concentration of silicates
118. The main undesirable properties of concrete are:
i) Undergoes shrinkage
ii) Requires careful attention during manufacturing, placing, and curing
iii) Has lower tensile strength
iv) For equal load, cement members are heavier than steel members
(A) i and iv only (B) i, ii, and iv only
(C) i, ii, iii, and iv (D) ii, iii, and iv only
119. Test carried out to determine tensile strength of concrete is called
(A) split test or Brazilian test (B) Vee-Bee test
(C) triaxial loading test (D) compression test
120. RMC is acronym of
(A) Rapidly mixed concrete (B) Ready mixed concrete
(C) Readily mix concrete (D) Recently mixed concrete
121. Ratio of plastic moment to yield moment is known as
(A) Moment co-efficient (B) Shape factor
(C) Plastic modulus (D) Poisson ratio
122. In plastic analysis of structures, the segment between any two
successive plastic hinges is assumed to deform as ________.
(A) A plastic material (B) A rigid material
(C) An elastic material (D) An inelastic material
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123. The ratio of axial deformation to the original length of the body is
known as
(A) Lateral Strain (B) Linear stress
(C) Linear Strain (D) Poisson’s ratio
124. If longitudinal strain is tensile, the lateral strain will be……
(A) tensile (B) compressive
(C) zero (D) not determined
125. Complimentary shear stresses are the shear stresses acting on a set of
planes which are
(A) having zero normal stress
(B) having maximum normal stress
(C) at an angle of 45° to each other
(D) orthogonal to each other
126. Poisson’s ratio is defined as the ratio of
(A) longitudinal stress to linear stress
(B) longitudinal strain to lateral strain
(C) lateral stress to longitudinal stress
(D) lateral strain to longitudinal strain
127. Bulk modulus K is defined as a ratio of
(A) Direct stress to volumetric strain
(B) Volumetric stress to direct strain
(C) Young’s modulus to volumetric strain
(D) Direct stress to torsional strain
128. At any point in a stressed body, the principal planes can be located
by identifying a set of orthogonal planes passing through the point
and having shear stress on it as
(A) zero (B) maximum
(C) minimum (D) anticlockwise
129. Modulus of Rigidity is defined as a ratio of
(A) Shear strain to shear stress
(B) Torsional stress to shear strain
(C) Shear stress to shear strain
(D) Torsional strain to shear stress
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130. Modulus of Rigidity G can be expressed in usual notations as
E E
(A) (B)
2 `1 + n j 2 `1 + 2n j
2E 2E
(C) (D)
`1 + n j `1 + n j
131. Choose the correct option classifying the following structure.
(A) Indeterminate to 1st degree (B) Indeterminate to 2nd degree
(C) Determinate (D) Unstable
132. If a plane truss satisfies the condition m = 2j – 3 where m is
number of member, and j is number of joints, then it is……
(A) Determinate internally (B) Determinate externally
(C) Indeterminate internally (D) Indeterminate externally
133. Moment area method is best suitable for finding
(A) Slope & deflection of cantilever beam
(B) Slope & deflection of continuous beam
(C) Deflection of simply supported beam
(D) Slope of fixed beam
134. In moment area method the slope of real beam at a section is
represented by
(A) Bending moment of M/EI diagram
(B) Shear force of M/EI diagram
(C) Total area of M/EI diagram
(D) Area of Shear Force Diagram of real beam
135. A fixed or clamped support in real beam becomes…………in
conjugate beam.
(A) Free (B) Remains fixed
(C) Hinge (D) Roller
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136. Which of the following statements is not applicable to Unit Load
Method?
(A) External and internal forces are in equilibrium
(B) The structure is determinate
(C) The material is strained well within elastic limit
(D) The structure is redundant
137. Slope deflection method is suitable for analysis of
(A) Continuous beam (B) Simply supported beam
(C) Fixed beam (D) Cantilever beam
138. A force equal to product of mass times acceleration and acting in
direction opposite to acceleration is called
(A) Damping (B) Friction
(C) Inertia force (D) Equilibrant force
139. For undamped free vibrations, the natural frequency is given in usual
notation by
m k
(A) k
(B) m
2k k
(C) m
(D) 2m
140. The ratio of change of dimension of the body to the original
dimension is known as
(A) Strain (B) Stress
(C) Force (D) Pressure
141. The stress induced in a body, when subjected to two equal and
opposite forces which are acting tangentially across the section is
known as
(A) Compressive stress (B) Tensile stress
(C) Shear stress (D) Bending stress
142. The ratio of ultimate stress to the permissible stress is called….
(A) Factor of safety (B) Design factor
(C) Stress factor (D) Load factor
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143. Modulus of elasticity (E) is defined in terms of bulk modulus (K) and
poisson’s ratio (1/m) as
2l 1l
(A) 3K b1 + m (B) 3K b1 - m
2l
(C) 3K b1 - m (D) 3K b1 - m
2
l
144. For the beam of span L, carrying UVL as shown in figure, the maximum
bending moment is
W/m
2 2
(A) WL
8
(B) WL
12
2 2
(C) WL
10
(D) WL
4
145. For a cantilever beam of span L carrying uniformly distributed load, w
on its entire span, the maximum bending moment is ______
2
(A) WL
2
(B) WL
2
2 2
(C) WL
4
(D) WL
8
146. What is maximum bending moment for beam shown in figure ?
2
(A) Wba
2 (B) Wab
l
l
2 2 2
(C) Wab (D) Wa2 b
l2 l
147. In simply supported beam of rectangular cross section, the bending stress
is ____ and shear stress is ____ at neutral axis.
(A) Zero, Maximum (B) Maximum, Zero
(C) Zero, Zero (D) Maximum, Maximum
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148. The equation of pure bending in usual notation is
f f
(A) M
R
= E =
Y I
(B) M
Y
= E =
I R
f f
(C) MI = E =
R Y
(D) M
R
= E =
I Y
149. For Rectangular section of simply supported beam the maximum shear
stress ( Tmax ) is………times average shear stress (Tavg ) .
(A) 1.3 (B) 1.0
(C) 1.5 (D) 2.0
150. In case of industrial steel structure, sag rods are designed as ________.
(A) Torsional member (B) Compression member
(C) Bending member (D) Tension member
151. What is the value of Maximum effective slenderness ratio (KL/r) for a
compression flange of beam against lateral torsional buckling?
(A) 180 (B) 250
(C) 300 (D) 350
152. What is the value of Maximum effective slenderness ratio (KL/r) for
a member carrying compression loads resulting from dead loads and
imposed loads only?
(A) 180 (B) 250
(C) 300 (D) 350
153. Partial Safety Factor (rm0) for field welds is ___________.
(A) 1.25 (B) 1.50
(C) 1.00 (D) 2.00
154. In design of steel structures using Working Stress method of design,
the factor of safety (FOS) is applied to _________.
(A) Loading
(B) Yield stress of material
(C) Sectional properties of the members
(D) Safe bearing capacity (SBC) of soil
155. What is the Buckling class for hollow cold formed Sections as per
IS:800, 2007?
(A) Buckling Class a (B) Buckling Class b
(C) Buckling Class c (D) Buckling Class d
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156. What will be effective length of prismatic compression member having
unsupported length ‘L’ if one end is restrained for translation and rotation
and other end is free for translation and rotation?
(A) 0.65L (B) 1.0L
(C) 0.8L (D) 2.0L
157. To avoid buckling in a compression member
(A) Slenderness ratio should be less
(B) Radius of gyration should be less
(C) Slenderness ratio should be more
(D) Area of cross section should be less
158. To account for shear deformation effects in battened columns, the
ratio of the effective slenderness ratio (KL/r)e to the maximum actual
slenderness ratio (KL/r)0 of column is to be considered as
(A) More than 1 (B) 1.0
(C) 0.5 (D) 0.1
159. The effective slenderness ratio for laced column shall be ________ times
the maximum actual slenderness ratio to account for shear deformations.
(A) 1.5 (B) 2.5
(C) 0.75 (D) 1.05
160. For steel columns with lacing, the lacing is usually designed to resist
transverse shear Vt which is dependent on.
(A) Axial load on column (B) Shear force on column
(C) Bending moment in column (D) Axial force in lacing
161. The heaviest section for same depth as per Indian Standard hot rolled
steel sections is.
(A) ISHB (B) ISMB
(C) ISWB (D) ISLB
162. For hot rolled steel section design of beams, as per Indian Standard
code a laterally supported beam means.
(A) Web is restrained
(B) Compression flange is restrained
(C) Tension flange is restrained
(D) Web thickness is more than 10mm
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163. In case of hot rolled steel section, a beam with a series of regular
openings in its web is called _________.
(A) Tapered Beam (B) Hybrid Beam
(C) Castellated Beam (D) Latticed Beam
164. In case of rolled steel beam, shear force is mainly resisted by
______
(A) Web (B) Flange
(C) Web and flange (D) Weld
165. The design bending strength of laterally unsupported beam is governed
by _________.
(A) Lateral torsional buckling strength
(B) Yield stress of material
(C) Type of loading
(D) Type of support
166. What is minimum edge distance from centre of the bolt of diameter,
d to nearest edge of plate in case of rolled, machine-flame cut, sawn
and planed edges?
(A) 3.0 d (B) 1.5 d
(C) 2.0 d (D) 2.5 d
167. End returns in fillet welds should not be less than _____________ .
(A) Twice of size of the weld (B) 1.5 times of size of weld
(C) Size of the weld (D) 0.5 times of size of weld
168. Minimum spacing of vertical stiffeners in plate girder of depth d is
limited to ___________.
(A) d/4 (B) d/3
(C) d/2 (D) 2d/3
169. To prevent local crushing of the web due to concentrated loading, which
type of stiffeners are provided?
(A) Torsion stiffeners (B) Diagonal stiffeners
(C) Load carrying stiffeners (D) Bearing Stiffeners
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170. In industrial roofs, purlins are designed as
(A) Axial Member (B) Compression member
(C) Bending member (D) Tension member
171. In design of isolated RC footing, the critical section for two way shear
is considered at a distance of ____ from the face of column/pedestal.
(A) d/2 (B) d
(C) d/3 (D) 2d
172. The factor of safety against sliding should be more than _____.
(A) 1.1 (B) 1.4
(C) 2.0 (D) 1.8
173. In design of heel of cantilever RC retaining wall, the main steel is
usually provided at _______ .
(A) Centre (B) Bottom
(C) Top (D) Both at top and centre
174. Minimum percentage of steel reinforcement for HYSD bars in walls,
slabs and roofs of water retaining concrete structure as specified by
Indian Standards is
(A) 0.2% (B) 0.24%
(C) 0.40% (D) 0.12%
175. Maximum width of crack in RC water retaining structures is restricted
to ________ .
(A) 0.05 mm (B) 0.30 mm
(C) 0.01 mm (D) 0.20 mm
176. For RC braced frames maximum redistribution of moment allowed is
(A) 30% (B) 40%
(C) 20% (D) 10%
177. Importance factor (I) for residential or commercial buildings with
occupancy more than 200 persons as per IS:1893 (2016) is
(A) 1.5 (B) 1
(C) 1.2 (D) 2.0
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178. Storey drift in any storey shall not exceed ______ times the storey
height under the effect of design base shear applied as per IS 1893,
2016.
(A) 0.004 (B) 0.002
(C) 0.008 (D) 0.001
179. For simply supported pre stressed concrete beam having uniformly
distributed load on its entire span the pre stressing tendon has the
maximum eccentricity at
(A) The supports
(B) The centre having maximum moment
(C) The quarter points
(D) The section having maximum shear
180. In a tensile test on a concrete cylinder, tensile strength of concrete can
be obtained by the formula in usual notations as _______.
(A) P/πD (B) 2P/π2LD
(C) P/πLD (D) 2P/πLD
181. As per IS:456 a concrete column may be considered as short when it’s
slenderness ratio is less than
(A) 18 (B) 15
(C) 12 (D) 20
182. The maximum percentage of tension reinforcement in beam shall not
exceed ______ of cross sectional area as per IS:456.
(A) 0.15% (B) 2.00%
(C) 4.00% (D) 0.12%
183. Thickness of stem at the base of cantilever RC retaining wall of height
h should be between _______.
(A) h/6 and h/10 (B) h/12 and h/15
(C) h/12 and h/8 (D) h/5 and h/10
184. Maximum spacing of vertical stirrups permitted in RC beam having
depth D is ________ .
(A) 0.75 D (B) 2.0 D
(C) 0.5 D (D) 0.25 D
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185. The minimum percentage of steel reinforcement to be provided in design
of reinforced concrete slab in terms of cross sectional area is
(A) 0.20% (B) 0.15%
(C) 0.12% (D) 0.25%
186. Modular ratio (m) for concrete can be calculated as ______ .
(A) 250/σcbc (B) 280/3σcbc
(C) 280/σcbc (D) 250/3σcbc
187. Minimum percentage of cross sectional area to be provided as longitudinal
reinforcement for design of RC column is _______ .
(A) 6% (B) 0.6%
(C) 0.8% (D) 1.0%
188. In nominal mix of concrete designated by 1:2:4, the values indicates
the proportion of
(A) Course aggregate : Fine aggregates : Cement
(B) Cement : fine aggregates : coarse aggregates
(C) Cement : water : aggregates
(D) Aggregates : cement : water
189. Design of column strip and middle strip is carried out separately for
(A) Waffle slab (B) Ribbed slab
(C) Flat slab (D) Cantilever slab
190. For moderate exposure, the minimum nominal cover to reinforcement
to meet durability requirements as specified by IS 456, 200 is
(A) 50 mm (B) 30 mm
(C) 75 mm (D) 20 mm
191. A typical sequence of following development phases in a construction
project is
(P) Plan development,
(Q) Commissioning
(R) Concept analysis
(S) Execution
(A) P-Q-R-S (B) P-R-S-Q
(C) P-S-R-Q (D) R-P-S-Q
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192. The full form of PERT method of project network analysis is:
(A) Project Estimation and Review Technique
(B) Program Evaluation and Review Technique
(C) Project Estimation and Report Technique
(D) Partial Evaluation and Review Technique
193. The full form of acronym CPM is:
(A) Construction Project Method (B) Critical Project Method
(C) Critical Path Method (D) Critical Program Method
194. The CPM network analysis is a ______ based method useful for
________.
(A) activity, research and development projects
(B) event, construction projects
(C) event, research and development projects
(D) activity, construction projects
195. The PERT network analysis is a ______ based method useful for
________.
(A) activity, research and development projects
(B) event, construction projects
(C) event, research and development projects
(D) activity, construction projects
196. In CPM and PERT methods activities are connected with each other in
_______.
(A) finish-to-start manner
(B) overlapping manner
(C) partially finish-to-start and partially overlapping manner
(D) random manner
197. Precedence Network Analysis (PNA) method of network analysis better
addresses the real life situation in a construction project than CPM
because
(A) it is very precise
(B) it is independent of activities
(C) it does not allow overlapping of activities
(D) it allows overlapping of activities
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198. The volume of soil to be excavated in its in-place natural state is called
(A) Compacted cubic meter (B) Basic cubic meter
(C) Bank cubic meter (D) Natural cubic meter
199. One of the following is not a earth excavation and lifting equipment
(A) Power shovel (B) Backhoe
(C) Dragline (D) Bulldozer
200. In construction project management, Sensitivity Analysis is a modeling
technique used
(A) to identify sensitive components of the project
(B) to determine impact of uncertainties having significant impact on
project
(C) to determine important activities of a project
(D) to determine accuracy of budget estimation
201. If a worker dies while working on a site, under which one of the
following laws the compensation is payable?
(A) Factories Act
(B) Provident Fund Act
(C) Workmen’s compensation Act
(D) Employees State Insurance Act
202. The order of following basic causes of accidents in civil engineering
works starting from less severe to more severe is:
i) persons being trapped or struck by moving objects
i) persons/material falling from height
iii) persons stepping on or striking against objects
(A) i – ii - iii (B) iii – i - ii
(C) iii – ii - i (D) ii – i - iii
203. Correct match of Column I (types of occupational health hazards in
civil engineering projects) with Column II (cause of hazard) is
Column I Column II
P. physical hazard 1. inhalation of dust, fumes, vapor, gases, etc.
Q. chemical hazard 2. exposure to noise, vibration, electrical shock
working away from home, frequent
R. biological hazard 3.
migration, etc.
S. social hazard 4. exposure to infectious bacteria and fungi
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (B) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
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204. In case of a unit-price contract, if a contractor quotes higher rates for
some items and lower for the other items in the tender, then such a
tender is known as:
(A) irregular tender (B) unbalanced tender
(C) balanced tender (D) regular tender
205. In a civil engineering work contract, the purpose of appointing an
arbitrator is to
(A) arbitrarily take measurement of works done
(B) avoid legal formalities, delays, and expenses
(C) make the contract legal
(D) avoid arbitration and increase speed of work
206. The main purpose of framing the conditions of contract is
(A) to make the work stronger and long lasting
(B) to avoid the disputes between parties
(C) to make the contractor responsible for any problem
(D) to make the owner responsible for any problem
207. The correct match of Column I (type of contract) with Column II (type
of works where they can be used) is:
Column I Column II
P. Unit price 1. Limited work but exact quantities are
contract known
Q. Lump-sum 2. Quality of each item of work is known
contract but exact quantities are unknown
R. Percentage 3. Quality as well as quantity of each
contract item of work are unknown
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2 (B) P-3, Q-2, R-1
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-3 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2
208. The amount which is paid at the time of submitting a tender is known
as:
(A) earnest money deposit (B) security deposit
(C) license money deposit (D) earnest and security deposits
209. Once a tender is accepted, a deposit of about 5% of the total estimated
cost of the work is called:
(A) earnest money deposit (B) security deposit
(C) license money deposit (D) earnest and security deposits
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210. At the time of opening of the tenders invited for public works by a
public body,
(A) the contractor is not allowed to remain present
(B) the contractor is invited to remain present
(C) the contractor may be or may not be invited
(D) the contractor do not like to remain present
211. Kinematic viscosity has the dimension as
(A) MLT-2 (B) ML-1T2
(C) ML-1T-1 (D) L2T-1
212. The resultant hydrostatic force on a submerged body acts through a
point known as
(A) Centre of pressure (B) Centre of gravity
(C) Centre of buoyancy (D) Metacenter
213. In steady flow
(A) Velocity is constant along the flow direction with distance at any
time
(B) Velocity increases at constant rate at a point with time
(C) Velocity is constant at a point with time
(D) Rate of change of velocity remain constant along flow direction at
any time
214. In a venturimeter installed in a horizontal pipe the pressure is maximum
at
(A) Entry point of convergent section
(B) Midpoint of convergent section
(C) Midpoint of divergent section
(D) Throat section
215. The velocity distribution in laminar flow through circular pipe follows
(A) Logarithmic profile (B) Linear profile
(C) Parabolic profile (D) Constant velocity profile
216. Froude’s number is the ratio of
(A) Inertia force to viscous force (B) Inertia force to gravity force
(C) Pressure force to inertia force (D) Viscous force to inertia force
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217. The model and prototype are dynamically similar if both the systems
have
(A) Similarity of forces (B) Similarity of motion
(C) Similarity of shape (D) Similarity of discharge
218. In water hammer in rigid pipe, the velocity of pressure wave in terms
of bulk modulus (K) and density (ρ) can be obtained by
p p
(A) k
(B) 1r k
k k
(C) 1r p
(D) p
219. Kinematics of fluid describes
(A) the fluid motion considering the forces causing the motion
(B) the fluid motion without consideration of the nature of forces causing
the motion
(C) the fluid without motion
(D) the forces on floating body
220. In an long pipeline flowing fluids, which of the followings is causing
minor loss?
(A) Pipe material (B) Pipe slope
(C) Valves and Bends (D) D-W Friction factor
221. A surge tank is provided in a hydroelectric power station to
(A) increase the net head across the turbine
(B) reduce water hammer problem in the head race tunnel
(C) reduce frictional losses in the system
(D) to provide access to flow system
222. The growth of the turbulent boundary layer thickness as compared to
the laminar boundary layer takes place
(A) at a slower rate (B) at a faster rate
(C) at the same rate (D) at unpredictable rate
223. In open channel flow, critical flow occurs at constant discharge when
(A) specific energy is 1 m (B) specific energy is minimum
(C) the bed gradient is 1% (D) depth is minimum
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224. In mild slope channel with uniform flow, the HGL
(A) coincides with the bed
(B) is above the free surface
(C) coincides with the free surface
(D) is below the free surface
225. For a hydraulically efficient rectangular open channel section, the
width to depth ration is
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0
(C) 1.33 (D) 2.0
226. Darcy Weisbach friction factor for headloss computation can be obtained
from
(A) Moody’s diagram (B) Strange curve
(C) specific energy diagram (D) Blench’s curve
227. Two identical pumps operating in parallel
(A) boosts the discharge
(B) boosts the head
(C) boosts both the discharge and head
(D) delivers same discharge and head that of single pump
228. In impulse turbine the total energy at inlet is
(A) pressure energy and kinetic energy
(B) pressure energy
(C) kinetic energy
(D) mechanical energy
229. To avoid cavitation in reaction turbine
(A) the minimum pressure in the passage of a flow should always
be more than the vapour pressure of the water at the working
temperature
(B) the velocity should be high
(C) the discharge should be constant
(D) the speed of turbine should be less that runaway speed
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230. The underground power houses are found to be more economical than
an equivalent surface power station due to
(A) low temperature
(B) low noise pollution
(C) less the amount of concrete is required compared to a surface power
station
(D) better foundation condition
231. Which of the following hydrological process has storage as well as
transportation aspects
(A) Precipitation (B) Evaporation
(C) Runoff (D) Groundwater
232. Hyetograph is a plot of
(A) Accumulated rainfall vs. time (B) Rainfall intensity vs. time
(C) Runoff vs. time (D) Infiltration intensity vs. time
233. To convert the point values of precipitation at various stations into mean
precipitation over an area can be obtained using
(A) Rational method (B) Geometrical progression method
(C) Isohyetal method (D) Isometric mean method
234. In a dilution technique of stream flow measurement, which of the
following chemicals is used?
(A) Common salt (B) Alum
(C) Sodium hexa-meta phosphate (D) Diluted HCL
235. The Muskingum method of flood routing is a
(A) hydraulic routing method
(B) form of reservoir routing method
(C) hydrologic channel routing method
(D) Complete numerical solution of St Venant equations
236. Hydrological draught is indicated by
(A) Precipitation less than 25% from normal value.
(B) Inadequate soil moisture during growing season
(C) Solar radiation above the mean value
(D) Surface water and ground water deficit
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237. A permanent long term solution to drought problem may be found in
the basic principles of
(A) Raising reservoir levels
(B) Transfer of water from surplus river basins to areas of deficit.
(C) Cloud seeding
(D) Extracting groundwater in large quantities.
238. The surface joining the static water levels in several wells penetrating
a confined aquifer represents
(A) water table surface (B) perched water table surface
(C) cone of depression (D) piezometric surface
239. The unit of coefficient of transmissibility is
(A) m2/s (B) m/s
(C) unit less (D) m/s2
240. Which of the following structures is constructed for artificial recharge
of groundwater?
(A) Weir with d/s inverted filters (B) Percolation Tank
(C) Infiltration Gallery (D) Escape
241. Which of the following methods is used in subsurface investigation of
GW?
(A) Standard penetration test
(B) Air surging and pumping method
(C) Resistivity logging method
(D) Cathodic Protection Method
242. Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the name of Indian
river basins in descending order of average annual runoff potential?
(A) Narmada > Godavari > Tapi (B) Godavari > Narmada > Tapi
(C) Tapi > Narmada > Godavari (D) Narmada > Tapi > Godavari
243. A medium irrigation project has CCA
(A) More than 1,00,000 hectare
(B) Between 10,000 to 1,00,000 hectare
(C) Between 2,000 and 10,000 hectare
(D) Less than 10,000 hectare
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244. Which of the following is not a surface irrigation method?
(A) Sprinkler Irrigation (B) Border Irrigation
(C) Furrow Irrigation (D) Basin Irrigation
245. In estimation of the crop water requirements, the delta of a crop is
expressed in a unit
(A) hectare pre cumec (B) hectare
(C) cumecs (D) mm
246. The ratio of total deposited sediment in reservoir to the total
sediment inflow over a period is
(A) Surcharge (B) Bed load factor
(C) Displacement efficiency (D) Trap efficiency
247. Which of the following conditions is not satisfying true regime
condition as suggested by Lacey’s theory?
(A) Discharge is constant
(B) Flow is uniform
(C) Silt grade and silt charge is variable
(D) Soil is incoherent alluvium
248. Pressure relief valves are provided in lined canal when
(A) canal is in full cutting
(B) canal is in full banking
(C) canal is in partial cutting and banking
(D) canal is in barrel form in aqueduct
249. In glacis type fall, the energy is dissipated due to
(A) hydraulic jump (B) bucket rollers
(C) ground rollers (D) impact
250. In ogee shaped spillway, for head over crest, H, the discharge is
proportional to
(A) H (B) H0.5
(C) H2.5 (D) H1.5
251. Inorganic clays have specific gravity usually between following range
(A) 2.70 to 2.80 (B) 1.65 to 2.65
(C) 2.40 to 2.50 (D) 2.90 to 3.00
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252. Coarse grained soils, containing fines between 5% - 12%, are designated
as :
(A) GW-GM and SP-SM (B) CL-ML
(C) GW-SC (D) AM-DW
253. When sustained downward seepage forces are acting on the soil and
later when seepage stops, soil will become
(A) Pre consolidated (B) Normally consolidated
(C) Under consolidated (D) Pre compacted
254. Bishop’s method of stability analysis
(A) Is more conservative
(B) Is not preferred
(C) Neglects the effect of forces acting on the sides of the slices
(D) Assumes the slip surface as an arc of a circle
255. When liquidity index is between 0 and 1 the soil will behave like
(A) Liquid (B) Plastic
(C) Solid (D) Sand
256. In active state of plastic equilibrium in a non cohesive soil with horizontal
ground surface
(A) Major principal stress is horizontal
(B) Major principal stress is vertical
(C) Minor principal stress is inclined
(D) Minor and major principal stresses are equally inclined to horizontal
257. The Westergaard analysis is used for
(A) sandy soils (B) stratified soils
(C) cohesive soils (D) clayey soils
258. According to Vesic, deep foundations in sand having Df/B ratio greater
than 10 are likely to fail in
(A) General shear failure mode (B) Local shear failure mode
(C) Punching shear failure mode (D) Local bending failure mode
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259. If Cv is the coefficient of consolidation, t is the time and d is drainage
path of one dimensional consolidation of soil, the time factor Tv, is
given by
(A) Tv= Cv t/d2 (B) Tv= t/(d2Cv)
(C) Tv = Cv3/(d2t) (D) Tv= Cvt/(dt2)
260. If the water content of a fully saturated soil mass is 100%, then the
voids ratio of the sample is
(A) Less than specific gravity of soil
(B) Equal to specific gravity of soil
(C) Greater than specific gravity of soil
(D) Independent of specific gravity of soil
261. Fine grained soil are sub divided into
(A) Silt and clay (B) Sand and clay
(C) Organic and silt (D) Gravel and peat
262. In terms of permeability parameter, which of the following statement is
true
(A) clays>silts>sands (B) silts>sands>clays
(C) sands>silts>clays (D) silts>rock>clays
263. A stand pipe in the grout hole is absolutely essential during grouting
operation of soil when
(A) There are many surface cracks
(B) Rock is very weak
(C) Drainage is towards the hole
(D) All of the above
264. Negative skin friction on piles
(A) Is developed due to relative settlement of the soil
(B) Develops in hard clays
(C) Increases the pile capacity
(D) Develops due to driving of piles
265. For determining the ultimate bearing capacity of soil, the recommended
size of a square bearing plate to be used in load plate test should be
30 to 75 cm square with a minimum thickness of
(A) 5mm (B) 10mm
(C) 15mm (D) 25mm
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266. Under-reamed piles are generally
(A) driven piles (B) bored piles
(C) precast piles (D) cased piles.
267. A Flow net cannot be utilized for the determination of which of the
parameters
(A) Exit gradient & quantity of Seepage
(B) Hydrostatic pressure
(C) Seepage pressure
(D) Slope of the gradient
268. To determine stability of earth dam slopes immediately after construction
the pore pressures are generally estimated using
(A) Bishop’s method (B) Hilf’s method
(C) Culmann’s method (D) Kirchoff’s method
269. Following statements are made on compacted soils, wherein DS stands
for the soils compacted on dry side of optimum moisture content and
WS stands for the soils compacted on wet side of optimum moisture
content. Identify the incorrect statement.
(A) Soil structure is flocculated on DS and dispersed on WS.
(B) Construction pore water pressure is low on DS and high on WS.
(C) On drying, shrinkage is high on DS and low on WS.
(D) On access to water, swelling is high on DS and low on WS.
270. The standard Proctor compaction curve of a clay is depicted in the
figure. Points A, B and C correspond to three compaction states of the
soil, which fall on this curve. For which point(s) is the coefficient of
permeability minimum?
(A) A and C (B) A
(C) B (D) C
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271. A plan drawn to a scale of 1:4000 was measured by a scale of 1:5000.
The %error in the length measured will be:
(A) 10 (B) 1000
(C) 25 (D) 1.25
272. Basic principle of Surveying “working from whole to part” is:
(A) to complete the work rapidly
(B) to prevent accumulation of errors
(C) to avoid mistakes in work
(D) All of the above
273. The type of survey in which the curvature of the earth’s surface is
neglected, is called:
(A) Plane survey (B) Geodetic survey
(C) Preliminary survey (D) Aerial survey
274. The Mercator projection system used in atlases uses a
(A) Isometric projection (B) Conical projection
(C) Cylindrical projection (D) Azimuthal projection
275. When two stations for which ranging is to be done are not intervisible,
the ranging method used in such case is:
(A) Reciprocal ranging (B) Direct ranging
(C) Partial ranging (D) Simultaneous ranging
276. Cross staff and optical square are used to measure:
(A) distance across two points
(B) a right angle
(C) perpendicular distance between two lines
(D) an obtuse angle
277. In surveying, the correction due to sag of a tape is
(A) always positive
(B) always negative
(C) sometimes negative sometimes positive
(D) dependent on temperature conditions
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278. The process of translating the plan of a work on actual ground in exact
position in three dimensions is called
(A) Tacheometry (B) planning of a work
(C) setting out of work (D) plane table survey
279. Distortions in aerial photographs is caused by
(A) tilt and ground relief
(B) faulty camera lenses
(C) large distance between camera and the object
(D) lack of focus during photography
280. When two stations for which ranging is to be done are not intervisible,
the ranging method used in such case is:
(A) Reciprocal ranging (B) Direct ranging
(C) Partial ranging (D) Simultaneous ranging
281. Spectral resolution means:
(A) The frequency of receiving radiations
(B) sensitivity of the system to small changes in radiation
(C) the ability of the system to distinguish the details in the images
(D) the wavelengths to which the remote sensing system is sensitive
282. The position of a point can be located in GPS on receiving signals
from at least
(A) 1 satellite (B) 2 satellite
(C) 3 satellite (D) 4 satellite
283. A plane surface on a contour map is indicated by
(A) contour lines far apart from each other
(B) contour lines closely placed with each other
(C) series of straight, parallel, and equal spaced contour lines
(D) mutually crossing contour lines
284. A fixed point of reference of known elevation is known as
(A) bench mark (B) change point
(C) datum (D) station point
AAA-A ] [ 44 ] [ Contd...
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285. Temporal resolution means:
(A) The frequency of receiving radiations
(B) sensitivity of the system to small changes in radiation
(C) the ability of the system to distinguish the details in the images
(D) the wavelengths to which the remote sensing system is sensitive
286. Fossils can occur only in
(A) igneous rocks (B) sedimentary rocks
(C) metamorphic rocks (D) gneiss rocks
287. In which of the following sedimentary rocks, stratification is vague or
unnoticeable?
(A) shale (B) sandstone
(C) limestone (D) coal seams
288. In geological features, the folds bending upwards are known as
(A) dike (B) thermocline
(C) syncline (D) anticline
289. The term “anticlinal valleys” applies to
(A) folds bending downward
(B) folds which do not bend
(C) valleys formed due to erosion of anticlines
(D) valleys formed due to erosion of synclines
290. From civil engineering view point, if a dam is to be placed on a
geological fold, which one of the following situations will be the worst?
(A) limb of fold, dips towards upstream side of dam
(B) limb of fold, dips towards downstream side of dam
(C) limb of the fold is horizontal
(D) limb of the fold is wavey
291. For a bridge with large spans requiring deep foundations, the suitable
type of foundation for piers is
(A) Open foundation (B) Well foundation
(C) Block foundation (D) Grillage foundation
AAA-A ] [ 45 ] [ P.T.O.
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292. The most common countermeasure used to prevent scour at bridge
abutments is
(A) Sand bags (B) Cut water
(C) Rip rap (D) Turf
293. The main forces in a suspension bridge of any type are _____ in the
cables and _____ in the pillars.
(A) Tension, Compression (B) Tension, Pull
(C) Compression, Tension (D) Torsion, Compression
294. A submersible bridge is designed
(A) To be moved to pass the ship
(B) To be temporary bridge
(C) To be submerged during high flood
(D) To create a storage upstream
295. Expansion bearing in bridge super structure permits
(A) Only rotation (B) Only translation
(C) No movement (D) Rotation and translation
296. Self-healing concrete is a product
(A) that will be self compacting after casting
(B) that will biologically produce limestone to heal cracks that appear
on the surface of concrete structures
(C) that will conserve the moisture to prevent shrinkage cracks
(D) that will provide ductility to concrete when subjected to tension
297. The process of generation and management of digital representations of
physical and functional characteristics of building which can be extracted,
exchanged or networked to support decision-making regarding a building
is called
(A) FEM (B) GIS
(C) BIM (D) BOT
298. Extradosed bridges combine the characteristics of
(A) Suspension bridge with cantilever
(B) Cable-stayed bridges with conventional box girder bridges.
(C) Suspension bridge with cable stayed bridge
(D) Girder bridge with tall towers connecting cables.
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299. Which of the following is not a property of high performance concrete?
(A) High early strength (B) High abrasion resistant
(C) High modulus of elasticity (D) High permeability
300. Which of the following is not the characteristic of green building?
(A) Use of natural light and ventilation
(B) Solar PV Panels at roof
(C) Roof top rainwater harvesting
(D) Use of material with high thermal conductivity
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Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer, (Civil) , ( Special Drive) Class-II, Advt. No. 40/ 2017-18 P.T. Date :-07-01-2018 (AAA)
FINAL ANSWER KEY, Q. No. 101 - 300
Q.No. 'A' 'B' 'C' 'D' Q.No. 'A' 'B' 'C' 'D' Q.No. 'A' 'B' 'C' 'D' Q.No. 'A' 'B' 'C' 'D' Q.No. 'A' 'B' 'C' 'D'
101 C B C D 141 C B D B 181 C C C A 221 B D B C 261 A C C D
102 A D A C 142 A C C D 182 C C A C 222 B C C A 262 C A B C
103 C C C A 143 C A A B 183 C D A A 223 B B A B 263 D C D B
104 D A A B 144 B A B C 184 A C B A 224 C B B B 264 A D D A
105 A B A B 145 A B C D 185 C A C B 225 D C A C 265 D B C D
106 D C B B 146 B C B C 186 B B B A 226 A A C A 266 B C D B
107 D B A D 147 A B D A 187 C B A D 227 A C D * 267 D A D C
108 B D D A 148 C A A D 188 B B B A 228 C D A D 268 B C B B
109 C A A A 149 C B C C 189 B D C C 229 A B D D 269 C D B B
110 A C C D 150 D C A D 190 B A B B 230 C C B C 270 C B B B
111 A A B A 151 C B B B 191 D A A A 231 D B D A 271 C D C C
112 B B A A 152 A A D C 192 B D B C 232 B D B A 272 B A A D
113 C D C B 153 B B C A 193 C A B A 233 C D C B 273 A B B A
114 B C A C 154 B B C C 194 D A B C 234 A C C C 274 C C B A
115 A C C A 155 B B C D 195 C B C B 235 C D C D 275 A B D C
116 B C B A 156 D C A A 196 A C B A 236 D D B C 276 B C A A
117 C A A B 157 A B C D 197 D A D B 237 B B A B 277 B A C C
118 B C B A 158 A D B D 198 C A D A 238 D B C B 278 C D D D
119 A B A B 159 D D C B 199 D B A C 239 A B A C 279 A D C B
120 B C C D 160 A A B C 200 B A A C 240 B C B A 280 * C B C
121 B B C C 161 A A B A 201 C B B D 241 C A B C 281 D A A A
122 B B D A 162 B C B A 202 D C D B 242 B B C D 282 D A D C
123 C B C B 163 C A D B 203 D C A B 243 C B A B 283 C D B D
124 B D A C 164 A C B C 204 B C B B 244 A D * C 284 A A C B
125 D B B B 165 A A C B 205 B B C C 245 D A D B 285 A A B D
126 D C B D 166 B A D A 206 B A B A 246 D C D D 286 B A B A
127 A D B A 167 A B C B 207 C C C B 247 C D C D 287 C D B B
128 A C D C 168 B A A C 208 A A A A 248 A C A C 288 D B C C
129 C A A A 169 D D D B 209 B B D C 249 A B A D 289 C B D B
130 A D A B 170 C A C A 210 B B D D 250 D A B D 290 B B A C
131 C C D D 171 A C D B 211 D C C A 251 A D C B 291 B C A A
132 A D A C 172 B B B B 212 A A A D 252 A B D B 292 C A C D
133 A B A C 173 C A C B 213 C * A B 253 A C C B 293 A B A D
134 B C B C 174 B C A C 214 D D D D 254 D B B C 294 C A C C
135 A A C A 175 D A C B 215 C D A B 255 B B B A 295 D C D A
136 D C A C 176 A C D D 216 B C A C 256 B B C B 296 B D B A
137 A D A B 177 C B A D 217 A A A C 257 B C A B 297 C A C D
138 C A B C 178 A A D A 218 D A D C 258 C D C D 298 B D A A
139 B D A B 179 B B D A 219 B B B B 259 A A D A 299 D B C A
140 A D B B 180 D A B C 220 C C B A 260 B A B C 300 D D D A
* These Questions are cancelled .
No objection in this behalf is received by the Commission. Hence the Provisional Answer Key is declared as Final Answer Key.
GANDHINAGAR. Date : 08-02-2018Page 1 of 48
Source: Gujarat Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Gujarat Public Service Commission.