GPSC Assistant Engineer 2021: Preliminary, Assistant Engineer (Electrical) Class-2, Gandhinagar Municipal Corporation
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PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Name of The Post Assistant Engineer (Electrical), GMC ,Class-2
Advertisement No 88/2020-21
Preliminary Test Held On 05-09-2021
Que. No. 001-300 (General Studies & Concern Subject)
Publish Date 06-09-2021
Last Date to Send Suggestion (S) 15-09 -2021
Instructions / સૂચના (Physical Submission)
Candidate must ensure compliance to the instructions mentioned below, else objections
shall not be considered: -
(1) All the suggestion should be submitted in prescribed format of suggestion sheet
PHYSICALLY.
(2) Question wise suggestion to be submitted in the prescribed format (Suggestion Sheet)
published on the website.
(3) All suggestions are to be submitted with reference to the Master Question Paper with
provisional answer key (Master Question Paper), published herewith on the website.
Objections should be sent referring to the Question, Question No. & options of the Master
Question Paper.
(4) Suggestions regarding question nos. and options other than provisional answer key (Master
Question Paper) shall not be considered.
(5) Objections and answers suggested by the candidate should be in compliance with the
responses given by him in his answer sheet. Objections shall not be considered, in case, if
responses given in the answer sheet /response sheet and submitted suggestions are differed.
(6) Objection for each question shall be made on separate sheet. Objection for more than one
question in single sheet shall not be considered & treated as Cancelled.
(7) Candidate who is present in the exam entitled to submit the objection/(s).
(8) Candidate should attach copy of his/her OMR (Answer sheet) with objection/(s).
ઉમેદવાર ે નીચેની સૂચનાઓનું પાલન કરવાની તકે દારી રાખવી, અ યથા વાંધા-સૂચન અંગે કર ેલ રજૂ આતો યાને
લેવાશે નહી ં
(1) ઉમેદવારે વાંધા-સૂચનો િનયત કરવામાં આવેલ વાંધા-સૂચન પ કથી રજૂ કરવાના રહેશે.
(2) ઉમેદવારે માણે વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ કરવા વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત વાંધા-સૂચન પ કના
નમૂનાનો જ ઉપયોગ કરવો.
(3) ઉમેદવારે પોતાને પરી ામાં મળેલ પુિ તકામાં છપાયેલ માંક મુજબ વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ ન કરતા તમામ
વાંધા-સૂચનો વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર કી (મા ટર પ )ના માંક મુજબ અને તે
સંદભમાં રજૂ કરવા.
(4) મા ટર પ માં િન�દ� ષ્ટ અને િવક પ િસવાયના વાંધા-સૂચન યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહીં.
(5) ઉમેદવારે જે ના િવક પ પર વાંધો રજૂ કરેલ છે અને િવક પ પે જે જવાબ સૂચવેલ છે એ જવાબ ઉમેદવારે
પોતાની ઉ રવહીમાં આપેલ હોવો જોઈએ. ઉમેદવારે સૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉ રવહીનો જવાબ િભ હશે તો
ઉમેદવારે રજૂ કરેલ વાંધા-સૂચન યાનમાં લેવાશે નહીં.
(6) એક માટે એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પ ક વાપરવું. એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પ કમાં એકથી વધારે ોની રજૂઆત
કરેલ હશે તો તે અંગેના વાંધા-સૂચનો યાને લેવાશે નહીં.
(7) પર�ક્ષામાં હાજર રહ�લ ઉમેદવાર જ વાંધા - �ુચન ર�ુ કર� શકશે .
(8) ઉમેદવાર� વાંધા-�ુ ચન સાથે પોતાની જવાબવહ�ની નકલ �બડાણ કરવાની રહ�શે.
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101. The resistance of a 100 m long conductor having 0.1 mm2 cross-sectional area is R1. Keeping the
same volume, if the length of the conductor is increased three times then how many times would
you expect its resistance to increase?
(A) 3 (B) 9 (C) 1.5 (D) 27
102. What is the unit of temperature co-efficient of resistance for metal?
(A) W/m (B) Wm (C) °C–1 (D) °C–1W/m
103. The two resistances of equal values have been connected in series. When this series combination
is connected across a supply voltage of V1 volts, it consumes a power of the order of 100 W.
Thereafter, these two resistances are connected in parallel across the same supply voltage (V1).
How much power is consumed by this parallel combination?
(A) 100 W (B) 200 W (C) 300 W (D) 400 W
104. If 115 V is applied across a rated 230 V, 60 W bulb, how much power does it consume?
(A) 60 W (B) 30 W (C) 25 W (D) 15 W
105. The derivative of parabolic function becomes
(A) a unit impulse function (B) a ramp function
(C) a gate function (D) a triangular function
106. A 5 W resistance has been connected across the supply. Thereafter, one unknown resistance (R) is
connected in parallel with the 5 W resistance. Due to this, the current drawn from the supply gets
doubled. What is the value of the unknown resistance (R)?
(A) 5 W (B) 10 W (C) 2.5 W (D) 0.5 W
107. If two bulbs of 100 W and 60 W rated at 230 V are connected in series and this series combination
is connected across a 230 V supply, which one of the below given statement is correct?
(A) 60 W bulb offers more brightness compared to 100 W bulb.
(B) 100 W bulb offers more brightness compared to 60 W bulb.
(C) Both the bulbs offer equal amount of brightness
(D) None of the above
108. In a transformer, the value of full load copper loss is of the order of 24 W. What will be the value
of copper loss at half full load?
(A) 12 W (B) 2 W (C) 6 W (D) 4 W
109. The ramp function can be obtained from the unit impulse at t = 0 by
(A) differentiating the unit impulse function once
(B) differentiating the unit impulse function twice
(C) integrating the unit impulse function once
(D) integrating the unit impulse function twice
110. A power MOSFET has three terminals namely,
(A) Collector, Emitter, and Base (B) Drain, Source, and Base
(C) Drain, Source, and Gate (D) Collector, Emitter, and Gate
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111. The work done in bringing a 1 Coulomb charge from infinite distance to point A is known as
(A) Electrical Potential of Point A
(B) Electrical power level of Point A
(C) Electrical capacitance of Point A
(D) Electrical current density of Point A
112. A continuous time system will be Bounded Input Bounded Output (BIBO) stable if all the eigen
values are
(A) one (B) distinct and their real parts negative.
(C) negative (D) zero
113. In case of an R-L-C series circuit, the value of resistance, inductive reactance and capacitive
reactance are of the order of 10W, 20W, and 30W respectively. This R-L-C series circuit draws
5 Amp current from the supply. What is the amount of active power dissipated by this circuit?
(A) 50 W (B) 500 W (C) 100 W (D) 250 W
114. The primary and secondary winding induced EMFs E1 and E2 in a two winding transformer are
always
(A) in phase opposition with each other
(B) in phase with each other
(C) equal in magnitude
(D) depends on load conditions
115. In a.c. welding, as the thickness of the part to be welded increases, which of the following should
increase?
(A) voltage (B) current
(C) frequency (D) voltage, current and frequency
116. In the case of a periodic function possessing half-wave symmetry, which Fourier coefficient is zero ?
(A) a0 (B) an (C) b0 (D) bn
117. In a 100 kVA transformer, the values of full load iron loss and copper loss are of the order of
900 W and 1600 W respectively. At which kVA rating this transformer offers maximum efficiency?
(A) 100 kVA (B) 133.33 kVA (C) 75 kVA (D) 86.87 kVA
118. In case of a 6 pole DC machine, 90 mechanical degree equals to how many eletrical degrees?
(A) 45 degree (B) 90 degree (C) 270 degree (D) 15 degree
119. The magnetic flux which does not follow the desired path is known as the
(A) Linkage flux (B) Leakage flux
(C) Path flux (D) Main flux
120. Full form of IGBT is
(A) Isolated Gate Bipolar Transistor
(B) Insulated Gate Bipolar Transistor
(C) Isolated Gate Base Transistor
(D) Insulated Gate Base Transistor
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121. A periodic waveform possessing half-wave symmetry has no
(A) Odd harmonics (B) Even harmonics
(C) None of the above (D) Both (A) and (B)
122. The capacitance of one capacitor is of the order of 0.15 F. Three such capacitors are connected in
series. Find out the equivalent capacitance offered by this series combination.
(A) 0.15 F. (B) 0.45 F. (C) 0.30 F. (D) 0.05 F.
123. One of the advantages of Z-transform is
(A) Convolution operation is converted into simple addition and subtraction operations
(B) Convolution operation is converted into simple addition
(C) Convolution operation is transferred into simple multiplication operation
(D) None of the above
124. An ideal voltage source should have
(A) zero source resistance. (B) infinite source resistance.
(C) large value of e.m.f. (D) zero value of e.m.f.
125. Superposition theorem is based on the concept of
(A) linearity (B) duality (C) non-linearity (D) reciprocity
126. Critical resistance of the DC Generator is resistance of the
(A) armature circuit (B) field circuit (C) load circuit (D) brush
127. Laplace transform of Sin (ùt) is
(A) s / (s2 + w2) (B) w / (s2 + w2) (C) (s+w) / (s2 + w2) (D) s / s+w
128. What is the unit of Magnetic field intensity?
(A) AT-m (B) AT/m (C) AT/m2 (D) AT-m2
129. How much voltage regulation will be offered by an ideal DC Generator?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) Negative (D) Infinite
130. Maximum power will be transferred from a voltage source to the load when
(A) the source impedance is half that of load impedance.
(B) the source impedance is equal to that of load impedance.
(C) the source impedance is twice that of load impedance.
(D) the source impedance is thrice that of load impedance.
131. The function of the pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine is to
(A) Spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux density.
(B) Reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path.
(C) Support the field coils
(D) Discharge all the above mentioned functions.
132. Z-transform of a unit impulse is
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) infinite (D) none of the above
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133. Three identical resistances connected in star consume 4000 W. If the resistances are now connected
in delta across the same supply, the power consumed will be
(A) 4000 W (B) 6000 W (C) 8000 W (D) 12000 W
134. Hunting in a synchronous motor takes place when the
(A) Friction in the bearings is more (B) Air gap is less
(C) Load is variable (D) Load is constant
135. In a three phase system, line losses are
(A) Directly proportional to cos j
(B) Inversely proportional to cos j
(C) Directly proportional to cos2 j
(D) Inversely proportional to cos2 j
136. In the star-delta starter of an induction motor,
(A) Applied voltage per stator phase is 67.7% of the line voltage
(B) Applied voltage per stator phase is 37.4% of the line voltage
(C) Applied voltage per stator phase is 70.7% of the line voltage
(D) Applied voltage per stator phase is 57.7% of the line voltage.
137. Equalizing circuits are provided across each SCR in series operation to provide uniform
(A) Current distribution (B) Voltage distribution
(C) Firing of SCRs. (D) dv/dt protection
138. The insulation resistance of a cable of length 10 km is 1 MW. For a cable of length 100 km, the
insulation resistance will be
(A) 10 MW (B) 5 MW (C) 0.1 MW (D) 20 MW
139. Final value theorem is used to find
(A) steady state value of the system output
(B) initial state value of the system output
(C) transient behavior of the system output
(D) none of the above
140. A three-phase, star connected circuit is operated at power factor X. The power factor angle is
between
(A) line voltage and line current
(B) phase voltage and phase current
(C) line voltage and phase current
(D) phase voltage and line current
141. What is the value in terms of degrees electrical for maximum torque angle in a synchronous
machine?
(A) 45 (B) 90 (C) below 60 (D) between 45 and 90
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142. Burden on the current transformer is usually expressed in terms of
(A) amperes (B) volts (C) voltamperes (D) kilowatt
143. The purpose of a choke in a fluorescent tube is
(A) To decrease the current
(B) To increase the current
(C) To decrease the voltage momentarily
(D) To increase the voltage momentarily
144. In a parallel circuit, at resonance, which quantity is magnified?
(A) Voltage (B) Current (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Peak of voltage
145. Which winding is preferred in d.c. generators to generate large currents?
(A) Lap winding (B) Fractional winding
(C) Wave winding (D) Reprogressive wave winding.
146. A circuit in which the output voltage remains constant irrespective of the value of the load
resistance, uses a
(A) Silicon diode (B) Zener diode (C) SCR (D) Amplifier
147. In case of interconnected power system, if the input to the prime mover of an alternator is kept
constant but the excitation is changed, then the
(A) Reactive component of the output is changed
(B) Active component of the output is changed
(C) Power factor of the load remains constant
(D) Power factor of the load becomes zero.
148. A 120 V source has a series internal resistance of 1W. The maximum power that can be delivered
to the load is
(A) 1800 watts (B) 3600 watts (C) 900 watts (D) 7200 watts
149. The efficiency of a d.c. generator is maximum when its variable loss is equal to
(A) The constant loss. (B) Half of the constant loss.
(C) Double of the constant loss. (D) One-third of the constant loss.
150. The MMF of an interpole is proportional to the
(A) armature current
(B) field current
(C) product of armature current and field current
(D) ratio of armature current to field current
151. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends on
(A) voltage rating (B) current rating
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of the above
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152. In a thyristor, the minimum current required to maintain the device in the ‘ON’ state is called
(A) latching current (B) ignition current
(C) holding current (D) avalanche current
153. Thyristor is a semi conductor switch which is
(A) unilateral and astable (B) bilateral and astable
(C) unilateral and bistable (D) bilateral and bistable
154. Gujarat wind-solar hybrid policy has been published in the year
(A) 2016 (B) 2017 (C) 2018 (D) 2019
155. For quick speed reversal, which motor is preferred?
(A) DC motor (B) Squirrel cage induction motor
(C) Slipring induction motor (D) Synchronous motor
156. What is the value of the total reactance of RLC series circuit at resonance?
(A) equals to resistance of the circuit (B) equals to inductive reactance
(C) equals to capacitive reactance (D) zero
157. In a squirrel cage induction motor, the rotor slots are usually given a slight skew in order to
(A) Reduce the windage loss (B) Reduce eddy current loss.
(C) Reduce accumulation of dirt and dust. (D) Reduce magnetic hum
158. If the air gap in an induction motor is increased,
(A) the magnetizing current of the rotor will decrease
(B) the power factor will decrease.
(C) the motor speed will increase.
(D) the windage loss will increase
159. Dot convention in a coupled circuit is used
(A) to measure the mutual inductance
(B) to determine polarity of mutually induced voltage in the coils
(C) to determine polarity of self induced voltage in the coils
(D) to measure self inductance
160. In order to provide high starting torque in a double squirrel cage induction motor,
(A) The resistance of the outer cage winding is high and that of the inner cage winding is low
(B) The resistance of the outer cage winding is low and that of the inner cage winding is high
(C) The resistance of the outer and inner cage winding is low
(D) The resistance of the outer and inner cage winding is high.
161. Resistance earthing is employed for voltages between
(A) 3.3 and 11 kV (B) 11 and 33 kV
(C) 33 and 66 kV (D) 66 and 132 kV
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162. Zero power Factor method of an alternator is used to find its
(A) efficiency (B) losses
(C) voltage regulation (D) input
163. V-curves of synchronous machine represent relationship between
(A) excitation current and power factor (B) field current and power factor
(C) armature current and supply voltage (D) armature current and field current
164. A chopper can be used on
(A) Pulse-width Modulation (B) Frequency Modulation
(C) Amplitude Modulation (D) Both (A) and (B)
165. In case of a stepup chopper, if Vs and a represent the supply voltage and duty cycle respectively,
the output voltage of this DC chopper will be given by
(A) Vs/ (1+a) (B) Vs/ (1-a) (C) Vs (1+a) (D) Vs (1-a)
166. What is the value of frequency of the generated voltage for an alternator having 4-poles and 1800
rpm speed?
(A) 50 Hz (B) 60 Hz (C) 100 Hz (D) None of the above
167. An alternator has 4-poles and 36 slots. In the winding, the coil span is taken 1-to-8 slot short
pitched. Identify by how much degree, it is short pitched?
(A) 60 (B) 20 (C) 40 (D) 30
168. The ratio of RMS value to average value of alternating quantity is defined as
(A) Crest Factor (B) Form Factor (C) Peak Factor (D) Amplitude Factor
169. Two 3V, 1 ohm batteries are connected in series connection (additive polarity). The Norton’s
equivalent of this combination is
(A) 3A, 1 ohm (B) 3A, 2 ohm (C) 6A, 2 ohm (D) 6A, 1 ohm
170. In case of Z-transform, Region of Convergence provides information about
(A) type of the system (B) stability of the system
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
171. When the dc machine is loaded, the main function of the interpole is to minimize
(A) friction between commutator and brushes
(B) sparking between commutator and brushes
(C) scratches between commutator and brushes
(D) current between commutator and brushes
172. DC shunt generators are most suitable for parallel operation due to
(A) identical voltage characteristic (B) drooping voltage characteristic
(C) rising voltage characteristic (D) linear voltage characteristic
173. In a DC chopper, for eliminating the third harmonic component from the output voltage wave, the
duty cycle should be equal to
(A) 1/3 (B) 1/2 (C) 1/5 (D) 1/4
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174. The selection of rectifier diode mostly depends on the
(A) forward voltage (B) reverse voltage
(C) fault current (D) average load current
175. Which of the following DC generator does not need equilizers for satisfactory parallel operation?
(A) Series (B) Over compound
(C) Flat compound (D) Under compound
176. Why is DC series motor not started on no-load?
(A) It attains dangerously high speed
(B) It fails to accelerate
(C) It take long long time to attain the rated speed
(D) It does not pick up
177. A Voltage Source Inverter (VSI) offers better performance if
(A) Load inductance is small and source inductance is large
(B) Load inductance is large and source inductance is small.
(C) Both load inductance and source inductance are small.
(D) Both load inductance and source inductance are large.
178. The shape of the armature torque (Ta) vs armature current (Ia) characteristic for a DC series
motor is a
(A) Parabola from no-load to over-load
(B) Straight line throughout
(C) Parabola from no-load to full-load and straight line at over-load
(D) Parabola throughout
179. Starting winding of the single phase induction motor is placed in the
(A) rotor (B) stator (C) armature (D) field
180. Laplace transform of a unit step function is
(A) 1/s (B) 1 (C) 1/s2 (D) 1/(s+a)
181. Full form of SCADA is
(A) Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition
(B) Supervisory Counting and Data Acquisition
(C) Supervisory Control and Data Analysis
(D) Supplementary Control and Data Analysis
182. In general, how many types of energy audits are employed for voluntary assessment?
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Two (D) Five
183. The induction motor has lagging power factor during
(A) Starting only (B) Operation only
(C) Both starting and operation (D) None of the above
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184. Luminous flux is
(A) the light energy radiated by sun
(B) part of the light energy radiated by sun, which is received on earth
(C) the rate of energy radiation in the form of light waves
(D) none of the above
185. A d.c. series motor develops a torque of 20 N-m at 3 A load current. If the current is increased to
6 A, the torque developed will be
(A) 10 N-m (B) 20 N-m (C) 40 N-m (D) 80 N-m
186. The applied voltage of a transformer is increased by 50% and its frequency is reduced to 50%.
The maximum core flux density will
(A) become 3 times (B) become 1.5 times
(C) become half (D) remain the same
187. In case of z-transform, a discrete time system is stable if all the roots of the characteristic
equation lie
(A) outside the circle of unit radius
(B) within the circle of the unit radius
(C) outside the circle of radius equal to 3-units
(D) on the circle of infinite radius
188. Dummy coils are provided in d.c. generators
(A) To reduce eddy current losses (B) To amplify voltage
(C) To enhance flux density (D) To mechanically balance the rotor
189. The direction of rotation of a synchronous motor can be reversed by reversing
(A) current to the field winding (B) supply phase sequence
(C) polarity of rotor poles (D) none of the above
190. If a DC series motor is opearted on AC supply, it will
(A) spark excessively (B) have poor efficiency
(C) have poor power factor (D) all of the above
191. The best location for the power factor correction equipment to be installed on the transmission
line is at the
(A) sending end (B) receiving end
(C) middle of the line (D) none of the above
192. In an ideal transformer
(A) Core has infinite permeability (B) Core has no iron losses
(C) Windings have zero resistance (D) All of the above
193. A single phase full bridge Voltage Source Inverter (VSI) has inductor (L) as a load. For a constant
source voltage the current through the inductor is a
(A) square wave (B) triangular wave (C) sine wave (D) pulsed wave
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194. Which of the following is not determined from the circle diagram?
(A) Efficiency (B) Power factor (C) Frequency (D) Losses
195. Illumination of one lumen per sq. metre is called
(A) lumen metre (B) lux (C) foot candle (D) candela
196. Considering design aspect, the maximum efficiency offered by a power transformer is at
(A) 50% of full load (B) 60% of full load
(C) 80% of full load (D) full load
197. The operating power factor of filament lamp load is
(A) 0.8 leading (B) 0.8 lagging (C) Unity (D) 0.5 lagging
198. The fractional slip of an induction motor is determined from the ratio
(A) rotor copper loss to rotor input (B) rotor copper loss to rotor output
(C) rotor copper loss to stator input (D) rotor copper loss to stator output
199. Candela is the unit of which of the following?
(A) Wavelength (B) Luminous intensity
(C) Luminous flux (D) Frequency
200. Transformer cores are laminated in order to
(A) minimize its eddy current loss (B) reduce its hysteresis loss
(C) make simplified construction (D) minimize its cost
201. Power despatch through a transmission line can be increased by
(A) installing series capacitor (B) installing shunt capacitor
(C) installing series reactor (D) installing shunt reactor
202. If the separation between the three phases of a transmission system is increased
(A) the inductance will increase and capacitance will remain unchanged
(B) both the inductance and capacitance will decrease
(C) the inductance will increase and capacitance will decrease
(D) both the inductance and capacitance will increase
203. Integral error control
(A) increases the order of the system
(B) decreases the order of the system
(C) increases the steady state error
(D) does not affect the steady state error
204. For a stable system
(A) Gain Margin and Phase Margin both are positive
(B) Gain Margin and Phase Margin both are negative
(C) Gain Margin is positive and Phase Margin is negative
(D) Gain Margin is negative and Phase Margin is positive
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205. A force of attraction exists between
(A) two positively charged bodies
(B) two negatively charged bodies
(C) two oppositely charged bodies
(D) when one body has a charge which is twice that of first
206. The magnitude of electric field intensity ‘E’ for infinite uniform line charge rL at a distance r is
given by
(A) rL/2pe0r (B) rL/4pe0r (C) rL/4pe0r2 (D) rL/2p
207. The main consideration in the design of insulation of modern EHV line is based on
(A) the lightning voltage (B) corona
(C) the switching voltage (D) radio interference
208. For a good voltage profile, under no load condition, a long line needs
(A) shunt capacitors at the receiving end
(B) shunt reactors at the receiving end
(C) shunt resistance at sending end
(D) shunt capacitance at sending end
209. For a transmission line having finite value of resistance R and reactance X, but with negligible
value of capacitance, the value of parameter ‘A’ of a transmission line would be
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) R + jX (D) X/R
210. The 8-bit, 2’s complement form of the number (14)10 in hexadecimal would be
(A) F2 (B) F1 (C) F0 (D) EF
211. In this filter, the output is a function of ‘m’ past inputs and ‘k’ past outputs
(A) Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filter (B) Infinite Impulse Response (IIR) filter
(C) Simple low pass filter (D) Simple high pass filter
212. The co-efficient of reflection of a short circuited line for voltage is
(A) – 1 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) Infinity
213. The inrush current in a transformer at no load is maximum if the supply voltage is switched on
(A) at zero voltage value (B) at peak voltage value
(C) at V/2 value (D) at √3/2 V value
214. The rate of rise of restriking voltage across the circuit breaker contacts depends upon
(A) the type of circuit breaker
(B) the inductance of the system
(C) the capacitance of the system
(D) the inductance and capacitance of the system
[AXQ] 29
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215. A point on the real axis lies on the root locus if
(A) there are no poles and zeros to the right of this point
(B) there is only one pole and only one zero to the right of this point
(C) sum of poles and zeros to the right of this point is even
(D) sum of poles and zeros to the right of this point is odd
216. The roots of the characteristic equation of a system are same as
(A) closed loop zeros (B) closed loop poles
(C) open loop zeros (D) open loop poles
217. In an interconnected grid system, the more efficient plants are used as
(A) Peak load plants (B) Base load plants
(C) Both base and peak load plants (D) Standby plants
218. Which of the following relationship holds true between electric field intensity E and potential V?
(A) E = –∇.V (B) E = –∇V (C) E = –∇×V (D) E = –∇V2
219. In an inverse definite minimum time, electromagnetic type over current relay, the minimum time
feature is achieved because of
(A) Saturation of the magnetic circuit (B) Proper mechanical design
(C) Appropriate time delay element (D) Electro magnetic damping
220. The work in moving a point charge from initial point B to final point A in an electric field is
given by
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
221. For an ac transmission line, the string efficiency is 80%. Now if dc voltage is applied for the same
set up, the string efficiency will be
(A) 80% (B) more than 80%
(C) less than 80% (D) 100%
222. A voltage controlled bus is treated as a load bus in subsequent iteration in Gauss-Seidel load flow
method when
(A) Voltage limit is violated
(B) Active power limit is violated
(C) Reactive power limit is violated
(D) Phase angle limit is violated
223. The analysis of multiple input and multiple output is conveniently studied by
(A) state space approach
(B) root locus approach
(C) block diagram method
(D) Nichols chart
30 [AXQ] [Contd.
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224. The Routh array for a particular system has the following elements in the first column
[1 1.5 -0.66 0.227 27.4 10]. The system has
(A) no roots in right half of s-plane
(B) one root in right half of s-plane
(C) two roots in right half of s-plane
(D) three roots in right half of s-plane
225. Which of the following statements is correct for an electric dipole?
(A) The electric field is inversely proportional to the distance from dipole
(B) The electric field is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from dipole
(C) The electric field is inversely proportional to the cube of the distance from dipole
(D) The electric field is independent of the distance from dipole
226. The basic circuit in the DTL logic family is
(A) NAND gate (B) NOR gate
(C) EXCLUSIVE-OR gate (D) NOT gate
227. The maximum demand of a consumer is 2 kW and his daily energy consumption is 20 units.
His load factor is
(A) 0.333 (B) 0.416 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.666
228. In a two plant system, the load is connected at plant 2. The loss co-efficients
(A) B11, B12, B22 are non-zero
(B) B11 and B22 are non-zero, B12 is zero
(C) B11 and B12 are zero, B22 is non-zero
(D) B11 is non zero, B12 and B22 are zero
229. If positive, negative and zero sequence networks are connected in parallel for a particular type of
fault, the type of fault is
(A) single line to ground fault (B) double line to ground fault
(C) line to line fault (D) three phase fault
230. The error detector present in a control system gives
(A) the sum of reference signal and feedback signal
(B) the sum of reference signal and error signal
(C) the difference of the reference signal and feedback signal
(D) the difference of the reference signal and output signal
231. For the system C(s)/R(s) = 16/(s2 + 8s +16), the nature of time response will be
(A) overdamped (B) underdamped
(C) critically damped (D) the data given is insufficient to judge
232. If J, s, E denote current density, conductivity of the material and electric field intensity respectively,
then point form of Ohm’s law is given by
(A) E = Js (B) E = Js2 (C) J = sE2 (D) J = sE
[AXQ] 31
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233. The divergence theorem gives relationship between
(A) two surface integrals
(B) line integral and surface integral
(C) line integral and volume integral
(D) surface integral and volume integral
234. How much in-bulit ROM is avaialble in 8051?
(A) 4 KB (B) 8KB (C) 16KB (D) 32KB
235. Which of the following IC is also known as Programmable Peripheral Interface (PPI)?
(A) 8259 (B) 8257 (C) 8279 (D) 8255
236. Steady state stability of a power system is improved by
(A) reducing fault clearing time
(B) using double circuit line instead of single circuit line
(C) single pole switching
(D) decreasing generator inertia
237. Whenever the conductors are dead ended or there is a change in direction of transmission line, the
insulators used are of
(A) pin type (B) suspension type
(C) strain type (D) shackle type
238. In a 400 kV power network, 360 kV is recorded at 400 kV bus. The reactive power absorbed by the
shunt reactor rated for 50 MVAR, 400 kV connected at the bus is
(A) 61.73 MVAR (B) 55.56 MVAR
(C) 45.0 MVAR (D) 40.5 MVAR
239. The following sequence currents were recorded. Ipositive= j1.653 p.u., Inegative = -j0.5 p.u. and
Izero= -j1.153 p.u. The fault is
(A) Line to ground. (B) Line to line to ground.
(C) Three phase. (D) Line to line
240. P is the power to be transmitted over an overhead line of length ‘l’ km. For the same power loss
and the same voltage between the conductor and the earth, the least conductor material required
is in
(A) 2 wire d.c. system.
(B) Single phase a.c. system
(C) Three phase, three wire a.c. system.
(D) Three phase, four wire a.c. system
241. The total number of inputs and outputs in a full adder circuit are
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
32 [AXQ] [Contd.
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242. The most appropriate operating speeds in rpm of generators used in Thermal, Nuclear and Hydro-
power plants would respectively be
(A) 3000, 300 and 1500 (B) 3000, 3000 and 300
(C) 1500, 1500 and 3000 (D) 750, 750 and 900
243. The impedance value of a generator is 0.2 pu on a base value of 11 kV, 50 MVA. The impedance
value for a base value of 22 kV, 150 MVA is
(A) 0.15 pu (B) 0.2 pu (C) 0.3 pu (D) 2.4 pu
244. A 100 MVA, 11 kV, 3-phase, 50 Hz, 8-pole synchronous generator has an inertia constant H equal
to 4 seconds. The energy stored in the rotor generator at synchronous speed is
(A) 100 MJ (B) 400 MJ (C) 800 MJ (D) 12.5 MJ
245. The origin for investigation of closed loop stability in relation to Nyquist criterion is
(A) –1+j0 (B) 1+j0 (C) –1+j1 (D) 1+j1
246. In a control system by increasing the value of gain factor ‘K’, the system becomes
(A) less stable (B) more stable
(C) unstable (D) absolutely stable
247. Which of the following has transmission line of zero length?
(A) bipolar 2-T HVDC system (B) monopolar HVDC system
(C) homopolar HVDC system (D) back to back HVDC system
248. Find the incorrect statement regarding HVDC transmission
(A) There is no corona loss in HVDC system
(B) Transient stability does not pose any limit in HVDC system
(C) Tower size in HVDC is smaller as compared to equivalent AC transmission for same power
and distance
(D) When two AC transmission networks are connected by DC transmssion the fault level of each
system remains unchanged
249. When a d.c. generator is operating at constant speed, variable load, which loss is likely to vary
significantly?
(A) Windage loss (B) Eddy current loss
(C) Bearing friction loss (D) Copper loss
250. The instruction MOV R3, #62H in 8051 is an example of
(A) Register addressing mode
(B) Indexed addressing mode
(C) Immediate addressing mode
(D) Register Indirect addressing mode
251. If the positive, negative and zero sequence reactance of a power system are 0.3, 0.3 and 0.8 pu
respectively, then the element would be
(A) synchronous generator (B) transformer
(C) static load (D) transmission line
[AXQ] 33
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252. A Buchholz relay is used for
(A) protection of transformer against incipient faults
(B) protection of transformer against all external faults
(C) protection of d.c. motors
(D) protection of induction motors
253. Carrier current protection is provided for
(A) Transformers (B) Transmission lines
(C) Induction motors (D) Synchronous generators
254. Which combination of inputs will produce an output of 1 at the output of a NOR gate?
(A) (0,0) (B) (0,1) (C) (1,0) (D) (1,1)
255. The Boolean expression y = (A+AB) (B+BC) (C+AB) can be reduced to
(A) A’B (B) AB’ (C) AB (D) BC
256. The Lorentz force on a charge having a velocity ‘v’ in presence of an electric field E and magnetic
field B is given by
(A) F = E(q + v × B) (B) F = q(E + v × B)
(C) F = q(B + v × E) (D) F = B(q + v × E)
257. The maximum number of buses in a power system are
(A) PV buses (B) PQ buses
(C) Slack buses (D) Infinite buses
258. Mho relays have an R-X plane characteristic depicted by
(A) a straight line passing through origin
(B) a straight line parallel to X-axis
(C) a straight line parallel to R-axis
(D) a circle passing through origin
259. Which of the following information is not obtained from load flow studies?
(A) magnitudes and phase angles of voltages at various buses
(B) sag in transmission lines
(C) real power flows in a transmission line
(D) reactive power flows in a transmission line
260. The initial slope of the Bode plot gives an indication of
(A) type of the system (B) nature of the system time response
(C) system stability (D) gain margin
261. The root locus separates at a point between the two open loop poles, called the
(A) critical point (B) crossover point
(C) shift point (D) break away point
34 [AXQ] [Contd.
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262. A flip-flop is also known as
(A) astable multivibrator
(B) monostable multivibrator
(C) bistable multivibrator
(D) No co-relation exists between multivibrator and flip-flop
263. Due to skin effect, the alternating current tends to concentrate
(A) near the surface of the conductor
(B) near the conductor core
(C) uniformly over the conductor cross section
(D) none of the above
264. Peterson coil is used for
(A) grounding of system neutral
(B) reducing fault current
(C) connecting two interconnected systems
(D) shunt compensation of transmission lines
265. Overfluxing protection is generally provided for
(A) Generator transformers (B) Grounding transformers
(C) Current transformers (D) Arc Furnace transformers
266. The operating point of a measuring current transformer is
(A) Near the knee point (B) Near the elbow point.
(C) Near the ankle point (D) Near the shoulder point.
267. For a 4-bit weighted-resistor type DAC, if the value of the resistance connected to input of MSB is
2 kW, the value of resistance connected to LSB would be
(A) 2 kW (B) 4 kW (C) 8 kW (D) 16 kW
268. The phase relation between the arc voltage and arc current is
(A) They are in phase.
(B) The arc voltage lags the arc current by 90°.
(C) The arc voltage leads the arc current by 90°.
(D) The arc voltage leads the arc current by 45°.
269. For which set of inputs, the output of J-K flip-flop is complemented ?
(A) (0,0) (B) (0,1) (C) (1,0) (D) (1,1)
270. Isolators used in transmission line are capable of breaking
(A) fault current (B) no current
(C) charging current (D) load current
[AXQ] 35
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271. In 3-step distance protection, the reach of three zones of the relay at the beginning of the first line
typically extends upto
(A) 100% of the first line, 50% of the second line and 20% of the third line
(B) 80% of the first line, 50% of the second line and 20% of the third line
(C) 80% of the first line, 50% of the second line and 10% of the third line
(D) 50% of the first line, 50% of the second line and 20% of the third line
272. Which of the following is incorrect with reference to SF6 circuit breaker?
(A) It requires less number of interrupters per pole as compared to ABCB or MOCB
(B) SF6 gas is chemically stable and electronegative gas
(C) Arced SF6 gas is poisonous and should not be inhaled or let-out
(D) It requires more maintenance
273. If a certain control system has damping factor of 0.7 and undamped natural frequency of
4 rad/sec, then its settling time on 2% basis would be
(A) 2.8 seconds (B) 1.68 seconds
(C) 1.43 seconds (D) 1.21 seconds
274. In which ADC, the control logic initially sets MSB to 1 in the output register while starting the
conversion process?
(A) Counter type (B) Successive approximation
(C) Dual slope type (D) Flash type
275. Selection of one of the multiple inputs and transferring it to a common output is done by
(A) An analog multiplexer (B) A sample and hold circuit
(C) An analog to digital converter (D) A de-multiplexer
276. The neutral grounding affects
(A) positive sequence network (B) negative sequence network
(C) zero sequence network (D) positive and negative sequence network
277. A relay used for protection of motors against overload is
(A) induction relay (B) thermal relay
(C) impedance relay (D) mho relay
278. “The total electric flux passing through any closed surface is equal to the total charge enclosed by
that surface” is a statement of
(A) Faraday’s Law (B) Gauss’ law
(C) Ampere’s law (D) Stoke’s law
279. In 8051, if register A contains 37d and register B contains 12d, (‘d’ indicates decimal number) then
register A will contain _______ after the execution of DIV AB instruction
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
36 [AXQ] [Contd.
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280. If the fault current is 4000 A, the C.T. ratio is 400/5 and the relay plug setting is 100%, the plug
setting multiplier will be
(A) 20 (B) 40 (C) 10 (D) 15
281. 30°, 60°, 90° connections are made in a directional relay so as
(A) To render the relay, a positive and sufficiently large torque under fault conditions.
(B) To render the relay, maximum speed under fault conditions.
(C) To render the relay, selectivity under fault conditions
(D) To render the relay, discriminative features under fault conditions
282. If a relay fails to operate for a fault within its reach, it is said to
(A) Overreach (B) Reach
(C) Underreach (D) Critically reach
283. The Vindhyachal back to back HVDC station has a power rating of _______ MW
(A) 400 (B) 1500 (C) 250 (D) 500
284. The critical clearing time of fault in a power system is related to
(A) reactive power limit (B) short circuit limit
(C) steady state limit (D) transient stability limit
285. For protection of parallel feeders
(A) Non-directional relays are used at the source end and directional relays are used at the
load end.
(B) Non-directional relays are used at the load end and directional relays are used at the
source end
(C) Non-directional relays are used at both the source end and the load end.
(D) Directional relays are used at both the source end and the load end
286. What is the major factor for determining whether a medium is free space, lossless dielectric, lossy
dielectric or good conductor?
(A) Attenuation constant (B) Constitutive parameters
(C) Loss tangent (D) Reflection co-efficient
287. If a particular microprocessor has 16 address lines, it is capable of identifying _______ memory
locations
(A) 16 KB (B) 32 KB (C) 64 KB (D) 256 KB
288. Which signal is primarily used to latch the low order address bus from the multiplexed bus in a
microprocessor based system?
(A) ALE (B) TRAP (C) SID (D) INTR
289. Which of the following is true for mono polar link?
(A) The conductor has negative polarity
(B) Ground constitutes the return conductor
(C) Ground is used as positive electrode
(D) All of the above
[AXQ] 37
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290. In HVDC converter station equipment using thyristors, it is necessary to use large number of
thyristors in series because
(A) Voltage rating of thyristors is low
(B) Current rating of thyristors is low
(C) Thyristors frequently fail to an internal open circuit
(D) None of the above
291. The effect due to which rise in voltage is observed at the receiving end of a lightly loaded long line
is known as
(A) Skin effect (B) Ferranti effect
(C) Corona effect (D) Proximity effect
292. When bundled conductors are used in place of single conductors, the effective inductance and
capacitance will respectively
(A) Decrease and increase.
(B) Increase and decrease
(C) Increase and remain unaffected
(D) Remain unaffected and decrease
293. As per Indian Electricity Rules (IER) 1956, a person appointed to be as Inspector should have
been regularly engaged for a period of _______ years in the practice of electrical engineering
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 8
294. The presence of earth wire in case of overhead lines
(A) Increases the line capacitance
(B) Decreases the line capacitance
(C) Increases the line inductance
(D) Decreases the line inductance
295. The percentage resolution of 6 bit Digital to Analog convertor would be
(A) 1.58% (B) 2.34%
(C) 3.21% (D) 3.64%
296. The desirable qualities of a power system are
(A) High load factor and high diversity factor
(B) Low load factor and low diversity factor
(C) Low load factor and high diversity factor
(D) High load factor and low diversity factor
297. What should be the value of delay angle a (in degrees) to get the maximum value of DC voltage in
HVDC system?
(A) 0 (B) 30 (C) 45 (D) 90
38 [AXQ] [Contd.
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298. Which of the following is not a mandatory function of Central Electricity Regulatory Commission?
(A) to regulate tariff of generating companies owned or controlled by central government
(B) to regulate the inter-state transmission of electricity
(C) promotion of investment in electricity industry
(D) to specify grid code having regards to grid standards
299. According to CERC annual report published in 2018-19, the total installed generation capacity of
India by the end of financial year 2018-19 was
(A) 210.3 GW (B) 267.4 GW
(C) 305.6 GW (D) 356.1 GW
300. As per IER-1956, any meter placed in consumer’s premises should not have an error exceeding
_______ above or below absolute accuracy at all loads in excess of one-tenths of full load and up
to full load
(A) 2% (B) 3% (C) 4% (D) 5%
__________________
[AXQ] 39
Text of page 1
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Electrical), GMC ,Class-II(Advt No. 88/2020-21) Exam Date:05-09-2021
AXQ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:M
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 * 31 D 61 C 91 D 121 B 151 A 181 A 211 B 241 D 271 B
2 C 32 B 62 C 92 B 122 D 152 C 182 C 212 A 242 B 272 D
3 A 33 C 63 * 93 A 123 C 153 C 183 C 213 A 243 A 273 C
4 C 34 C 64 D 94 D 124 A 154 C 184 C 214 D 244 B 274 B
5 B 35 D 65 A 95 C 125 A 155 A 185 D 215 D 245 A 275 A
6 A 36 C 66 B 96 C 126 B 156 D 186 A 216 B 246 A 276 C
7 A 37 C 67 B 97 A 127 B 157 D 187 B 217 B 247 D 277 B
8 D 38 A 68 B 98 B 128 B 158 B 188 D 218 B 248 A 278 B
9 C 39 D 69 D 99 A 129 A 159 B 189 B 219 A 249 D 279 C
10 B 40 D 70 B 100 D 130 B 160 A 190 D 220 B 250 C 280 C
11 B 41 D 71 B 101 B 131 D 161 A 191 B 221 D 251 D 281 A
12 B 42 B 72 C 102 C 132 A 162 C 192 D 222 C 252 A 282 C
13 D 43 B 73 C 103 D 133 D 163 D 193 B 223 A 253 B 283 D
14 D 44 D 74 D 104 D 134 C 164 D 194 C 224 C 254 A 284 D
15 * 45 C 75 B 105 B 135 D 165 B 195 B 225 C 255 C 285 A
16 C 46 A 76 B 106 A 136 D 166 B 196 D 226 A 256 B 286 C
17 D 47 B 77 D 107 A 137 B 167 C 197 C 227 B 257 B 287 C
18 C 48 D 78 A 108 C 138 C 168 B 198 A 228 D 258 D 288 A
19 B 49 B 79 A 109 D 139 A 169 B 199 B 229 B 259 B 289 D
20 B 50 B 80 C 110 C 140 B 170 C 200 A 230 C 260 A 290 A
21 C 51 A 81 * 111 A 141 B 171 B 201 A 231 C 261 D 291 B
22 B 52 B 82 B 112 C 142 C 172 B 202 C 232 D 262 C 292 A
23 D 53 A 83 C 113 D 143 D 173 A 203 A 233 D 263 A 293 D
24 C 54 A 84 A 114 B 144 B 174 B 204 A 234 A 264 A 294 A
25 D 55 B 85 A 115 B 145 A 175 D 205 C 235 D 265 A 295 A
26 C 56 C 86 C 116 A 146 B 176 A 206 A 236 B 266 A 296 A
27 A 57 C 87 A 117 C 147 A 177 C 207 C 237 C 267 D 297 A
28 C 58 A 88 B 118 C 148 B 178 C 208 B 238 D 268 A 298 C
29 A 59 C 89 D 119 B 149 A 179 B 209 B 239 B 269 D 299 D
30 D 60 B 90 C 120 B 150 A 180 A 210 A 240 A 270 B 300 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:06-12-2021
Text of page 2
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Electrical), GMC ,Class-II(Advt No. 88/2020-21) Exam Date:05-09-2021
AXQ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:A
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 31 A 61 C 91 D 121 D 151 A 181 D 211 C 241 B 271 B
2 D 32 A 62 C 92 B 122 C 152 C 182 A 212 C 242 B 272 D
3 A 33 D 63 * 93 B 123 A 153 C 183 D 213 A 243 B 273 C
4 A 34 C 64 D 94 D 124 B 154 C 184 C 214 D 244 A 274 B
5 C 35 B 65 A 95 C 125 A 155 A 185 D 215 A 245 B 275 A
6 * 36 B 66 B 96 A 126 B 156 D 186 D 216 B 246 D 276 A
7 B 37 B 67 B 97 B 127 C 157 D 187 B 217 A 247 C 277 B
8 C 38 D 68 B 98 D 128 D 158 B 188 C 218 D 248 A 278 D
9 A 39 D 69 D 99 B 129 D 159 B 189 A 219 A 249 C 279 B
10 A 40 * 70 B 100 B 130 B 160 A 190 B 220 A 250 C 280 C
11 C 41 C 71 B 101 A 131 A 161 A 191 B 221 A 251 D 281 C
12 A 42 D 72 C 102 C 132 A 162 C 192 C 222 A 252 A 282 D
13 B 43 C 73 C 103 C 133 C 163 D 193 D 223 C 253 B 283 D
14 D 44 B 74 D 104 B 134 D 164 D 194 B 224 D 254 A 284 A
15 C 45 B 75 B 105 A 135 C 165 B 195 A 225 B 255 C 285 D
16 D 46 C 76 C 106 A 136 A 166 B 196 B 226 A 256 B 286 B
17 B 47 B 77 A 107 C 137 C 167 C 197 A 227 C 257 B 287 C
18 A 48 D 78 C 108 C 138 D 168 B 198 B 228 A 258 D 288 D
19 D 49 C 79 A 109 C 139 B 169 B 199 A 229 A 259 B 289 B
20 C 50 D 80 D 110 D 140 B 170 C 200 A 230 C 260 A 290 A
21 C 51 A 81 D 111 A 141 A 171 B 201 C 231 A 261 D 291 D
22 A 52 B 82 B 112 B 142 C 172 B 202 B 232 C 262 C 292 B
23 B 53 A 83 C 113 D 143 C 173 A 203 B 233 B 263 A 293 A
24 A 54 A 84 C 114 B 144 B 174 B 204 C 234 B 264 A 294 B
25 D 55 B 85 D 115 D 145 B 175 D 205 C 235 A 265 A 295 A
26 * 56 C 86 C 116 B 146 B 176 B 206 A 236 B 266 A 296 A
27 C 57 C 87 C 117 D 147 D 177 B 207 C 237 A 267 D 297 D
28 A 58 A 88 A 118 B 148 C 178 B 208 D 238 A 268 A 298 A
29 C 59 C 89 D 119 C 149 A 179 A 209 D 239 D 269 D 299 D
30 B 60 B 90 D 120 B 150 A 180 B 210 A 240 D 270 B 300 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:06-12-2021
Text of page 3
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Electrical), GMC ,Class-II(Advt No. 88/2020-21) Exam Date:05-09-2021
AXQ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:B
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 31 * 61 B 91 B 121 B 151 B 181 D 211 B 241 B 271 D
2 A 32 B 62 B 92 B 122 A 152 C 182 D 212 C 242 A 272 C
3 C 33 C 63 D 93 B 123 B 153 D 183 B 213 D 243 D 273 A
4 A 34 A 64 D 94 D 124 A 154 D 184 B 214 B 244 A 274 C
5 D 35 A 65 * 95 B 125 A 155 B 185 A 215 A 245 A 275 C
6 D 36 C 66 C 96 B 126 A 156 A 186 A 216 D 246 A 276 D
7 B 37 A 67 D 97 C 127 C 157 A 187 C 217 B 247 A 277 A
8 C 38 B 68 C 98 C 128 C 158 C 188 D 218 A 248 C 278 B
9 C 39 D 69 B 99 D 129 B 159 D 189 D 219 B 249 D 279 A
10 D 40 C 70 B 100 B 130 A 160 C 190 B 220 A 250 B 280 C
11 C 41 D 71 C 101 B 131 A 161 A 191 B 221 A 251 A 281 B
12 C 42 B 72 B 102 B 132 C 162 C 192 C 222 D 252 C 282 B
13 A 43 A 73 D 103 B 133 C 163 D 193 B 223 A 253 A 283 D
14 D 44 D 74 C 104 A 134 C 164 B 194 B 224 D 254 A 284 B
15 D 45 C 75 D 105 B 135 D 165 B 195 C 225 C 255 C 285 A
16 D 46 C 76 A 106 D 136 A 166 A 196 B 226 C 256 A 286 D
17 B 47 A 77 B 107 A 137 B 167 C 197 B 227 B 257 C 287 C
18 B 48 B 78 A 108 D 138 D 168 C 198 A 228 B 258 B 288 A
19 D 49 A 79 A 109 C 139 B 169 B 199 B 229 C 259 B 289 A
20 C 50 D 80 B 110 D 140 D 170 B 200 D 230 C 260 A 290 A
21 A 51 * 81 C 111 D 141 B 171 B 201 A 231 A 261 B 291 A
22 B 52 C 82 C 112 B 142 D 172 D 202 B 232 C 262 A 292 D
23 D 53 A 83 A 113 C 143 B 173 C 203 D 233 D 263 A 293 A
24 B 54 C 84 C 114 A 144 C 174 A 204 B 234 D 264 D 294 D
25 B 55 B 85 B 115 B 145 B 175 A 205 C 235 A 265 D 295 B
26 B 56 A 86 C 116 B 146 D 176 A 206 C 236 C 266 B 296 B
27 D 57 A 87 C 117 C 147 C 177 C 207 D 237 C 267 B 297 D
28 A 58 D 88 * 118 D 148 A 178 C 208 D 238 A 268 B 298 C
29 A 59 C 89 D 119 B 149 B 179 C 209 A 239 D 269 A 299 B
30 C 60 B 90 A 120 A 150 A 180 A 210 D 240 A 270 B 300 A
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:06-12-2021
Text of page 4
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Electrical), GMC ,Class-II(Advt No. 88/2020-21) Exam Date:05-09-2021
AXQ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:C
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 * 31 C 61 C 91 D 121 B 151 B 181 A 211 B 241 A 271 A
2 C 32 C 62 C 92 B 122 D 152 B 182 C 212 A 242 D 272 D
3 A 33 A 63 A 93 A 123 C 153 B 183 C 213 A 243 A 273 A
4 C 34 C 64 D 94 D 124 A 154 A 184 C 214 D 244 D 274 D
5 B 35 B 65 D 95 C 125 A 155 B 185 D 215 D 245 B 275 C
6 A 36 C 66 D 96 C 126 A 156 D 186 A 216 B 246 B 276 C
7 A 37 C 67 B 97 A 127 C 157 A 187 B 217 B 247 D 277 B
8 D 38 * 68 B 98 B 128 C 158 D 188 D 218 B 248 C 278 B
9 C 39 D 69 D 99 A 129 C 159 C 189 B 219 A 249 B 279 C
10 B 40 A 70 C 100 D 130 A 160 D 190 D 220 B 250 A 280 C
11 B 41 B 71 A 101 B 131 D 161 D 191 B 221 D 251 A 281 A
12 B 42 B 72 B 102 C 132 D 162 B 192 D 222 C 252 B 282 C
13 D 43 B 73 D 103 D 133 B 163 C 193 B 223 A 253 D 283 D
14 D 44 D 74 B 104 D 134 B 164 A 194 C 224 C 254 B 284 D
15 * 45 B 75 B 105 B 135 A 165 B 195 B 225 C 255 C 285 A
16 C 46 B 76 B 106 A 136 A 166 B 196 D 226 D 256 C 286 C
17 D 47 C 77 D 107 A 137 C 167 C 197 C 227 A 257 D 287 C
18 C 48 C 78 A 108 C 138 D 168 D 198 A 228 B 258 D 288 A
19 B 49 D 79 A 109 D 139 D 169 B 199 B 229 A 259 A 289 D
20 B 50 B 80 C 110 C 140 B 170 A 200 A 230 C 260 D 290 A
21 C 51 C 81 * 111 A 141 B 171 B 201 A 231 B 261 B 291 B
22 B 52 A 82 B 112 C 142 C 172 A 202 C 232 B 262 C 292 A
23 D 53 C 83 C 113 D 143 B 173 B 203 A 233 D 263 D 293 D
24 C 54 A 84 A 114 B 144 B 174 A 204 A 234 B 264 B 294 A
25 D 55 D 85 A 115 B 145 C 175 A 205 C 235 A 265 A 295 A
26 A 56 D 86 C 116 A 146 B 176 A 206 A 236 D 266 D 296 A
27 B 57 B 87 A 117 C 147 B 177 C 207 C 237 C 267 B 297 A
28 A 58 C 88 B 118 C 148 A 178 C 208 B 238 A 268 A 298 C
29 A 59 C 89 D 119 B 149 B 179 B 209 B 239 A 269 B 299 D
30 B 60 D 90 C 120 B 150 D 180 A 210 A 240 A 270 A 300 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:06-12-2021
Text of page 5
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Electrical), GMC ,Class-II(Advt No. 88/2020-21) Exam Date:05-09-2021
AXQ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:D
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 D 61 C 91 C 121 B 151 A 181 A 211 D 241 D 271 A
2 B 32 B 62 A 92 D 122 B 152 C 182 A 212 C 242 B 272 A
3 A 33 C 63 B 93 C 123 A 153 C 183 C 213 A 243 A 273 C
4 A 34 C 64 D 94 B 124 B 154 B 184 D 214 A 244 B 274 D
5 B 35 D 65 C 95 B 125 D 155 A 185 C 215 A 245 A 275 B
6 C 36 C 66 D 96 C 126 B 156 A 186 A 216 A 246 A 276 A
7 C 37 C 67 B 97 B 127 B 157 C 187 C 217 D 247 D 277 C
8 A 38 A 68 A 98 D 128 B 158 C 188 D 218 A 248 A 278 A
9 C 39 D 69 D 99 C 129 A 159 C 189 B 219 D 249 D 279 A
10 B 40 D 70 C 100 D 130 B 160 D 190 B 220 B 250 C 280 C
11 C 41 D 71 C 101 A 131 D 161 A 191 A 221 B 251 C 281 A
12 C 42 B 72 A 102 C 132 A 162 B 192 C 222 D 252 B 282 C
13 * 43 B 73 B 103 C 133 D 163 D 193 C 223 C 253 B 283 B
14 D 44 D 74 A 104 C 134 C 164 B 194 B 224 B 254 C 284 B
15 A 45 C 75 D 105 A 135 D 165 D 195 B 225 A 255 C 285 A
16 B 46 A 76 * 106 D 136 D 166 B 196 B 226 A 256 A 286 B
17 B 47 B 77 C 107 D 137 B 167 D 197 D 227 B 257 C 287 A
18 B 48 D 78 A 108 B 138 C 168 B 198 C 228 D 258 D 288 A
19 D 49 B 79 C 109 B 139 A 169 C 199 A 229 B 259 D 289 D
20 B 50 B 80 B 110 A 140 B 170 B 200 A 230 C 260 A 290 D
21 B 51 B 81 A 111 A 141 B 171 D 201 D 231 C 261 C 291 B
22 C 52 D 82 A 112 C 142 C 172 C 202 A 232 D 262 C 292 B
23 C 53 A 83 D 113 D 143 D 173 A 203 B 233 D 263 A 293 B
24 D 54 A 84 C 114 D 144 B 174 B 204 A 234 A 264 D 294 A
25 B 55 C 85 B 115 B 145 A 175 A 205 C 235 D 265 A 295 B
26 C 56 * 86 B 116 B 146 B 176 B 206 B 236 B 266 B 296 D
27 A 57 B 87 B 117 C 147 A 177 C 207 B 237 C 267 A 297 C
28 C 58 C 88 D 118 B 148 B 178 D 208 D 238 D 268 D 298 A
29 A 59 A 89 D 119 B 149 A 179 D 209 B 239 B 269 A 299 C
30 D 60 A 90 * 120 C 150 A 180 B 210 A 240 A 270 A 300 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:06-12-2021Page 1 of 39
Source: Gujarat Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Gujarat Public Service Commission.