GPSC Assistant Engineer 2021: Preliminary, Assistant Engineer (Mechanical) Class-2, Gandhinagar Municipal Corporation
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PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Name of The Post Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), GMC ,Class-2
Advertisement No 87/2020-21
Preliminary Test Held On 05-09-2021
Que. No. 001-300 (General Studies & Concern Subject)
Publish Date 06-09-2021
Last Date to Send Suggestion (S) 15-09 -2021
Instructions / સૂચના (Physical Submission)
Candidate must ensure compliance to the instructions mentioned below, else objections
shall not be considered: -
(1) All the suggestion should be submitted in prescribed format of suggestion sheet
PHYSICALLY.
(2) Question wise suggestion to be submitted in the prescribed format (Suggestion Sheet)
published on the website.
(3) All suggestions are to be submitted with reference to the Master Question Paper with
provisional answer key (Master Question Paper), published herewith on the website.
Objections should be sent referring to the Question, Question No. & options of the Master
Question Paper.
(4) Suggestions regarding question nos. and options other than provisional answer key (Master
Question Paper) shall not be considered.
(5) Objections and answers suggested by the candidate should be in compliance with the
responses given by him in his answer sheet. Objections shall not be considered, in case, if
responses given in the answer sheet /response sheet and submitted suggestions are differed.
(6) Objection for each question shall be made on separate sheet. Objection for more than one
question in single sheet shall not be considered & treated as Cancelled.
(7) Candidate who is present in the exam entitled to submit the objection/(s).
(8) Candidate should attach copy of his/her OMR (Answer sheet) with objection/(s).
ઉમેદવાર ે નીચેની સૂચનાઓનું પાલન કરવાની તકે દારી રાખવી, અ યથા વાંધા-સૂચન અંગે કર ેલ રજૂ આતો યાને
લેવાશે નહી ં
(1) ઉમેદવારે વાંધા-સૂચનો િનયત કરવામાં આવેલ વાંધા-સૂચન પ કથી રજૂ કરવાના રહેશે.
(2) ઉમેદવારે માણે વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ કરવા વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત વાંધા-સૂચન પ કના
નમૂનાનો જ ઉપયોગ કરવો.
(3) ઉમેદવારે પોતાને પરી ામાં મળેલ પુિ તકામાં છપાયેલ માંક મુજબ વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ ન કરતા તમામ
વાંધા-સૂચનો વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર કી (મા ટર પ )ના માંક મુજબ અને તે
સંદભમાં રજૂ કરવા.
(4) મા ટર પ માં િન�દ� ષ્ટ અને િવક પ િસવાયના વાંધા-સૂચન યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહીં.
(5) ઉમેદવારે જે ના િવક પ પર વાંધો રજૂ કરેલ છે અને િવક પ પે જે જવાબ સૂચવેલ છે એ જવાબ ઉમેદવારે
પોતાની ઉ રવહીમાં આપેલ હોવો જોઈએ. ઉમેદવારે સૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉ રવહીનો જવાબ િભ હશે તો
ઉમેદવારે રજૂ કરેલ વાંધા-સૂચન યાનમાં લેવાશે નહીં.
(6) એક માટે એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પ ક વાપરવું. એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પ કમાં એકથી વધારે ોની રજૂઆત
કરેલ હશે તો તે અંગેના વાંધા-સૂચનો યાને લેવાશે નહીં.
(7) પર�ક્ષામાં હાજર રહ�લ ઉમેદવાર જ વાંધા - �ુચન ર�ુ કર� શકશે .
(8) ઉમેદવાર� વાંધા-�ુ ચન સાથે પોતાની જવાબવહ�ની નકલ �બડાણ કરવાની રહ�શે.
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101. The unit of Stress in S.I. unit is
(A) MN/m2 (B) kN/mm2
(C) N/mm2 (D) all of the above
102. When the tensile or compressive force (P) acts on the body, the change in its length is given by
(A) sl/E (B) E/sl
(C) Es/l (D) PA/lE
103. A load is said to be suddenly applied, if it
(A) Falls upon a body from a height
(B) Is placed upon a body at once
(C) Acts upon a body repeatedly
(D) Acts at a point of cross section of a body
104. Maximum shearing stress acts on a plane which is
(A) Normal to planes of maximum and minimum principal stresses
(B) Free of direct stresses
(C) Inclined to principal planes at any angle (0 < q < 45°)
(D) Inclined to principal planes at 45°
105. Thermal stress is caused when the temperature of the body is
(A) increased (B) decreased
(C) remains constant (D) either (A) or (B)
106. In a cantilever beam of length ‘l’ carrying a load whose intensity varies uniformly from zero at the
free end to ‘w’ per unit run at the fixed end, the maximum bending moment is
(A) wl/3 (B) wl2 / 3
(C) wl2 /6 (D) wl2 / 24
107. In case of circular cross section the section modulus is given by
(A) pd2 /16 (B) pd3 /16
(C) pd3 /32 (D) pd4 /64
108. In case of circular cross section the maximum shear stress is _______ percent more than the mean
shear stress
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 33.33 (D) 66.66
109. A square with side ‘x’ of a beam is subjected to a shear force F. The value of shear stress at the top
edge of the section is
(A) Zero (B) 0.5 F/x2
(C) F/x2 (D) 1.5 F/x2
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110. The outside diameter of hollow shaft is twice of its inside diameter. The ratio of its torque carrying
capacity to that of a solid shaft of the same material and the same outside diameter is
(A) 15/16 (B) 3/4
(C) 1/2 (D) 1/16
111. When the solid shaft is subjected to torsion, the shear stress induced in the shaft at its centre is
(A) Zero (B) Minimum
(C) Maximum (D) Average
112. When torque is transmitted by the shaft to the flange through the key then the key is subjected to
(A) Torsion (B) Bending
(C) Shear (D) No Stress
113. In case of spring load per unit deflection is called as
(A) Deflection (B) Stiffness
(C) Spring Constant (D) Both (B) and (C)
114. Deflection of a closely coiled helical spring of diameter ‘D’ subjected to axial load ‘P’ is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
115. In a leaf spring maximum bending stress developed in the plate is
(A) Pl/nbt2 (B) 2Pl/nbt2
(C) 3Pl/nbt2 (D) 3Pl/2nbt2
116. A steam boiler of 800 mm diameter is made up of 10 mm thick plates. If the boiler is subjected to
an internal pressure of 2.5 MPa, the circumferential stress induced in the boiler plate is
(A) 50 MPa (B) 100 MPa
(C) 25 MPa (D) 80.5 MPa
117. The design of thin cylindrical shell is based on
(A) Internal pressure (B) Diameter of Shell
(C) longitudinal Stress (D) All of the above
118. For designing Thick walled pressure vessel we are using
(A) Kennedy’s Theorem (B) Grubler’s Theorem
(C) Lame’s Theorem (D) Krichhoff’s Theorem
119. Carbon steel piece is heated just above 730°C maintain at that temperature for few hours and then
slowly cooled. What is the name of heat treatment process?
(A) normalising (B) case hardening
(C) annealing (D) hardening
120. While normalising, steel will be cooled
(A) in oil (B) in water
(C) in forced air (D) in still air at room temperature
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121. Resilience is
(A) amount of energy absorbed before fracture occurs
(B) resistance to scratching
(C) capacity to absorb energy elastically
(D) none of the above
122. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of
(A) lateral strain to axial strain (B) axial strain to lateral strain
(C) stress to strain (D) none of the above
123. Bravais lattice consists of _______ space lattices.
(A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 14
124. Twin or Twinning is a category of
(A) point imperfections (B) line imperfections
(C) volume imperfections (D) surface imperfections
125. Which of the following is an alloy of lead?
(A) vitallium (B) brass
(C) invar (D) solder
126. Babbit material is used in which application?
(A) electrical appliances (B) turbine and centrifugal pumps
(C) boilers (D) bearings
127. Which of the following can be the value of Poisson’s ratio for an engineering structure?
(A) 2 (B) 0.4
(C) 29 (D) any value possible
128. Co-ordination number of a crystalline solid is:
(A) number of particles in the unit cell
(B) number of nearest neighbours of a particle
(C) number of octahedral voids in a unit cell
(D) number of tetrahedral voids in a unit cell
129. Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched?
(A) Positive Drive - Belt Drive
(B) High Velocity Ratio - Worm Gearing
(C) To connect non Parallel Nor Intersecting Shaft - Spiral Gearing
(D) Diminished noise and smooth operation - Helical Gearing
130. Kinematics chain requires at least
(A) 02 link and 03 turning pairs
(B) 03 links and 04 turning pairs
(C) 04 links and 04 turning pairs
(D) 05 links and 04 turning pairs
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131. A four bar mechanism satisfying Grashof’s criteria will act as drag link mechanism if
(A) The longest link is fixed
(B) The shortest link is fixed
(C) Any link adjacent to shortest link is fixed
(D) Both (A) and (B)
132. The equivalent number of binary links of a spring are
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
133. Which one of the following is an inversion of double slider crank chain mechanism?
(A) Whitworth quick return motion mechanism
(B) Reciprocating compressor
(C) Scotch Yoke mechanism
(D) Rotary Engine
134. The ratio of tensions in the tight and slack sides of a belt drive is
(A) mq (B) exp (mq)
(C) 1/mq (D) exp (1/mq)
135. The net effect of creep in belts is to
(A) increase the speed of driven pulley
(B) decrease the speed of driven pulley
(C) increase the power output
(D) decrease the power output
136. A prime mover running at 300 rpm drives a DC generator at 500 rpm by a belt drive. Diameter of
the pulley on the output shaft of the prime mover is 600 mm. Assuming a slip of 3%, the diameter
of the generator pulley will be _______ if the belt running over it is 6 mm thick
(A) 346.7 mm (B) 350 mm
(C) 326.2 mm (D) 280 mm
137. The total reaction of ground on wheels of a vehicle due to gyroscopic couple and centrifugal force
while moving on curve road is
(A) Increased on inner wheel and decreased on outer wheel
(B) Decreased on inner wheel and increased on outer wheel
(C) Increased on all the wheels
(D) Decreased on all the wheels
138. If the propeller of the aeroplane rotates clockwise when viewed from rear and the aeroplane takes
a right turn, the gyroscopic effect will
(A) Tend to raise the tail and depress the nose
(B) Tend to raise the nose and depress the tail
(C) Tilt the aeroplane about spin axis
(D) Have no effect
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139. The pressure angle of the cam is defined as the angle between the line of motion of the follower
and the
(A) Tangent on the pitch curve
(B) Normal on the pitch curve
(C) Tangent on the cam profile
(D) Normal on the cam profile
140. The effect of the spring mass can be accounted for to calculate the natural frequency of the spring
mass system by ‘n’ times the mass of spring to main mass, where
(A) n = 1/2 (B) n = 1/3
(C) n = 1/4 (D) n = 3/4
141. A torsional system having ‘m’ rotors on the vibrating shaft has
(A) m nodes (B) (m – 1) nodes
(C) (m – 2) nodes (D) 2m nodes
142. The noise having the same amplitude at all frequencies is called
(A) Pink Noise (B) White Noise
(C) Dark Noise (D) Uniform Noise
143. Transfer function is the operational relationship between output and
(A) input (B) error
(C) response (D) command
144. Partial balancing in locomotives results in
(A) Hammer blow (B) Variation in tractive effort
(C) Swaying couple (D) All of the above
145. Static balancing involves balancing of
(A) Forces (B) Couples
(C) Forces as well as couples (D) Masses
146. For rolling contact bearings operating at relatively higher speed and temperature, the lubricant
used is
(A) Grease (B) Oil
(C) Graphite (D) None of the above
147. Slenderness ratio in case of infinitely long bearing is
(A) Greater than 2 (B) equal to 1
(C) Less than 0.25 (D) In-between 0.25 and 2
148. Discontinuous chips are formed while machining
(A) brittle material (B) hard material
(C) tough material (D) ductile material
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149. Spiral flutes are provided on drill bits
(A) to form cutting edge of the drill point
(B) to provide passage to coolant supply
(C) guiding the chips upward
(D) all of the above
150. Out of the following, which is non-destructive testing method of welds?
(A) tension test (B) bend test
(C) ultrasonic (D) creep
151. The name of the forming process is
(A) honing (B) forging
(C) reaming (D) drilling
152. In which of the following electrode is not consumed?
(A) TIG welding (B) gas welding
(C) laser welding (D) arc welding
153. Steady rest on a lathe is used for
(A) irregular jobs (B) long jobs
(C) large diameter jobs (D) threading jobs
154. Last element in tool signature is
(A) side relief angle (B) side cutting edge angle
(C) nose radius (D) end relief angle
155. Investment casting is also called as
(A) lost wax casting (B) lost pattern casting
(C) hot casting (D) none of the above
156. Commonly used material for gauges are
(A) high speed steel (B) mild steel
(C) high carbon and alloy steel (D) none of the above
157. Which gauge is used to check contour of a profile of a work piece?
(A) plug (B) ring
(C) thread (D) form
158. An isolated system
(A) across which only energy transfer takes place
(B) across which only mass transfer takes place
(C) across which both mass and energy transfer take place
(D) none of the above
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159. According to Boyle’s law which property is kept constant?
(A) pressure (B) temperature
(C) volume (D) enthalpy
160. If during a process, entropy of an isolated system increases, the process is
(A) adiabatic (B) isothermal
(C) reversible (D) irreversible
161. Second law of thermodynamics defines
(A) heat (B) enthalpy
(C) internal energy (D) entropy
162. In the polytropic process PVn = constant. If n is zero then process is termed as
(A) isentropic (B) isochoric process
(C) isobaric process (D) isothermal process
163. In a steam power plant, thermodynamic cycle used is
(A) Rankine cycle (B) Joule cycle
(C) Brayton cycle (D) Otto cycle
164. Heat is low grade energy and work is high grade energy. It is given by which law of thermodynamics?
(A) zeroth law (B) first law
(C) second law (D) third law
165. The value of universal gas constant is
(A) 4.187 kJ/kg K (B) 0.287 kJ/kg mole K
(C) 1.005 kJ/kg K (D) 8.3141 kJ/kg mole K
166. Which of the following is not the path function?
(A) work (B) heat
(C) kinetic energy (D) all of the above
167. It is not possible to transfer heat from low temperature body to high temperature body without
external work. This statement is
(A) Kelvin statement of second law of thermodynamics
(B) Clausius statement of second law of thermodynamics
(C) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(D) Third law of thermodynamics
168. Internal energy is a function of temperature. This statement is related to which law?
(A) Joule law (B) Charle law
(C) Dalton law (D) Boyle law
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169. Temperature of a gas is a measure of
(A) average distance between the molecules
(B) average kinetic energy of the molecules
(C) average potential energy of the molecules
(D) none of the above
170. A cycle consists of two adiabatic and two constant volume processes is known as
(A) Diesel cycle (B) Otto cycle
(C) Carnot cycle (D) Brayton cycle
171. For the same compression ratio, which is the most efficient cycle for IC engine?
(A) Dual (B) Otto
(C) Diesel (D) All of the above
172. What is the compression ratio for an IC engine?
(A) ratio of exhaust pressure to suction pressure
(B) ratio of exhaust temperature to suction temperature
(C) ratio of stroke volume to clearance volume
(D) ratio of maximum volume to minimum volume
173. In Rankine cycle, the isentropic expansion happens in which device?
(A) boiler (B) turbine
(C) condenser (D) IC engine
174. Brayton cycle is applicable to which device?
(A) IC engine power plant (B) thermal power plant
(C) gas turbine power plant (D) hydroelectric power plant
175. For a reversible adiabatic process, the change in entropy is
(A) minimum (B) maximum
(C) zero (D) infinite
176. The area of a thermodynamic cycle on T-S and PV diagram represents what?
(A) heat and work respectively
(B) work and heat respectively
(C) work and enthalpy respectively
(D) work and internal energy respectively
177. Out of the following which is power absorbing device?
(A) IC engine (B) compressor
(C) boiler (D) turbine
178. Compression ratio of petrol engine is in the range of
(A) 6 to10 (B) 10 to15
(C) 15 to 25 (D) 25 to 40
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179. In a two-stroke cycle engine, the working cycle is completed in
(A) one revolution of crank shaft
(B) two revolutions of crank shaft
(C) three revolutions of crank shaft
(D) four revolutions of crank shaft
180. The detonation tendency in SI engines may be decreased by
(A) controlling the air fuel mixture
(B) controlling the spark timing
(C) reducing compression ratio
(D) all of the above
181. Volumetric efficiency of the engine increases due to
(A) heating of air in intake manifold
(B) increase in suction pressure
(C) increased resistance of inlet valve
(D) increasing the speed of engine
182. Air-fuel ratio needed for maximum power in petrol engine is
(A) 12:1 (B) 15:1
(C) 17:1 (D) 20:1
183. Compression ratio in SI engines is kept lower than diesel engine
(A) to reduce weight (B) to avoid pre-ignition
(C) to improve thermal efficiency (D) none of the above
184. Which of the following is not a part of induction system?
(A) fuel pump and fuel filter (B) carburettor
(C) throttle valve (D) spark plug
185. Flame speed in combustion chamber during flame travel is
(A) high at start and end whereas low in middle portion of combustion chamber
(B) low at start and end whereas high in middle portion of combustion chamber
(C) constant throughout
(D) can’t predict
186. Knocking tendency in diesel engine increases with
(A) decreasing compression ratio (B) utilising supercharging
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of the above
187. Engine develops 70 kW and uses fuel 0.30 kg/min. CV of fuel is 42000 kJ/kg. Its thermal
efficiency is
(A) 39.24 % (B) 33.33 %
(C) 42 % (D) 25.62 %
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188. Pintaux nozzle compared to pintle nozzle provides
(A) lesser delay period
(B) more ignition lag
(C) lesser ignition lag and better cold starting performance
(D) none of the above
189. Material used for crankshaft of I.C. engine is
(A) mild steel (B) aluminium alloy
(C) plain carbon steel (D) forged steel
190. In theoretical valve timing diagram of 4 stroke I.C. engines, suction and exhaust valves are opened
and closed at
(A) dead centres
(B) few degree before or after dead centres
(C) top dead centre
(D) Bottom dead centre
191. Determine the number of spark produced by ignition system of 4 stroke, 4 cylinder engine in 1 min
if engine is running at a speed of 1000 rpm.
(A) 500 (B) 1000
(C) 2000 (D) 4000
192. Exhaust gas calorimeter is used to calculate
(A) thermal efficiency (B) specific fuel consumption
(C) mechanical efficiency (D) heat balance sheet
193. Stoichiometric AF ratio for combustion of petrol is
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 12 (D) 15
194. Scavenging process is the result of
(A) earlier opening of exhaust valve
(B) late closing of exhaust valve
(C) earlier opening of inlet valve
(D) late closing of suction valve
195. Gudgeon pin is used to connect which parts of the I.C. engine?
(A) crank and connecting rod (B) crank shaft and flywheel
(C) crank and piston (D) connecting rod and piston
196. Lower ring of the piston is called as
(A) compression ring (B) expansion ring
(C) oil ring (D) any of these
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197. In the Orsat apparatus NaOH solution is used to absorb
(A) CO (B) CO2
(C) O2 (D) none of the above
198. If P1 and P2 are the tight and slack side tensions in the belt, then the initial tension Pi will be
equal to
(A) (B) (P1 + P2)
(C) (P1 + P2) (D) (P1 + P2) + Pc
199. In some applications, chain drives are preferred to belt drive because of
(A) compact construction (B) positive transmission
(C) low cost (D) (A) and (B)
200. The variation in chain speed is due to
(A) chordal action (B) creep
(C) slip (D) backlash
201. Maximum efficiency of a pair of spur gears is
(A) 99% (B) 80%
(C) 50% (D) 92%
202. For transmitting power, a simple gear train consisting of 11 gears is used. Then the driver and
driven shafts will be rotating in
(A) same direction (B) opposite direction
(C) same or opposite direction (D) none of the above
203. The tooth thickness of an involute gear in terms of module ‘m’ is
(A) 1.157 m (B) 1.5 m
(C) 2 m (D) 1.5708 m
204. The angle through which a gear turns from the beginning of contact of a pair of teeth until the
contact arrives at the pitch point is known as
(A) angle of contact (B) angle of recess
(C) angle of approach (D) angle of action
205. Beam strength of gear tooth is
(A) maximum tangential force that the tooth can transmit without bending failure
(B) maximum bending stress that the tooth can transmit without failure
(C) maximum tangential force that the tooth can transmit without pitting failure
(D) maximum contact stress that the tooth can transmit without failure
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206. If z is the actual number of teeth on a helical gear and Y is the helix angle for the teeth, then the
formative number of teeth is given by
(A) ZCos3j (B) (C) ZCos2j (D)
207. In a pair of crossed helical gears, both gears have right hand helical teeth with 45° helix angle.
The angle between the shafts of two gears is
(A) 45° (B) 90° (C) 22.5° (D) 0°
208. Two bevel gears with 25 and 50 teeth are in mesh with each other. The pitch angle of gear is
(A) (B) sin–1 (0.5)
(C) tan–1 (0.5) (D)
209. A worm gear drive consists of double start worm meshing with a 50 teeth worm wheel. The velocity
ratio is
(A) 25 (B) 100
(C) 50 (D) 75
210. What is the maximum percentage loss of economic cutting speed if geometric progression
ratio = 1.06 ?
(A) 17 (B) 11.5
(C) 5.7 (D) 2.9
211. Harmonic progression is defined as
(A) Difference between reciprocal of two successive spindle speeds is constant
(B) Difference between two successive spindle speeds is constant
(C) Ratio of two successive spindle speeds is constant
(D) Ratio of two successive spindle speeds is variable
212. In which type of manual transmission the double declutching is used?
(A) Constant Mesh Gear Box (B) Sliding Mesh Gear Box
(C) Synchromesh Gear Box (D) Epicyclical Gear Box
213. A _______ is a representation of structural formula, Speed in each stage and the transmission
ratio in each stage
(A) Speed Diagram (B) Ray Diagram
(C) Speed chart (D) Structural Diagram
214. It is more logical and safer to use _______ in the design of clutches
(A) Uniform Pressure Theory (B) Uniform Wear Theory
(C) Constant Volume Theory (D) None of the above
215. For cone clutch, the recommended semi-cone angle (a) is
(A) 25° (B) 6.2°
(C) 12.5° (D) 15°
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216. The centrifugal clutches are used in
(A) Mopeds (B) Heavy Trucks
(C) Sport Cars (D) Trains
217. From ergonomic considerations, the brake system should be designed for a maximum pedal
force of
(A) 22 to 25 N (B) 30 to 35 N
(C) 12.5 to 17 N (D) None of the above
218. The transfer of heat by molecular collision is smallest in
(A) solids (B) liquids
(C) gases (D) none of the above
219. The value of Prandtl number for air is about
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.7
(C) 1.7 (D) 0.3
220. The automobile radiator is a heat exchanger of
(A) parallel flow (B) counter flow
(C) cross flow (D) regenerator
221. Cork is a good insulator because it has
(A) free electrons (B) atomic collision
(C) low lattice vibrations (D) porosity
222. According to Wien’s law, the wavelength corresponding to maximum energy is directly proportional
to
(A) absolute temperature (T) (B) T2
(C) T4 (D) 1/T
223. The concept of overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in heat transfer problems of
(A) conduction (B) convection
(C) radiation (D) conduction and convection
224. Reynolds number is the ratio of
(A) energy transferred by convection to that by conduction
(B) kinematic viscosity to thermal diffusivity
(C) inertia force to viscous force
(D) none of the above
225. When absorptivity (a) = 1, reflectivity (r) = 0 and transmissivity (t) = 0, then the body is said to be
(A) gray body (B) white body
(C) opaque body (D) black body
226. Thermal conductivity of water at 20°C is of the order of _______ W/m K
(A) 0 (B) 0.025
(C) 0.55 (D) 210
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227. The ratio of Nusselt number and the product of Reynolds number and Prandtl number is equal to
(A) Stanton No. (B) Grashof No.
(C) Biot No. (D) Peclet No.
228. The colour of flame of halide torch in case of leakage of refrigerant will change to
(A) yellow (B) orange
(C) bright green (D) red
229. In a vapour compressor refrigeration system, the lowest temperature during the cycle occurs after
(A) compression (B) condensation
(C) expansion (D) evaporation
230. The process of undercooling is generally brought about by
(A) circulating more quantity of cooling water through the condenser
(B) using water colder than the main circulating water
(C) employing heat exchanger
(D) all of the above
231. The evaporator is also known as
(A) freezing coil (B) chilling coil
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) pressure building device
232. The vertical and uniformly spaced lines on psychrometric chart indicate
(A) dry bulb temperature (B) wet bulb temperature
(C) dew point temperature (D) specific humidity
233. During sensible cooling of air, the wet bulb temperature
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains constant (D) anything can happen
234. Human body feels comfortable when the air is at _______°C and _______ % relative humidity.
(A) 20, 60 (B) 30, 70
(C) 22, 60 (D) 21, 56
235. 1 tonne of refrigeration is equal to
(A) 21 kJ/min (B) 210 kJ/min
(C) 420 kJ/min (D) none of the above
236. Thermostatic expansion valve is called
(A) constant pressure valve
(B) constant temperature valve
(C) constant superheat valve
(D) none of the above
32 [AXP] [Contd.
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237. Sub cooling is the process of cooling the refrigerant in vapour compression refrigeration system
(A) before compression (B) after compression
(C) before throttling (D) after throttling
238. The _______, part of transmission system, is next to crankshaft
(A) Clutch (B) Gear Box
(C) Propeller Shaft (D) Differential
239. The variation in speed of inner and outer wheels is performed by the differential with the help of
_______ system.
(A) Bevel Gear (B) Helical Gear
(C) Sun and planet gear (D) None of the above
240. The camshaft rotates at _______speed of crankshaft in four stroke engine
(A) Equal (B) Double
(C) Half (D) One-third
241. During braking _______ is converted into _______
(A) Potential Energy – Kinetic Energy
(B) Kinetic Energy – Heat Energy
(C) Heat Energy – Fluid Power
(D) Both (A) and (B)
242. The distance covered by the automobile before it comes to rest after the application of brakes is
known as
(A) Stopping Distance (B) Effective Distance
(C) Anti-braking Distance (D) None of the above
243. Parking Brakes are classified as _______ and _______ parking brakes.
(A) Independent - Integral (B) Partial – Differential
(C) Integral – Differential (D) Both (B) and (C)
244. In sliding mesh gear box, the shaft on which all the gears are fixed and rotate with same velocity
is called as
(A) Driving Shaft (B) Clutch Shaft
(C) Lay Shaft (D) Spline Shaft
245. The _______ gear box is considered the most advanced and rapid gear changing gear box
(A) Synchromesh (B) Constant Mesh
(C) Sliding Mesh (D) Differential
246. In case of suspension system the mass of the passenger carriage is called as
(A) Unsprung mass (B) Sprung mass
(C) Idle mass (D) Passive mass
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247. The independent suspension system for the front wheels is
(A) Double wish bone suspension
(B) MacPherson strut assembly
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Hydraulic Suspension
248. In steering mechanism, the outward or inward tilt of the wheel at the top is called as _______
(A) Camber Angle (B) Caster Angle
(C) King Pin Inclination (D) Toe Angle
249. Starter motors with four-field windings, called four-field four-brush circuits which provide
stronger magnetic fields and gives greater
(A) Torque (B) Movement
(C) Force (D) Velocity
250. In internal combustion engine, the spark plug gap varies from
(A) 0.4 mm to 1.00 mm (B) 1.00 mm to 2.00 mm
(C) 4.00 mm to 5.5 mm (D) 00 mm to 0.4 mm
251. CAD / CAM is the inter relationship between
(A) Marketing and design
(B) Manufacturing and marketing
(C) Engineering and Marketing
(D) Engineering and Manufacturing
252. Four basic elements are required for an automated machine tool or production process are input
interface, memory, output interface and
(A) Logic (B) NC tape programming
(C) Software (D) Workstation
253. Workstation consist of three basic components – Primary processor, Associated memory and
(A) Graphics display system & Computer
(B) Plotter System
(C) Drafting system
(D) Numerical control
254. Graphic system consists of Geometry engine subsystem, Scan conversion subsystem, Display
subsystem and
(A) Plotter subsystem (B) Raster subsystem
(C) Coding subsystem (D) both (A) and (C)
255. In FEA process, the description of the geometry, the physical characteristics and the mesh is
called as
(A) Post-Processing (B) Pre-Processing
(C) Modelling (D) Meshing
34 [AXP] [Contd.
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256. In a program block as given below for CNC machine, what do you mean by W-50?
N005 G01 U20 W-50 S1200 F0.2 M08;
(A) Block number
(B) X increment in slide movement
(C) Z increment in slide movement
(D) Feed rate
257. Number of channels used in NC tape are
(A) 6 (B) 7
(C) 8 (D) 9
258. One block of information in part program is separated from another block by
(A) character (B) end of block
(C) bits (D) words
259. G-Code for incremental programming is
(A) G90 (B) G92
(C) G91 (D) G98
260. In CNC programming, length offsets are cancelled by
(A) G40 (B) G41
(C) G43 (D) G49
261. Out of the following which is not the method of reducing the pollution from I.C. engines?
(A) positive crankcase ventilation (B) muffler system
(C) evaporative emission control (D) exhaust gas recirculation
262. Name the exhaust gas analyser in which selective absorption technique is used for measurement
of pollutants.
(A) NDIR (B) FID
(C) Hartridge smoke meter (D) Orsat apparatus
263. Maximum NOx is produced when air fuel mixture is
(A) rich (B) lean
(C) stoichiometric (D) all of the above
264. For conversion of CO and hydrocarbon which catalysis is preferred?
(A) rhodium (B) platinum
(C) helium (D) all of the above
265. 3 way catalytic converter takes care of which pollutants?
(A) CO (B) NOx
(C) UBHC (D) all of the above
266. When battery is in undercharged condition it would cause _______ in engine
(A) Knocking (B) Slow cranking
(C) Pre-combustion (D) None of the above
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M
267. In charging system output test, _______ is connected at battery terminals of alternator
(A) Ampere meter (B) Volt Meter
(C) Ohm meter (D) Rheostat
268. The first step in the diagnostic process is
(A) Retrieve the diagnostic trouble codes
(B) Perform a thorough visual inspection
(C) Verify the problem
(D) Check the scan tool data
269. Which gas is generally considered to be the rich indicator? (The higher the level of this gas, the
richer is the air-fuel mixture.)
(A) HC (B) CO
(C) CO2 (D) O2
270. _______ brakes more affected by wet and heat than _______ brakes because both water and heat
are trapped inside.
(A) Drum - disc (B) Disc - drum
(C) Band - block (D) Pneumatic - hydraulic
271. The test named as Brake fluid tester measures the _______ content of the fluid.
(A) air (B) dust
(C) metal particle (D) moisture
272. The plies of a radial tyre pass from bead to bead at _______ to the circumference, or radially
(A) 45° (B) 90°
(C) 120° (D) 180°
273. Steering boxes contain a _______ which rotates with the steering column
(A) spur gear (B) helical gear
(C) bevel gear (D) worm gear
274. While steering, if the slip angle on the rear axle is significantly greater than the front axle and
causes the vehicle to travel in a tighter circle then it is called as
(A) neutral (B) understeer
(C) oversteer (D) topple
275. On many cars, the front wheels are not mounted vertically to the road surface. Often they are
tilted outwards at the top. This is called
(A) positive camber (B) negative camber
(C) neutral camber (D) negative chamfer
276. Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone responsible for the absorption of UV
(Ultra-Violet) light?
(A) stratosphere (B) troposphere
(C) mesosphere (D) none of the above
36 [AXP] [Contd.
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277. The type of forests grown in the Himalayan mountain region is called
(A) broad leaved forests (B) coniferous forests
(C) deciduous forests (D) tropical forests
278. Brackish water ecosystems are found in which of the following:
(A) streams (B) wetlands
(C) deltas (D) coastal shallows
279. Which of the following element is responsible for groundwater pollution in various states?
(A) chlorine (B) halide
(C) fluoride (D) all of the above
280. The 3R principle is in which of the following order?
(A) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle (B) Reuse, Reduce, Recycle
(C) Reuse, Recycle, Reduce (D) All of the above
281. “In this system, the engine is used to supply electrical power to the motor, which then turns the
wheels”. Select the type of Hybrid System according to above description.
(A) plug in hybrid (B) parallel hybrid
(C) series – parallel hybrid (D) series hybrid
282. Select the features of hybrid electric vehicles.
(A) idle stop (B) regenerative braking
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of the above
283. Lithium Ion Batteries are taking away the market share from which type of batteries?
(A) NiMH Batteries (B) Acid Batteries
(C) AA batteries (D) AAA batteries
284. What voltage is likely to be available from the battery of an electric vehicle or hybrid?
(A) 12 V (B) 24 V
(C) 400 V (D) 1000 V
285. By what name traditional vehicles equipped with start stop system are recognized?
(A) hybrid (B) micro hybrid
(C) hybrid active (D) none of the above
286. In self-driving car, _______ is the action of taking the singular aspects from each of the devices and
putting them together into a larger puzzle.
(A) Sensor fusion (B) Sensor capture
(C) Deep learning (D) Machine learning
287. In contemporary cars, there are _______ system which controls subsystems of the car, such as the
engine, the brakes, the doors and the windows.
(A) OBD (B) ECU
(C) CPU (D) UPS
[AXP] 37
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M
288. _______ in Machine learning do not focus on individual target variables, but instead have the goal
of characterizing a data set in general.
(A) Unsupervised learning algorithms
(B) Supervised learning algorithms
(C) Null algorithms
(D) None of the above
289. In self-driving car, _______ is an object detection technique implemented by Open CV for detection
of Pedestrian.
(A) Object Oriented Programming (OOP)
(B) Graphics Oriented Object (GOO)
(C) Histogram of Oriented Gradients (HOG)
(D) None of the above
290. The vertical and horizontal angular portion of the environment (scene) that is visible to the sensor
is called as
(A) Field of View (FoV) (B) Resolution
(C) Focal Length (D) Both (A) and (B)
291. _______ is the distance range in the environment that will be in focus of sensors.
(A) Field of View (FoV) (B) Resolution
(C) Focal Length (D) Depth of field (DoF)
292. The study of computer algorithms that improve automatically through experience is called
as _______
(A) Artificial Intelligent (B) Machine Learning
(C) Self-Learning (D) Data Analytics
293. In Quality department use of Artificial Intelligent and Machine Learning
(A) Improves the response time (B) Allows eliminating possible failures
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Not much effective
294. Among the given options, which search algorithm requires less memory?
(A) Optimal Search (B) Depth First Search
(C) Breadth-First Search (D) Linear Search
295. Which of the following is a widely used and effective machine learning algorithm based on the idea
of bagging?
(A) Decision Tree (B) Regression
(C) Classification (D) Random Forest
296. Additive Manufacturing is a process in which the model of an object has to be created in any
Modelling Software and has to save in the format of _______
(A) .STL (B) .XLXS
(C) .JPEG (D) .SVG
38 [AXP] [Contd.
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297. Selective Laser Sintering is one of the _______ Technique
(A) Flexible Manufacturing (B) Rapid Prototyping
(C) Lean Manufacturing (D) Automation Control
298. Industry 4.0 encompasses _______ technological trends for driving industrial transformation
(A) connectivity (B) intelligence
(C) flexible automation (D) all of the above
299. The tool generally used to implement Sustainable Manufacturing is _______
(A) the Statistical Analysis Software (SAS)
(B) the Life Cycle Assessment (LCA)
(C) the Biggest Machine Learning Algorithm (BigML)
(D) the Natural Language Toolkit (NLTK)
300. Nano Technology is defined as the manipulation of matter with at least one dimension sized
from _______
(A) 1 - 10 nm (B) 1 - 100 nm
(C) 1 - 1000 nm (D) 1 - 109 nm
____________________
[AXP] 39
Text of page 1
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), GMC ,Class-II(Advt No. 87/2020-21) Exam Date:05-09-2021
AXP
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:M
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 * 31 D 61 C 91 D 121 C 151 B 181 B 211 A 241 B 271 D
2 C 32 B 62 C 92 B 122 A 152 A 182 A 212 A 242 A 272 B
3 A 33 C 63 * 93 A 123 D 153 B 183 B 213 B 243 A 273 D
4 C 34 C 64 D 94 D 124 C 154 C 184 D 214 B 244 C 274 C
5 B 35 D 65 A 95 C 125 D 155 A 185 B 215 C 245 A 275 A
6 A 36 C 66 B 96 C 126 D 156 C 186 A 216 A 246 B 276 A
7 A 37 C 67 B 97 A 127 B 157 D 187 B 217 A 247 C 277 B
8 D 38 A 68 B 98 B 128 B 158 D 188 C 218 C 248 A 278 C
9 C 39 D 69 D 99 A 129 A 159 B 189 D 219 B 249 A 279 C
10 B 40 D 70 B 100 D 130 C 160 D 190 A 220 C 250 A 280 A
11 B 41 D 71 B 101 D 131 B 161 D 191 C 221 D 251 D 281 D
12 B 42 B 72 C 102 A 132 B 162 C 192 D 222 D 252 A 282 C
13 D 43 B 73 C 103 B 133 C 163 A 193 D 223 D 253 A 283 A
14 D 44 D 74 D 104 D 134 B 164 C 194 B 224 C 254 B 284 C
15 * 45 C 75 B 105 D 135 B 165 D 195 D 225 D 255 B 285 B
16 C 46 A 76 B 106 C 136 A 166 C 196 C 226 C 256 C 286 A
17 D 47 B 77 D 107 C 137 B 167 B 197 B 227 A 257 C 287 B
18 C 48 D 78 A 108 C 138 A 168 A 198 C 228 C 258 B 288 A
19 B 49 B 79 A 109 A 139 B 169 B 199 D 229 * 259 C 289 C
20 B 50 B 80 C 110 A 140 B 170 B 200 A 230 D 260 D 290 A
21 C 51 A 81 * 111 A 141 B 171 B 201 A 231 C 261 B 291 D
22 B 52 B 82 B 112 C 142 B 172 D 202 A 232 A 262 A 292 B
23 D 53 A 83 C 113 D 143 A 173 B 203 D 233 B 263 C 293 C
24 C 54 A 84 A 114 A 144 D 174 C 204 C 234 D 264 B 294 B
25 D 55 B 85 A 115 D 145 D 175 C 205 A 235 B 265 D 295 D
26 C 56 C 86 C 116 B 146 B 176 A 206 B 236 C 266 B 296 A
27 A 57 C 87 A 117 D 147 A 177 B 207 B 237 C 267 A 297 B
28 C 58 A 88 B 118 C 148 A 178 A 208 A 238 A 268 C 298 D
29 A 59 C 89 D 119 C 149 D 179 A 209 A 239 C 269 B 299 B
30 D 60 B 90 C 120 D 150 C 180 D 210 D 240 C 270 A 300 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:04-12-2021
Text of page 2
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), GMC ,Class-II(Advt No. 87/2020-21) Exam Date:05-09-2021
AXP
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:A
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 31 A 61 C 91 D 121 C 151 B 181 B 211 A 241 A 271 D
2 D 32 A 62 C 92 B 122 B 152 A 182 B 212 B 242 A 272 B
3 A 33 D 63 * 93 B 123 C 153 B 183 C 213 A 243 C 273 D
4 A 34 C 64 D 94 D 124 D 154 C 184 B 214 C 244 B 274 C
5 C 35 B 65 A 95 C 125 A 155 A 185 B 215 A 245 C 275 A
6 * 36 B 66 B 96 A 126 D 156 C 186 A 216 D 246 D 276 C
7 B 37 B 67 B 97 B 127 A 157 D 187 B 217 B 247 D 277 A
8 C 38 D 68 B 98 D 128 B 158 D 188 A 218 C 248 D 278 C
9 A 39 D 69 D 99 B 129 D 159 B 189 B 219 B 249 C 279 *
10 A 40 * 70 B 100 B 130 D 160 D 190 B 220 D 250 D 280 D
11 C 41 C 71 B 101 A 131 C 161 D 191 B 221 A 251 D 281 C
12 A 42 D 72 C 102 B 132 C 162 C 192 B 222 B 252 A 282 A
13 B 43 C 73 C 103 A 133 C 163 A 193 A 223 D 253 A 283 B
14 D 44 B 74 D 104 A 134 A 164 C 194 D 224 B 254 B 284 D
15 C 45 B 75 B 105 D 135 A 165 D 195 D 225 B 255 B 285 B
16 D 46 C 76 C 106 B 136 A 166 C 196 B 226 A 256 C 286 C
17 B 47 B 77 A 107 A 137 C 167 B 197 A 227 A 257 C 287 C
18 A 48 D 78 C 108 B 138 D 168 A 198 A 228 D 258 B 288 A
19 D 49 C 79 A 109 D 139 A 169 B 199 D 229 C 259 C 289 C
20 C 50 D 80 D 110 B 140 D 170 B 200 C 230 A 260 D 290 C
21 C 51 A 81 D 111 A 141 B 171 B 201 A 231 B 261 B 291 B
22 A 52 B 82 B 112 B 142 D 172 D 202 B 232 B 262 A 292 A
23 B 53 A 83 C 113 C 143 C 173 B 203 C 233 A 263 C 293 A
24 A 54 A 84 C 114 D 144 C 174 C 204 C 234 A 264 B 294 C
25 D 55 B 85 D 115 A 145 D 175 C 205 A 235 D 265 D 295 A
26 * 56 C 86 C 116 C 146 C 176 D 206 D 236 A 266 B 296 B
27 C 57 C 87 C 117 D 147 A 177 B 207 C 237 A 267 A 297 C
28 A 58 A 88 A 118 D 148 D 178 B 208 A 238 B 268 C 298 A
29 C 59 C 89 D 119 B 149 C 179 A 209 C 239 B 269 B 299 A
30 B 60 B 90 D 120 D 150 D 180 C 210 B 240 C 270 A 300 A
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:04-12-2021
Text of page 3
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), GMC ,Class-II(Advt No. 87/2020-21) Exam Date:05-09-2021
AXP
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:B
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 31 * 61 B 91 B 121 B 151 D 181 C 211 C 241 D 271 D
2 A 32 B 62 B 92 B 122 A 152 A 182 D 212 C 242 B 272 D
3 C 33 C 63 D 93 B 123 A 153 B 183 D 213 A 243 C 273 D
4 A 34 A 64 D 94 D 124 D 154 D 184 B 214 C 244 B 274 C
5 D 35 A 65 * 95 B 125 C 155 D 185 D 215 C 245 D 275 D
6 D 36 C 66 C 96 B 126 A 156 C 186 D 216 B 246 A 276 D
7 B 37 A 67 D 97 C 127 B 157 C 187 C 217 A 247 B 277 A
8 C 38 B 68 C 98 C 128 A 158 C 188 A 218 A 248 D 278 A
9 C 39 D 69 B 99 D 129 A 159 A 189 C 219 C 249 B 279 B
10 D 40 C 70 B 100 B 130 D 160 A 190 D 220 A 250 B 280 B
11 C 41 D 71 C 101 D 131 B 161 A 191 C 221 B 251 A 281 C
12 C 42 B 72 B 102 B 132 A 162 C 192 B 222 C 252 A 282 C
13 A 43 A 73 D 103 B 133 B 163 D 193 A 223 A 253 D 283 B
14 D 44 D 74 C 104 A 134 D 164 A 194 B 224 A 254 C 284 C
15 D 45 C 75 D 105 C 135 B 165 D 195 B 225 A 255 A 285 D
16 D 46 C 76 A 106 B 136 A 166 B 196 B 226 A 256 B 286 B
17 B 47 A 77 B 107 B 137 B 167 D 197 D 227 B 257 B 287 A
18 B 48 B 78 A 108 C 138 C 168 C 198 B 228 C 258 A 288 C
19 D 49 A 79 A 109 B 139 D 169 C 199 C 229 C 259 A 289 B
20 C 50 D 80 B 110 B 140 A 170 D 200 C 230 A 260 D 290 D
21 A 51 * 81 C 111 A 141 C 171 C 201 C 231 D 261 A 291 B
22 B 52 C 82 C 112 B 142 D 172 A 202 A 232 C 262 A 292 A
23 D 53 A 83 A 113 A 143 D 173 D 203 C 233 A 263 B 293 C
24 B 54 C 84 C 114 B 144 B 174 C 204 * 234 C 264 B 294 B
25 B 55 B 85 B 115 B 145 D 175 D 205 D 235 B 265 C 295 A
26 B 56 A 86 C 116 B 146 C 176 B 206 C 236 A 266 A 296 D
27 D 57 A 87 C 117 B 147 B 177 A 207 A 237 B 267 A 297 B
28 A 58 D 88 * 118 A 148 C 178 B 208 B 238 A 268 C 298 D
29 A 59 C 89 D 119 D 149 D 179 C 209 D 239 C 269 B 299 C
30 C 60 B 90 A 120 D 150 A 180 A 210 B 240 A 270 C 300 A
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:04-12-2021
Text of page 4
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), GMC ,Class-II(Advt No. 87/2020-21) Exam Date:05-09-2021
AXP
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:C
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 * 31 C 61 C 91 D 121 C 151 D 181 B 211 A 241 B 271 B
2 C 32 C 62 C 92 B 122 A 152 B 182 A 212 A 242 A 272 C
3 A 33 A 63 A 93 A 123 D 153 B 183 B 213 B 243 C 273 A
4 C 34 C 64 D 94 D 124 C 154 A 184 D 214 B 244 B 274 A
5 B 35 B 65 D 95 C 125 D 155 C 185 B 215 C 245 A 275 A
6 A 36 C 66 D 96 C 126 B 156 B 186 A 216 A 246 D 276 A
7 A 37 C 67 B 97 A 127 A 157 B 187 B 217 A 247 B 277 B
8 D 38 * 68 B 98 B 128 B 158 C 188 C 218 C 248 D 278 C
9 C 39 D 69 D 99 A 129 C 159 B 189 D 219 B 249 C 279 C
10 B 40 A 70 C 100 D 130 A 160 B 190 A 220 C 250 A 280 A
11 B 41 B 71 A 101 D 131 C 161 A 191 C 221 D 251 C 281 D
12 B 42 B 72 B 102 A 132 D 162 B 192 D 222 D 252 A 282 C
13 D 43 B 73 D 103 B 133 D 163 A 193 D 223 D 253 C 283 A
14 D 44 D 74 B 104 D 134 B 164 B 194 B 224 C 254 * 284 C
15 * 45 B 75 B 105 D 135 D 165 B 195 D 225 D 255 D 285 B
16 C 46 B 76 B 106 C 136 D 166 B 196 C 226 D 256 C 286 A
17 D 47 C 77 D 107 C 137 C 167 B 197 B 227 A 257 A 287 B
18 C 48 C 78 A 108 C 138 A 168 A 198 C 228 A 258 B 288 A
19 B 49 D 79 A 109 A 139 C 169 D 199 D 229 B 259 D 289 C
20 B 50 B 80 C 110 A 140 D 170 D 200 A 230 B 260 B 290 A
21 C 51 C 81 * 111 A 141 C 171 B 201 A 231 C 261 C 291 D
22 B 52 A 82 B 112 C 142 B 172 A 202 A 232 C 262 C 292 B
23 D 53 C 83 C 113 D 143 A 173 A 203 D 233 B 263 A 293 C
24 C 54 A 84 A 114 A 144 B 174 D 204 C 234 C 264 C 294 B
25 D 55 D 85 A 115 D 145 B 175 C 205 A 235 D 265 C 295 D
26 A 56 D 86 C 116 B 146 B 176 A 206 B 236 B 266 B 296 A
27 B 57 B 87 A 117 D 147 D 177 B 207 B 237 A 267 A 297 B
28 A 58 C 88 B 118 C 148 B 178 A 208 A 238 C 268 A 298 D
29 A 59 C 89 D 119 C 149 C 179 A 209 A 239 B 269 C 299 B
30 B 60 D 90 C 120 D 150 C 180 D 210 D 240 D 270 A 300 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:04-12-2021
Text of page 5
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), GMC ,Class-II(Advt No. 87/2020-21) Exam Date:05-09-2021
AXP
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:D
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 D 61 C 91 C 121 B 151 A 181 C 211 B 241 B 271 A
2 B 32 B 62 A 92 D 122 D 152 B 182 C 212 A 242 A 272 B
3 A 33 C 63 B 93 C 123 B 153 A 183 C 213 C 243 A 273 D
4 A 34 C 64 D 94 B 124 C 154 A 184 A 214 B 244 C 274 B
5 B 35 D 65 C 95 B 125 C 155 D 185 A 215 D 245 A 275 B
6 C 36 C 66 D 96 C 126 D 156 B 186 A 216 B 246 B 276 A
7 C 37 C 67 B 97 B 127 B 157 A 187 C 217 A 247 C 277 A
8 A 38 A 68 A 98 D 128 B 158 B 188 D 218 C 248 A 278 D
9 C 39 D 69 D 99 C 129 A 159 D 189 A 219 B 249 A 279 C
10 B 40 D 70 C 100 D 130 C 160 B 190 D 220 A 250 A 280 A
11 C 41 D 71 C 101 B 131 B 161 A 191 B 221 D 251 A 281 B
12 C 42 B 72 A 102 A 132 B 162 B 192 D 222 B 252 B 282 B
13 * 43 B 73 B 103 B 133 C 163 C 193 C 223 D 253 C 283 A
14 D 44 D 74 A 104 C 134 B 164 D 194 C 224 C 254 C 284 A
15 A 45 C 75 D 105 A 135 B 165 A 195 D 225 A 255 A 285 D
16 B 46 A 76 * 106 C 136 A 166 C 196 C 226 C 256 D 286 A
17 B 47 B 77 C 107 D 137 B 167 D 197 A 227 A 257 C 287 A
18 B 48 D 78 A 108 D 138 A 168 D 198 D 228 C 258 A 288 B
19 D 49 B 79 C 109 B 139 B 169 B 199 C 229 * 259 C 289 B
20 B 50 B 80 B 110 D 140 B 170 D 200 D 230 D 260 B 290 C
21 B 51 B 81 A 111 D 141 B 171 C 201 D 231 C 261 A 291 A
22 C 52 D 82 A 112 C 142 B 172 B 202 A 232 A 262 B 292 A
23 C 53 A 83 D 113 A 143 A 173 C 203 A 233 B 263 A 293 C
24 D 54 A 84 C 114 C 144 D 174 D 204 B 234 D 264 C 294 B
25 B 55 C 85 B 115 D 145 D 175 A 205 B 235 B 265 A 295 C
26 C 56 * 86 B 116 C 146 B 176 D 206 C 236 C 266 D 296 D
27 A 57 B 87 B 117 B 147 A 177 A 207 C 237 C 267 B 297 D
28 C 58 C 88 D 118 A 148 A 178 B 208 B 238 A 268 C 298 D
29 A 59 A 89 D 119 B 149 D 179 D 209 C 239 C 269 B 299 C
30 D 60 A 90 * 120 B 150 C 180 D 210 D 240 C 270 D 300 D
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:04-12-2021Page 1 of 39
Source: Gujarat Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Gujarat Public Service Commission.