GPSC Assistant Engineer 2021: Preliminary, Assistant Engineer (Electrical) Class-2, Road and Building Department
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PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Name of The Post Assistant Engineer (Electrical),(R & B), Class-2
Advertisement No 121/2020-21
Preliminary Test Held On 26-09-2021
Que. No. 001-300 (General Studies & Concern Subject)
Publish Date 28-09-2021
Last Date to Send Suggestion (S) 06-10 -2021
Instructions / સૂચના (Physical Submission)
Candidate must ensure compliance to the instructions mentioned below, else objections
shall not be considered: -
(1) All the suggestion should be submitted in prescribed format of suggestion sheet
PHYSICALLY.
(2) Question wise suggestion to be submitted in the prescribed format (Suggestion Sheet)
published on the website.
(3) All suggestions are to be submitted with reference to the Master Question Paper with
provisional answer key (Master Question Paper), published herewith on the website.
Objections should be sent referring to the Question, Question No. & options of the Master
Question Paper.
(4) Suggestions regarding question nos. and options other than provisional answer key (Master
Question Paper) shall not be considered.
(5) Objections and answers suggested by the candidate should be in compliance with the
responses given by him in his answer sheet. Objections shall not be considered, in case, if
responses given in the answer sheet /response sheet and submitted suggestions are differed.
(6) Objection for each question shall be made on separate sheet. Objection for more than one
question in single sheet shall not be considered & treated as Cancelled.
(7) Candidate who is present in the exam entitled to submit the objection/(s).
(8) Candidate should attach copy of his/her OMR (Answer sheet) with objection/(s).
ઉમેદવાર ે નીચેની સૂચનાઓનું પાલન કરવાની તકે દારી રાખવી, અ યથા વાંધા-સૂચન અંગે કર ેલ રજૂ આતો યાને
લેવાશે નહી ં
(1) ઉમેદવારે વાંધા-સૂચનો િનયત કરવામાં આવેલ વાંધા-સૂચન પ કથી રજૂ કરવાના રહેશે.
(2) ઉમેદવારે માણે વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ કરવા વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત વાંધા-સૂચન પ કના
નમૂનાનો જ ઉપયોગ કરવો.
(3) ઉમેદવારે પોતાને પરી ામાં મળેલ પુિ તકામાં છપાયેલ માંક મુજબ વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ ન કરતા તમામ
વાંધા-સૂચનો વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર કી (મા ટર પ )ના માંક મુજબ અને તે
સંદભમાં રજૂ કરવા.
(4) મા ટર પ માં િન�દ� ષ્ટ અને િવક પ િસવાયના વાંધા-સૂચન યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહીં.
(5) ઉમેદવારે જે ના િવક પ પર વાંધો રજૂ કરેલ છે અને િવક પ પે જે જવાબ સૂચવેલ છે એ જવાબ ઉમેદવારે
પોતાની ઉ રવહીમાં આપેલ હોવો જોઈએ. ઉમેદવારે સૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉ રવહીનો જવાબ િભ હશે તો
ઉમેદવારે રજૂ કરેલ વાંધા-સૂચન યાનમાં લેવાશે નહીં.
(6) એક માટે એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પ ક વાપરવું. એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પ કમાં એકથી વધારે ોની રજૂઆત
કરેલ હશે તો તે અંગેના વાંધા-સૂચનો યાને લેવાશે નહીં.
(7) પર�ક્ષામાં હાજર રહ�લ ઉમેદવાર જ વાંધા - �ુચન ર�ુ કર� શકશે .
(8) ઉમેદવાર� વાંધા-�ુ ચન સાથે પોતાની જવાબવહ�ની નકલ �બડાણ કરવાની રહ�શે.
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101. The armature iron is laminated
(A) to reduce hysteresis loss
(B) to reduce eddy current loss
(C) to reduce both hysteresis loss & eddy current loss
(D) to reduce cost
102. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) The direction of current in a generator is opposite to its induced e.m.f. while that in a motor
is same as that of induced e.m.f.
(B) The direction of current in a generator is same as that of its induced e.m.f. while that in a
motor is opposite to its induced e.m.f.
(C) The direction of currents in both generator and motor is same as that of their induced e.m.f.
(D) The direction of currents in both generator and motor is opposite to their as that of their
induced e.m.f.
103. Under-commutation gives rise to
(A) Sparking at the leading edge of the brush
(B) Sparking at the trailing edge of the brush
(C) No sparking at all
(D) Sparking at the middle of the brush
104. Two DC series motor connected in series are driving the same mechanical load. If the motors are
now connected in parallel the speed becomes
(A) Slightly less than double
(B) Slightly less than half
(C) Slightly more than double
(D) Slightly more than half
105. As the load is increased, the speed of a DC shunt motor
(A) Increases proportionately
(B) Remains constant
(C) Increases slightly
(D) Reduces slightly
106. The effect of increasing the length of air gap in an induction motor will be to increase
(A) Power factor (B) Speed
(C) Magnetising current (D) Air-gap flux
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107. In a 3-Phase induction motor, the rotor field rotates at synchronous speed with respect to
(A) Stator (B) Rotor
(C) Stator flux (D) None of the above
108. The direction of rotation of a synchronous motor can be reversed by reversing
(A) Current to field winding
(B) Supply phase sequence
(C) Polarity of rotor poles
(D) None of the above
109. The rotors of high-speed turbo-alternator and a low speed hydel generator are
(A) Cylindrical and salient-pole respectively
(B) Salient-pole and cylindrical respectively
(C) Both cylindrical
(D) Both salient-pole
110. The main purpose of performing open circuit test on a transformer is to measure
(A) Cu loss (B) Core loss
(C) Total loss (D) Insulation resistance
111. Which of the following connections is best suited for a 3-phase, 4-wire service?
(A) r - r (B) Y - Y
(C) r - Y (D) Y - r
112. When a 400 Hz transformer is operated at 50 Hz, its kVA rating is
(A) reduced to 1/8 (B) increased 8 times
(C) unaffected (D) increases 64 times
113. Which of the following can be used for braking purposes in electric trains?
(A) Induction generator
(B) Induction motor
(C) DC series motor
(D) DC differentially compounded generator
114. If A = 2Ix+ 4Iy – 3Iz then A.Ix + A.Iy + A. A.Iz is
(A) –24 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) –3
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115. What is the unit of magnetic charge?
(A) Ampere meter2 (B) Coulomb
(C) Ampere meter (D) Ampere
116. Plane z = 10m carries charge 20nC/m2. The electric field intensity at origin is
(A) –10 az V/m (B) –18π az V/m
(C) –72π az V/m (D) –360π az V/m
117. Which of the following potentials does not satisfy Laplace's equation?
(A) V = 2x + 5 (B) V = 10xy
(C) V = rcosj (D) V = 10/r
118. Maxwell divergence equation in case of static electric field is
(A) ∇.E = r (B) ∇.E = 0
(C) ∇.E = r/e0 (D) ∇.E = rx e0
119. Ohms law in point form in field theory can be expressed as
(A) V = RI (B) J = E/s
(C) J = sE (D) R = rl/A
120. Which of the following is not a source of Magnetostatic fields?
(A) A DC current in a wire
(B) A Permanent magnet
(C) An accelerated charge
(D) An electric field linearly changing with time
121. In a Lossless medium the intrinsic impedance h = 60p and mr = 1. The relative dielectric constant
er shall be
(A) er= 2 (B) er= 4 (C) er= 1 (D) er= 8
122. A parallel plate capacitor connected to a battery stores twice as much charge with a given
dielectric as it does with air as dielectric. The susceptibility of dielectric is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
123. Mutual inductance between two magnetically coupled coils depends on
(A) Permeability of the core
(B) Number of coil turns
(C) Cross sectional area of common core
(D) All of the above
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124. Hard steel is suitable for making permanent magnets because
(A) It has good residual magnetism
(B) Its hysteresis loop has large area
(C) Its mechanical strength is high
(D) Its mechanical strength is low
125. Select the equation which is not Maxwell.
(A) D = e E (B) E = e D
(C) J = s/E (D) B = m H
126. The binary equivalent of octal no (1357)8 is
(A) 001 011 101 011
(B) 011 010 101 111
(C) 001 011 111 011
(D) 001 011 101 111
127. The result of expression (AF1.B3)16 + (FFF.E)16 is
(A) (1AF1.83)16 (B) (1BF1.93)16
(C) (1AF1.93)16 (D) (1AE1.83)16
128. What is the logic expression for output Y in figure given below
(A) A’B’ + C’D’
(B) AB’ + CD’
(C) AB + CD
(D) A’B + C’D
129. Which logic gates are commonly used in parity generation and checking circuits?
(A) AND and NAND (B) OR and NOR
(C) AND and OR (D) XOR and XNOR
130. The most fundamental building block of CMOS logic is
(A) Buffer (B) Inverter
(C) NAND gate (D) NOR gate
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131. The simplification of the Boolean expression given below can be given as :
(A’+B+C’).(A’+B+C).(C +D).(C +D+E)
(A) (A’+B).(C+D) (B) (A’+B’).(C+D’)
(C) (A+B’).(C+D) (D) (A’+B).(C’+D)
132. How many number of half adder (HA) and full adder (FA) circuit blocks are required to construct
a 64-bit binary parallel adder?
(A) HA = 63, FA = 1 (B) HA = 1, FA = 63
(C) HA = 32, FA = 32 (D) HA = 16, FA = 48
133. In a digital system there are three inputs A, B and C. Output should be high when at least two
inputs are high. The output can be represented by expression
(A) AB+BC+AC (B) AB+BC+AC’
(C) ABC+ABC’+A’BC+AB’C (D) A’BC+AB’C+ABC’
134. Which device has a programmable AND array at the input and a programmable OR array at the
output?
(A) ROM (B) PLA
(C) CPLD (D) FPGA
135. What is the expression for Qn+1 in terms of Qn and J and K inputs for a clocked J-K flip-flop with
active low J and K inputs? Qn and Qn+1 have the usual meaning.
(A) Qn+1= J.Qn+K’.Qn’ (B) Qn+1= J’.Qn+K’.Qn
(C) Qn+1= J.Qn+K’.Qn (D) Qn+1= J’.Qn’+K.Qn
136. A crystal is frequently used in digital circuits for timing purpose because of its
(A) Low cost
(B) Simple circuitry
(C) High frequency stability
(D) Ability to set frequency at desired value
137. An eight-bit binary ripple UP counter with a modulus of 256 is holding the count 01111111. What
will be the count after 135 clock pulses be?
(A) 00000110 (B) 00000111
(C) 10000110 (D) 11000111
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138. Refer to the counter schematic shown in Fig. below. What is the count sequence of this counter?
(A) 000, 001, 010, 011, 100, 101, 110, 111, ________
(B) 000, 001, 010, 011, 100, 101, 110, 000, ________
(C) 010, 100, 110, 000, 010, 100, 110,010, ________
(D) 001, 011, 101, 111, 001, 011, 101, 111, ________
139. A 6-bit DAC uses binary weighted resistors. If MSB resistor is 20KW, the value of LSB resistor is
(A) 20KW (B) 80KW
(C) 320KW (D) 640KW
140. A 100-stage serial-in/serial-out shift register is clocked at 100 kHz. How long will the data be
delayed in passing through this register?
(A) 0.5 ms (B) 1 ms
(C) 2 ms (D) 10 ms
141. A 12-bit D/A converter has a resolution of 2.44 mV. Its analogue output for a digital input of
111111111111 is
(A) 1V (B) 5V
(C) 10V (D) 20V
142. A certain 12-bit successive approximation type A/D converter has a full-scale analogue input of
10 V. It operates at a clock frequency of 1MHz. What is the conversion time for an analogue input
of 7.5V?
(A) 2 ms (B) 12 ms
(C) 18 ms (D) 36 ms
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143. A certain memory is specified as 32K × 8. What are the number of address input lines, the number
of data input lines and the number of data output lines?
(A) 8, 8, 8 (B) 8, 8, 15
(C) 15, 8, 8 (D) 15, 15, 8
144. It is desired to construct a 64K × 16 RAM from an available RAM chip specified as 16K × 8.
Determine the number of RAM chips required for the same.
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8
145. Which of the following is an error correcting code?
(A) EBCDIC (B) Gray
(C) Hamming (D) ASCII
146. For the first order system having transfer function , the unit step response is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
147. If the roots of the characteristic equation have negative real parts then the response is _______
(A) Stable (B) Unstable
(C) Marginally stable (D) Bounded
148. A proportional controller is basically
(A) An amplifier with adjustable gain
(B) An amplifier with infinite gain
(C) An amplifier with zero gain
(D) An integrating amplifier
149. For a type 0 system and unit ramp input, the steady state error is
(A) 0 (B) ∞
(C) 1 (D) 1/Kv
150. Peak overshoot of step-input response of an underdamped second-order system is explicitly
indicative of
(A) setting time
(B) rise time
(C) natural frequency
(D) damping ratio
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151. If there is a constant error in the output signals, derivative control will
(A) reduce the error to zero
(B) reduce the error but not necessarily to zero
(C) Have no effect on the error
(D) Increase the error
152. The log magnitude curve for a constant gain K is
(A) Horizontal straight line of 0 magnitude
(B) Horizontal straight line of magnitude 20 log K decibels
(C) An inclined line having slope K
(D) An inclined line having slope –K
153. A lead compensator is basically a
(A) Low pass filter (B) High pass filter
(C) Band stop filter (D) None of the above
154. A unity feedback system has open-loop transfer function G(s) = K/[s(1 + st)]. The gain margin of
the feedback system is
(A) ∞ (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) None of the above
155. The eigen values of the matrix A =
(A) l2 – 7 l + 6 = 0 (B) l2 – 7 l + 10 = 0
(C) l2 – 5 l + 4 = 0 (D) l2 – 2 l + 4 = 0
156. The poles of an RC function
(A) are simple and lie on negative real axis
(B) are simple and lie on jw axis
(C) may be complex conjugate
(D) may be anywhere in s plane
157. The polar plot of is G(jw) = is
(A) Positive imaginary axis (B) Positive real axis
(C) Negative imaginary axis (D) Negative real axis
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158. Bode magnitude plot is drawn between
(A) Magnitude of network function and w
(B) dB magnitude and log w
(C) dB magnitude and w
(D) Loge(magnitude) and log w
159. In the force current analogy, the mechanical element that corresponds to capacitor C is
(A) Mass M
(B) Spring with stiffness K
(C) Damper with coefficient B
(D) Damper without coefficient B
160. If a system has two real and equal characteristics roots, it is described as
(A) having no damping (B) being underdamped
(C) being critically damped (D) being overdamped
161. The operating frequency of 8086 microprocessor is about
(A) 750 KHz (B) 1-2 MHz
(C) 5-10 MHz (D) 3-6 GHz
162. The 8051 micro controller has
(A) 8-bit data bus and 16-bit address bus
(B) 16-bit data bus and 8-bit address bus
(C) 8-bit data bus and 8-bit address bus
(D) 16-bit data bus and 16-bit address bus
163. Which of the following instructions is incorrect in 8051 assembly programming?
(A) RLC A (B) SWAP B
(C) CPL C (D) MOVC A,@A+PC
164. Which of the following instructions is index addressing in 8051 assembly programming?
(A) MOVC A, @A+DPTR (B) MOVX @DPTR, A
(C) MOVX A, @DPTR (D) MOVX A, @R0
165. In 8051, STA 9000H is an instruction of
(A) One byte (B) Two byte
(C) Three byte (D) Four byte
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166. 8259 is a
(A) Programmable interrupt controller
(B) DMA controller
(C) Programmable keyboard display interface
(D) Programmable counter
167. Which pin of port 3 in 8051 has an alternative function as write control signal for external data
memory?
(A) P3.8 (B) P3.3
(C) P3.6 (D) P3.1
168. Which of the following register is bit addressable in 8051?
(A) SBUF (B) TMOD
(C) PCON (D) PSW
169. In 8051 which interrupt has highest priority?
(A) IE1 (B) TF0 (C) IE0 (D) TF1
170. What should be done if we want to double the baud rate in 8051?
(A) change a bit of the TMOD register
(B) change a bit of the PCON register
(C) change a bit of the SCON register
(D) change a bit of the SBUF register
171. On power-up, the 8051 uses which RAM locations for register R0- R7
(A) 00-2F (B) 00-07
(C) 00-7F (D) 00-0F
172. The contents of the accumulator in 8051 after the operation
MOV A,#0BH
ANL A,#2CH
will be
(A) 11010111 (B) 11011010
(C) 00001000 (D) 00101000
173. In 8051, AC flag is affected in
(A) Addition, subtraction, multiply and divide
(B) multiply and divide
(C) Addition and subtraction
(D) Addition, subtraction and multiply
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174. In 8051, Timer 1 runs and timer 0 stops
(A) When TCON.6 = 1 and TCON.4 = 0
(B) When TCON.4 = 0 and TCON.5 = 1
(C) When TCON.7 = 1 and TCON.5 = 0
(D) When TCON all bits are 1s.
175. What rate can define the timing in the UART?
(A) bit rate (B) baud rate
(C) speed rate (D) voltage rate
176. A power transistor is a _______ layer device.
(A) two (B) three
(C) four (D) five
177. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) BJT is voltage controlled and MOSFET is current controlled
(B) BJT is current controlled and MOSFET is voltage controlled
(C) Both BJT and MOSFET are current controlled
(D) Both BJT and MOSFET are voltage controlled
178. When a UJT is used for triggering SCR, the waveshape of the voltage obtained from UJT circuit is
(A) Sine wave (B) Saw-tooth wave
(C) Trapezoidal wave (D) Square wave
179. If a single-phase semi converter operates in continuous conduction mode, each thyristor conducts
for _______ duration.
(A) p (B) a
(C) p – a (D) p + a
180. The output voltage of dc to dc converter can be controlled by
(A) amplitude modulation
(B) frequency modulation
(C) pulse width modulation
(D) pulse width modulation and frequency modulation
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181. A buck converter has input voltage of V, output voltage of Vo, inductance of L and it operates at
frequency f, then the amplitude of ripple current is equal to
(A) rI = Vo(V–Vo)/VfL (B) rI = Vo(V+Vo)/VfL
(C) rI = Vo(V–Vo)/fL (D) rI = Vo(V–Vo)/VL
182. In a commutation circuit employed to turn-off an SCR, satisfactory turn off is obtained when
(A) Circuit turn off time < device turn off time
(B) Circuit turn off time > device turn off time
(C) Circuit time constant > device turn off time
(D) Circuit time constant < device turn off time
183. A freewheeling diode across inductive load will provide
(A) Quick turn on (B) Slow turn on
(C) Reduced utilization factor (D) Improved power factor
184. When a series LC circuit is connected to a DC supply of V volts through a thyristor, then the peak
current through thyristor is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
185. Output voltage of a single phase bridge inverter, fed from a fixed DC source is varied by
(A) Varying the switching frequency
(B) Pulse width modulation
(C) Pulse amplitude modulation
(D) None of the above
186. The function of centre tapping on the secondary of full wave rectifier is to
(A) Step up the voltage
(B) Step down the voltage
(C) Isolate the load from ground
(D) Cause the diode to conduct alternately
187. A single phase full bridge inverter can operate in load-commutation mode in case load consists of
(A) RL (B) RLC overdamped
(C) RLC underdamped (D) RLC critically damped
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188. Let x[n] be a signal with x[n] = 0 for n < –2 and n > 4. What is the value of ‘n’ for which the signal
x[–n+2] is guaranteed to be zero?
(A) n < 2 and n > – 4 (B) n < –2 and n > 4
(C) n > 2 and n < – 4 (D) n < 0 and n > – 4
189. The fundamental period of periodic signal (t)=2cos(10t+1)–sin(4t–1) is
(A) 2p (B) 10 (C) 4 (D) p
190. The integral of unit step function is
(A) A unit impulse function (B) A unit pulse function
(C) A ramp function of slope 1 (D) None of the above
191. If i(t) a time varying current, i(t)dt is
(A) Initial current (B) Initial charge
(C) Initial flux linkages (D) Initial voltage
192. The Fourier transform of a triangular function is
(A) Gaussian function (B) Sinc function
(C) Sinc2 function (D) Rectangular function
193. The probability density function is given by for . The value of K
should be
(A) (B) (C) (D)
194. Final value theorem is used to find
(A) Initial value of output
(B) Steady state value of output
(C) Transient behavior of output
(D) None of the above
195. The z- transform of fk = ak is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
196. If X(z) = (1 – az–1) and |a| < |z|, the initial value x0 is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) ∞
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197. The signal is reconstructed back with the help of
(A) Zero order hold circuits
(B) Extrapolations
(C) Zero order holds and extrapolations
(D) None of the above
198. Calculate the Nyquist rate for sampling when a continuous time signal is given by
x(t) = 5 cos100pt + 10 cos200pt – 15 cos300pt
(A) 300 Hz (B) 600 Hz
(C) 150 Hz (D) 200 Hz
199. What is the ROC of z-transform of finite duration anti-causal sequence?
(A) z = 0 (B) z = ∞
(C) Entire z-plane, except at z = 0 (D) Entire z-plane, except at z = ∞
200. The Fourier series of an odd periodic function contains
(A) Odd harmonics only (B) Even harmonics only
(C) Cosine terms only (D) Sine terms only
201. A network containing 100 buses in which 10 are the voltage control buses, 5 are fixed shunt
capacitor buses, 20 are the reactive power support buses, 6 are the generator buses. Find the size
of the Jacobian matrix.
(A) 163 × 163 (B) 164 × 164
(C) 165 × 165 (D) 162 × 162
202. For load flow studies, the quantities specified at load bus are
(A) P and V (B) P and Q
(C) V and d (D) d and Q
203. For low head and high discharge, the hydraulic turbine used is
(A) Francis turbine (B) Kaplan turbine
(C) Pelton turbine (D) None of the above
204. When phase sequence at the 3-phase load is reversed
(A) Phase power is changed
(B) Phase current is changed
(C) Phase currents change in angle but not in magnitude
(D) Total power consumed is changed
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205. The positive sequence component of voltage at the point of fault is zero, when it is a
(A) Three phase fault (B) L-L fault
(C) L-L-G fault (D) L-G fault
206. When a line-to-ground fault occurs, the current in a faulted phase is 100 Amperes. The zero
sequence current in this case will be
(A) Zero (B) 33.3 A
(C) 66.6 A (D) 100 A
207. A synchronous machine is
(A) A single excited machine
(B) A doubly excited machine
(C) Run at speed less than synchronous speed
(D) Generally a lagging power factor machine
208. The speed of circuit interruption in forced blast circuit breaker is
(A) Slow (B) Medium
(C) Fast (D) Very slow
209. Capacitive current breaking results in
(A) Short circuits (B) Open circuits
(C) Voltage surges (D) Current surges
210. Which of the following controls the reactive power flow in synchronous generator?
(A) Change in field excitation (B) Change in power factor
(C) Change in load angle (D) All of the above
211. The voltage produced by a typical silicon PV solar cell is
(A) 0.25 V DC (B) 0.25 V AC
(C) 0.5 V DC (D) 0.5 V AC
212. For flat voltage profile system, voltage regulation is
(A) 0% (B) 10%
(C) 50% (D) 100%
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213. Backup protection is generally employed for protection against
(A) Short circuit faults only (B) Open circuit faults only
(C) Open and short circuit faults (D) None of the above
214. The least expensive protection for overcurrent in LV system is
(A) Isolator (B) Oil circuit breaker
(C) Rewirable fuse (D) Air break circuit breaker
215. In India, the system adopted for transmission of electric power has
(A) Three-phase three wire system
(B) Three-phase four wire system
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(D) None of the above
216. Which of the following is not true for transmission lines?
(A) They transmit power from generating stations to grid stations
(B) They transmit power to grid stations
(C) They transmit three-phase power
(D) Power can be tapped from transmission lines
217. A 110 kV, three-phase transmission line has a per unit capacitance of 0.015 mF and an
inductance of 3.0 mH. Which of the following is the approximate magnitude of the characteristic
impedance of the line?
(A) 350 W (B) 400 W
(C) 450 W (D) 500 W
218. Which of the following is a reason which makes decoupling of the N-R power flow solution feasible
(A) Reactance to resistance (X/R) ratio is high
(B) Voltage angle between two adjacent buses is small
(C) Real power flow is largely governed by the bus voltage angle
(D) All of these
219. As a matter of economy, voltage for power transmission should be
(A) Low (B) High
(C) Medium (D) Very low
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220. Which of the following is undertaken when the reactive power demand in a network increases?
(A) Exciter voltage is increased
(B) Input to the generator is increased
(C) Input to the prime mover is increased
(D) None of the above
221. The voltage across a 230 V, 60 W lamp is reduced to 115 V. What will be the power consumed at
this reduced voltage?
(A) 60 W (B) 30 W
(C) 120 W (D) 15 W
222. What is the value of the node voltage V ?
(A) -60 V (B) 60 V
(C) 40 (D) -40 V
223. The form factor of a square wave is
(A) 1.11 (B) 1.0
(C) 0 (D) 1.414
224. A 25 W resistance has a voltage v = 150 sin 377t (V). The corresponding current through it is
(A) 6 sin 377t (A) (B) 12 sin 377t (A)
(C) 6 sin 314t (A) (D) 12 sin 314t (A)
225. An RL series circuit has an impedance of (10 + j10) W. The power factor angle of the circuit is
(A) 30° lagging (B) 30° leading
(C) 45° leading (D) 45° lagging
226. The no load current of a 15 kVA, 230/1100 V, single phase transformer will be about
(A) 15.33 A (B) 3 A
(C) 12 A (D) 73.3 A
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227. The core loss and copper loss of a transformer on full load are 400 W and 600 W, respectively.
Their values at one-third full load will be
(A) 133.3 W and 200 W
(B) 400 W and 66.66 W
(C) 133.3 W and 600 W
(D) 400 W and 200 W
228. Electrical machines having power outputs ranging from a few kW up to approximately 250 kW
may be classified as
(A) Small size machines (B) Medium size machines
(C) Large size machines (D) All of the above
229. A 6-pole lap wound generator has 300 conductors, the EMF induced per conductor is 5 Volts, the
generated voltage of generator will be
(A) 60 (B) 1500
(C) 360 (D) 250
230. Due to armature reaction in DC generator, the flux under leading pole tip
(A) is decreased
(B) is increased
(C) may decrease or increase
(D) remains unchanged
231. In a parallel AC circuit, if the supply frequency is less than resonant frequency, then the circuit is
(A) Inductive (B) Capacitive
(C) Resistive (D) None of the above
232. In a DC generator, the brushes are shifted from G.N.A. in the direction of rotation to
(A) Decrease speed
(B) Increase speed
(C) Increase voltage
(D) Reduce sparking
233. A single phase 50 Hz, core type transformer has square cores of 20 cm sides. The permissible flux
density is 1 Wb/m2. If the stacking factor is 0.9, the voltage induced per turn is
(A) 6 V (B) 11 V
(C) 8 V (D) 14 V
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234. How are transformers generally cooled for installations rated at less than 5 kVA?
(A) Oil cooled
(B) Air cooled
(C) Water cooled
(D) None of the above
235. What is the approximate efficiency of large transformers?
(A) 65%
(B) 75%
(C) 85%
(D) 95%
236. Two resistors are connected in series across an 18V supply and a current of 5A flows. If one of the
resistors has a value of 2.4 W, the value of the other resistor will be
(A) 2.4 W (B) 1.4 W
(C) 1.2 W (D) 2.2 W
237. Find the equivalent Thevenin resistance (approximate) between terminals ‘a’ and ‘b’ in the circuit
shown below (all resistances are in W).
(A) 6 W (B) 7 W
(C) 8 W (D) 9 W
238. Find the frequency at which the current will be maximum in the below circuit. The source voltage
is 10 Volts.
(A) 50 rad/sec (B) 5000 rad/sec
(C) 50000 rad/sec (D) 500 rad/sec
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239. The maximum power that can be distributed to the load in the circuit shown is
(A) 3 Watts (B) 6 Watts
(C) 6.75 Watts (D) 13.5 Watts
240. For the circuit shown in the adjoining figure, the voltage VAB is
(A) 6 Volts (B) 10 Volts (C) 25 Volts (D) 40 Volts
241. If the source impedance is complex, then the condition for maximum power transfer is
(when ZL is load impedance and ZS is equivalent source impedance),
(A) ZL = ZS (B) ZL = ZS*
(C) ZL = - ZS (D) ZL = - ZS*
242. In determining short circuit impedance parameters, among V1, V2, I1, I2, which of the following are
independent variables?
(A) I1 and V2 (B) V1 and I2
(C) I1 and I2 (D) V1 and V2
243. A coil having a resistance of 5 ohms and inductance of 0.1 H is connected in series with a capacitor
of capacitance 50 mF. A constant alternating voltage of 200 volts is applied to the circuit. The
voltage across the coil at resonance is
(A) 200 volts (B) 1788 volts
(C) 1800 volts (D) 2000 volts
244. In the bilateral Laplace transform, the lower limit (of integration) is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) ∞ (positive infinity) (D) – ∞ (negative infinity)
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245. The total period of the function shown in the figure is 4 sec and the amplitude is 10. Find the
function f1 (t) from t = 0 to 1 in terms of unit step function.
(A) 10t [u(t) - u(t + 1)] (B) 10t [u(t) + u(t - 1)]
(C) 10t [u(t) + u(t + 1)] (D) 10t [u(t) - u(t - 1)]
246. The voltage across a 1 mF capacitor is 10 V for t < 0. At t = 0, a 1 MW resistor is connected across
the capacitor terminals. Find the time constant (t).
(A) 1 s (B) 2 s
(C) 3 s (D) 4 s
247. Solve the given network for the three currents, I1, I2 and I3.
(A) I1= 3 A, I2= 1 A , I3 = 1 A (B) I1= -2 A, I2= 1 A , I3 = 1 A
(C) I1= -2 A, I2= -2 A , I3 = 1 A (D) I1= -2 A, I2= 2 A , I3 = 3 A
248. Which parameter is a measure of the energy storage property (LI2) in relation to the energy
dissipation property (I2R) of a coil or a circuit?
(A) Quality factor (Q) (B) Power factor
(C) Form factor (D) Displacement factor
249. Two batteries A and B having EMFs of 12 V and 8 V respectively and internal resistances of 2 W
and 1 W respectively, are connected in parallel across 10 W resistor, the current in the external
resistor will be
(A) 0.975 A (B) 0.675 A
(C) 0.775 A (D) 0.875 A
250. For a RC circuit to achieve a time constant of 2 seconds, the value of resistance to be connected in
series with a capacitance of 4mF will be
(A) 300 kW (B) 500 kW
(C) 200 kW (D) 100 kW
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251. This is not the type of links used for the transmission of bulk HVDC power transfer.
(A) Monopolar link (B) Bipolar link
(C) Homopolar link (D) Monolithic link
252. In a HVDC link which control level provides firing control and delivers the control pulses to the
valve control?
(A) Converter control level
(B) Pole control level
(C) Station control level
(D) None of the above
253. Which link utilizes a single conductor which has a negative polarity and ground as the positive
electrode?
(A) Homopolar link
(B) Monolithic link
(C) Monopolar link
(D) Bipolar link
254. The first HVDC project in India was commissioned in
(A) 1882 (B) 1901
(C) 1979 (D) 1991
255. Which of the following is not possible in an HVDC transmission link?
(A) Interconnecting ac networks operating at frequencies of 50 Hz and 60 Hz
(B) No synchronous operation
(C) Bidirectional flow of power
(D) None of the above
256. Which of the following is used for internal voltage control in HVDC transmission systems?
(A) Grid control by controlling ignition angle
(B) AC voltage control by tap changing
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
257. In case of HVDC circuit inversion operation, the ignition advance angle (b) is given by,
(where a is ignition delay angle)
(A) p – a (B) p + a
(C) p ± a (D) p > a
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258. High voltage dc transmission requires filters for
(A) Line commuted converters
(B) Voltage sourced converters
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
259. Voltage source converters for HVDC system generally uses which type of power devices?
(A) Thyristor
(B) Power diode
(C) Transistor (IGBT)
(D) None of the above
260. From which of the following ends is the frequency of an AC system is controlled in an HVDC link?
(A) Sending end
(B) Receiving end
(C) Both ends
(D) HVDC link does not control the frequency
261. Which word is used for, “means any electric supply line through which electricity is, or is intended
to be, supplied,” as per the Electricity Act, 2003?
(A) Link (B) Main
(C) Joint (D) Bar
262. The Indian Electricity Rules of 1956 cover
(A) Inspections of electric installations (B) Licensing
(C) General safety precautions (D) All of the above
263. As per the Indian Electricity Rules, 1956, for metal supports, the owner of every overhead line
shall ensure that it has the minimum value for factors of safety is
(A) 1.5 (B) 2.0
(C) 2.5 (D) 3.0
264. As per the Electricity Act, 2003, part IV, without having a licence issued under Section 14, no
person shall
(A) Transmit electricity (B) Distribute electricity
(C) Undertake trading in electricity (D) All of the above
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265. The Electricity Act, 2003 came into force on
(A) 12th July, 2003 (B) 10th July, 2003
(C) 12th June, 2003 (D) 10th June, 2003
266. The amount of sunlight striking the earth's atmosphere continuously is
(A) 4.75 × 105 TW (B) 1.75 × 105 TW
(C) 2.75 × 105 TW (D) 3.75 × 105 TW
267. Government of India created the Department of Non-Conventional Energy Sources (DNES) in
(A) 1985 (B) 1984
(C) 1983 (D) 1982
268. Compressed air leak from 1 mm hole size at 7 kg/cm2 pressure would mean power loss
equivalent to
(A) 1.5 kW (B) 2.0 kW
(C) 1.0 kW (D) 0.5 kW
269. Every 5°C (degree centigrade) reduction in intake air temperature would result in how much
percentage reduction in compressor power consumption?
(A) 0.1% (B) 1%
(C) 2% (D) 3%
270. Natural draft cooling towers are mainly used in
(A) Steel industry (B) Alumina industry
(C) Fertilizer industry (D) Power Stations
271. The percentage of energy saved at the current rate of use, compared to the reference year rate of
use, is called
(A) Energy Utilization (B) Energy Performance
(C) Energy Efficiency (D) None of the above
272. The tool used for performance assessment and logical evaluation of avenues for improvement in
Energy management and audit is
(A) Fuel substitution (B) Monitoring and verification
(C) Energy pricing (D) Bench marking
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273. Which compressor is having higher efficiency at part load conditions?
(A) Rotary vane type (B) Reciprocating type
(C) Rotary screw type (D) Centrifugal type
274. What type of earthing is found in 11 KV sub-station?
(A) Plate type (B) Strip type
(C) Pipe type (D) None of the above
275. CO2 measurement of Fyrite kit is based on
(A) Weight basis (dry) (B) Volume basis (dry)
(C) Weight basis (wet) (D) Volume basis (wet)
276. Transmission line is normally operated with power angle (degrees) in the range
(A) 10° - 20° (B) 30° - 45°
(C) 60° - 75° (D) 65° - 80°
277. Which of the following is/are reason/s for power systems not being able to operate with
redundancies?
(A) Environment conservation (B) Different loading patterns
(C) Greater usage of electricity (D) All of the above
278. Which of the following is a key feature in the application of FACTS, now-a-days?
(A) Microcomputers
(B) Powerful analytical tools
(C) Availability of high kV and kA rated switching devices
(D) None of the above
279. Which of the following is the full form of RTU?
(A) Remote Terminal Unit (B) Regional Terminal Unit
(C) Remote Technical Unit (D) Regional Technical Unit
280. At what range of speed is the electricity from the wind turbine is generated (in mph)?
(A) 100 - 125 mph (B) 450 - 650 mph
(C) 250 - 450 mph (D) 30 - 35 mph
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281. A room with an area of 6 × 9 square meter is illuminated by ten 80-W lamps. The luminous
efficiency of a lamp is 80 lumens/W and the coefficient of utilization is 0.65. Find the average
illumination.
(A) 270.37 lux (B) 370.37 lux
(C) 170.37 lux (D) 770.37 lux
282. In a fluorescent tube, a ballast resistance is connected in series with the choke, the reason is
(A) When the tube is operated on DC supply
(B) When the tube is operated on AC supply
(C) To reduce radio interference
(D) To reduce stroboscopic effects
283. The rate of evaporation of tungsten filament in a lamp depends upon
(A) Exhaust tube diameter (B) Glass shell diameter
(C) Vapour pressure inside (D) None of the above
284. What should be the spacing between the two conductors if the working voltage is 11 kV?
(A) 76 mm (B) 101 mm
(C) 190 mm (D) 250 mm
285. Which type of cable is used for underground service connections?
(A) Low tension 3¼ core cable (B) Low tension 3½ core cable
(C) Low tension 2¼ core cable (D) Low tension 2½ core cable
286. A stepper motor has a step angle of 7.5°. The digital input rate required to produce a rotation of
10 rev/s is
(A) 48 pulses per second (B) 75 pulses per second
(C) 480 pulses per second (D) 750 pulses per second
287. An incremental shaft encoder gives an output that is a direct measure of
(A) The diameter of the shaft
(B) The change in diameter of the shaft
(C) The change in angular position of the shaft
(D) The absolute angular position of the shaft
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288. The type of wiring that is highly suitable for a temporary shed is
(A) Cleat wiring (B) Wooden capping and casing wiring
(C) Lead sheathed wiring (D) Conduit wiring
289. Where the iron clad double pole (ICDP) main switch is used?
(A) Large industrial installations
(B) To control main or branch circuit
(C) Single phase domestic installations
(D) Three phase power circuit installations
290. Which type of fire extinguisher is used for electrical fire?
(A) Water (B) CO2 and dry powder
(C) Foam (D) None of the above
291. Much of wind energy utilization is closed to the ground level within
(A) 1 meter (B) 5 meter
(C) 50 meter (D) 500 meter
292. Which of the following methods of heating is independent of supply frequency?
(A) Electric heating (B) Induction heating
(C) Electric resistance heating (D) Dielectric heating
293. The type of drive used for a paper mill requiring a constant speed operation and the flexibility of
control is
(A) Group drive (B) Multi-motor drive
(C) Individual or multi-motor drive (D) Individual drive
294. As per the Gujarat Small Hydel Policy-2016, interconnection voltages for grid integration shall be
governed as per which Gujarat Electricity Grid Code (GEGC) along with GERC orders.
(A) GEGC-2011 (B) GEGC-2012
(C) GEGC-2013 (D) GEGC-2014
295. Which one is not the objective of the Gujarat Small Hydel Policy-2016?
(A) To promote renewable and clean source of electricity
(B) To increase dependency on depleting fossil fuel reserves
(C) To create environmental consciousness among citizens
(D) To promote investment in renewable energy sector
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296. As per the Gujarat Wind-Solar Hybrid Power Policy 2018-19, the Period of Commissioning of
the entire allotted hybrid capacity of 101 MW to 200 MW (from date of allotment of transmission
capacity) is
(A) 1.5 years (B) 2 years
(C) 2.5 years (D) 3.5 years
297. The nodal agency for Gujarat Wind Power Policy, 2016 is
(A) Gujarat Electricity Board
(B) Gujarat Power Transmission Company
(C) Gujarat Renewable Sources Limited
(D) Gujarat Energy Developer Agency
298. As per the Gujarat Wind Power Policy, 2016, the voltage level for evacuation of wind power in the
grid shall be equal to above, (as per GERC Supply Code)
(A) 66 kV (B) 11 kV
(C) 33 kV (D) 440 V
299. As per the Gujarat Waste to Energy Policy - 2016, it is estimated that the municipal solid waste of
Gujarat state could support Waste to Energy plant of approximately
(A) 50 MW (B) 100 MW
(C) 150 MW (D) 200 MW
300. In the Gujarat Solar Power Policy, 2021, for the next five years it aims to reduce the power costs
of industrial units by around
(A) 5% (B) 15%
(C) 30% (D) 50%
___________________________
44 [BAZ]
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Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Electrical),(R & B), Class-II(Advt No. 121/2020-21) Exam Date:26-09-2021
BAZ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:M
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 C 61 C 91 B 121 B 151 C 181 A 211 C 241 B 271 B
2 D 32 B 62 C 92 A 122 B 152 B 182 B 212 A 242 D 272 D
3 C 33 B 63 B 93 B 123 D 153 B 183 D 213 A 243 C 273 B
4 B 34 D 64 A 94 A 124 A 154 A 184 C 214 C 244 D 274 B
5 A 35 D 65 D 95 B 125 * 155 A 185 B 215 A 245 D 275 B
6 C 36 D 66 C 96 D 126 D 156 A 186 D 216 D 246 A 276 B
7 D 37 B 67 * 97 A 127 C 157 C 187 C 217 C 247 B 277 D
8 B 38 D 68 A 98 B 128 C 158 B 188 B 218 D 248 A 278 C
9 A 39 C 69 A 99 C 129 D 159 A 189 D 219 B 249 D 279 A
10 D 40 A 70 B 100 A 130 B 160 C 190 C 220 A 250 B 280 D
11 B 41 C 71 D 101 B 131 A 161 C 191 B 221 D 251 D 281 D
12 C 42 A 72 A 102 B 132 B 162 A 192 C 222 A 252 A 282 A
13 D 43 A 73 D 103 B 133 * 163 B 193 A 223 B 253 C 283 C
14 B 44 B 74 C 104 C 134 B 164 A 194 B 224 * 254 D 284 B
15 D 45 D 75 B 105 D 135 * 165 C 195 A 225 D 255 D 285 B
16 A 46 B 76 B 106 C 136 C 166 A 196 B 226 B 256 C 286 C
17 C 47 A 77 D 107 A 137 A 167 C 197 C 227 B 257 A 287 C
18 C 48 A 78 * 108 B 138 B 168 D 198 A 228 B 258 C 288 A
19 C 49 B 79 C 109 A 139 D 169 C 199 D 229 D 259 C 289 C
20 A 50 C 80 C 110 B 140 B 170 B 200 D 230 A 260 C 290 B
21 A 51 B 81 A 111 C 141 C 171 B 201 A 231 A 261 B 291 C
22 D 52 A 82 B 112 A 142 B 172 C 202 B 232 D 262 D 292 C
23 A 53 D 83 D 113 A 143 C 173 C 203 B 233 C 263 A 293 C
24 B 54 A 84 C 114 * 144 D 174 A 204 C 234 B 264 D 294 C
25 D 55 C 85 A 115 C 145 C 175 B 205 A 235 D 265 D 295 B
26 B 56 B 86 C 116 D 146 A 176 B 206 B 236 C 266 B 296 B
27 D 57 B 87 A 117 C 147 * 177 B 207 B 237 D 267 D 297 D
28 C 58 C 88 C 118 C 148 A 178 B 208 C 238 * 268 D 298 A
29 D 59 A 89 C 119 C 149 B 179 C 209 C 239 A 269 B 299 B
30 A 60 D 90 C 120 C 150 D 180 D 210 A 240 A 270 D 300 D
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:09-12-2021
Text of page 2
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Electrical),(R & B), Class-II(Advt No. 121/2020-21) Exam Date:26-09-2021
BAZ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:A
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 31 C 61 C 91 A 121 B 151 B 181 C 211 B 241 B 271 B
2 A 32 B 62 A 92 C 122 C 152 B 182 A 212 D 242 D 272 D
3 D 33 B 63 C 93 C 123 C 153 B 183 B 213 A 243 C 273 A
4 A 34 D 64 C 94 C 124 A 154 C 184 A 214 D 244 D 274 B
5 C 35 D 65 C 95 A 125 B 155 D 185 B 215 D 245 D 275 D
6 B 36 D 66 B 96 A 126 D 156 A 186 C 216 B 246 A 276 A
7 B 37 B 67 A 97 D 127 C 157 B 187 A 217 D 247 B 277 B
8 C 38 D 68 B 98 A 128 C 158 D 188 A 218 D 248 A 278 B
9 A 39 C 69 A 99 B 129 D 159 C 189 * 219 B 249 D 279 C
10 D 40 A 70 B 100 D 130 B 160 B 190 C 220 D 250 B 280 A
11 C 41 C 71 D 101 C 131 A 161 D 191 D 221 B 251 B 281 B
12 C 42 A 72 A 102 B 132 B 162 C 192 C 222 D 252 D 282 B
13 B 43 A 73 B 103 B 133 * 163 B 193 C 223 B 253 C 283 C
14 A 44 B 74 C 104 A 134 B 164 D 194 C 224 B 254 A 284 C
15 D 45 D 75 A 105 A 135 * 165 C 195 C 225 B 255 D 285 A
16 C 46 B 76 A 106 A 136 C 166 B 196 B 226 B 256 D 286 C
17 * 47 A 77 D 107 C 137 A 167 C 197 B 227 B 257 A 287 A
18 A 48 A 78 C 108 B 138 B 168 A 198 D 228 B 258 C 288 A
19 A 49 B 79 B 109 A 139 D 169 B 199 A 229 D 259 B 289 C
20 B 50 C 80 A 110 C 140 B 170 A 200 * 230 A 260 B 290 A
21 D 51 B 81 C 111 C 141 C 171 B 201 D 231 A 261 C 291 D
22 A 52 D 82 D 112 A 142 B 172 C 202 A 232 D 262 C 292 C
23 D 53 * 83 B 113 B 143 C 173 A 203 C 233 C 263 A 293 D
24 C 54 C 84 A 114 A 144 D 174 D 204 D 234 B 264 C 294 B
25 B 55 C 85 D 115 C 145 C 175 D 205 D 235 D 265 B 295 A
26 B 56 A 86 B 116 A 146 A 176 B 206 C 236 C 266 C 296 D
27 D 57 B 87 C 117 C 147 * 177 B 207 A 237 D 267 C 297 A
28 C 58 D 88 D 118 D 148 A 178 B 208 C 238 * 268 C 298 B
29 D 59 C 89 B 119 C 149 B 179 C 209 C 239 A 269 C 299 *
30 A 60 A 90 D 120 B 150 D 180 D 210 C 240 A 270 B 300 D
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:09-12-2021
Text of page 3
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Electrical),(R & B), Class-II(Advt No. 121/2020-21) Exam Date:26-09-2021
BAZ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:B
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 31 C 61 C 91 C 121 B 151 C 181 A 211 C 241 D 271 B
2 D 32 D 62 C 92 A 122 C 152 B 182 B 212 C 242 C 272 D
3 * 33 B 63 B 93 A 123 A 153 B 183 * 213 A 243 D 273 B
4 C 34 A 64 A 94 B 124 D 154 A 184 B 214 C 244 B 274 B
5 C 35 D 65 D 95 D 125 D 155 A 185 * 215 B 245 A 275 B
6 A 36 B 66 C 96 B 126 B 156 A 186 C 216 C 246 D 276 B
7 B 37 C 67 * 97 A 127 B 157 C 187 A 217 C 247 A 277 B
8 D 38 D 68 A 98 A 128 B 158 B 188 B 218 C 248 B 278 B
9 C 39 B 69 A 99 B 129 C 159 A 189 D 219 C 249 * 279 D
10 A 40 D 70 B 100 C 130 D 160 C 190 B 220 B 250 D 280 A
11 C 41 A 71 D 101 B 131 C 161 C 191 C 221 B 251 D 281 A
12 A 42 C 72 A 102 B 132 A 162 A 192 B 222 D 252 A 282 D
13 C 43 C 73 D 103 B 133 B 163 B 193 C 223 A 253 C 283 C
14 C 44 C 74 C 104 C 134 A 164 A 194 D 224 B 254 D 284 B
15 C 45 A 75 B 105 D 135 B 165 C 195 C 225 D 255 D 285 D
16 B 46 A 76 B 106 A 136 C 166 A 196 A 226 A 256 C 286 C
17 A 47 D 77 D 107 B 137 A 167 C 197 * 227 B 257 A 287 D
18 B 48 A 78 C 108 D 138 A 168 D 198 A 228 B 258 C 288 *
19 A 49 B 79 D 109 C 139 * 169 C 199 B 229 C 259 C 289 A
20 B 50 D 80 A 110 B 140 C 170 B 200 D 230 A 260 C 290 A
21 D 51 B 81 C 111 D 141 D 171 B 201 B 231 B 261 B 291 B
22 A 52 A 82 B 112 C 142 C 172 C 202 D 232 B 262 D 292 D
23 B 53 D 83 B 113 B 143 C 173 C 203 C 233 C 263 A 293 C
24 C 54 A 84 D 114 D 144 C 174 A 204 A 234 C 264 D 294 D
25 A 55 C 85 D 115 C 145 C 175 B 205 D 235 A 265 D 295 D
26 A 56 B 86 D 116 B 146 B 176 D 206 D 236 C 266 B 296 A
27 D 57 B 87 B 117 C 147 B 177 C 207 A 237 A 267 D 297 B
28 C 58 C 88 D 118 A 148 D 178 C 208 C 238 A 268 D 298 A
29 B 59 A 89 C 119 B 149 A 179 D 209 B 239 C 269 B 299 D
30 A 60 D 90 A 120 A 150 * 180 B 210 B 240 A 270 D 300 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:09-12-2021
Text of page 4
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Electrical),(R & B), Class-II(Advt No. 121/2020-21) Exam Date:26-09-2021
BAZ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:C
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 B 61 D 91 B 121 B 151 D 181 A 211 C 241 B 271 A
2 D 32 B 62 B 92 A 122 B 152 C 182 B 212 A 242 D 272 B
3 C 33 C 63 D 93 B 123 D 153 C 183 D 213 A 243 D 273 A
4 B 34 A 64 C 94 A 124 A 154 D 184 C 214 C 244 B 274 D
5 A 35 D 65 A 95 B 125 * 155 B 185 B 215 A 245 D 275 B
6 C 36 C 66 C 96 D 126 C 156 A 186 D 216 D 246 B 276 B
7 D 37 C 67 A 97 A 127 B 157 B 187 C 217 C 247 D 277 D
8 B 38 B 68 A 98 B 128 B 158 * 188 B 218 D 248 B 278 C
9 A 39 A 69 B 99 C 129 A 159 B 189 D 219 B 249 B 279 A
10 D 40 D 70 D 100 A 130 A 160 * 190 C 220 A 250 B 280 D
11 B 41 C 71 B 101 B 131 A 161 C 191 B 221 D 251 B 281 D
12 C 42 * 72 A 102 B 132 C 162 A 192 C 222 A 252 B 282 A
13 D 43 A 73 A 103 B 133 B 163 B 193 A 223 B 253 B 283 C
14 B 44 A 74 B 104 C 134 A 164 D 194 B 224 * 254 D 284 B
15 D 45 B 75 C 105 D 135 C 165 B 195 A 225 D 255 A 285 B
16 A 46 D 76 B 106 C 136 C 166 C 196 B 226 D 256 A 286 C
17 C 47 A 77 D 107 A 137 A 167 B 197 C 227 A 257 D 287 C
18 C 48 D 78 * 108 B 138 B 168 C 198 A 228 C 258 C 288 A
19 C 49 C 79 C 109 A 139 A 169 D 199 D 229 D 259 B 289 C
20 A 50 B 80 C 110 B 140 C 170 C 200 D 230 D 260 D 290 B
21 A 51 B 81 A 111 C 141 A 171 A 201 A 231 C 261 C 291 C
22 D 52 D 82 B 112 A 142 C 172 * 202 B 232 A 262 D 292 C
23 A 53 C 83 D 113 A 143 D 173 A 203 B 233 C 263 * 293 C
24 B 54 D 84 C 114 * 144 C 174 B 204 C 234 C 264 A 294 C
25 D 55 A 85 A 115 C 145 B 175 D 205 A 235 C 265 A 295 B
26 B 56 C 86 C 116 D 146 B 176 B 206 B 236 B 266 B 296 B
27 A 57 B 87 A 117 C 147 C 177 B 207 B 237 D 267 D 297 D
28 D 58 B 88 C 118 C 148 C 178 B 208 C 238 A 268 C 298 A
29 A 59 D 89 C 119 C 149 A 179 C 209 C 239 D 269 D 299 B
30 C 60 D 90 C 120 C 150 B 180 D 210 A 240 D 270 D 300 D
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:09-12-2021
Text of page 5
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Electrical),(R & B), Class-II(Advt No. 121/2020-21) Exam Date:26-09-2021
BAZ
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:D
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 31 A 61 B 91 C 121 A 151 B 181 A 211 C 241 C 271 D
2 D 32 B 62 C 92 * 122 * 152 B 182 C 212 D 242 C 272 A
3 C 33 D 63 D 93 A 123 A 153 B 183 B 213 * 243 C 273 B
4 D 34 C 64 B 94 A 124 B 154 C 184 A 214 A 244 C 274 *
5 A 35 A 65 D 95 B 125 D 155 D 185 C 215 A 245 B 275 D
6 C 36 C 66 A 96 D 126 B 156 C 186 C 216 B 246 B 276 D
7 B 37 A 67 C 97 A 127 B 157 A 187 A 217 D 247 D 277 A
8 B 38 C 68 C 98 D 128 B 158 B 188 B 218 C 248 A 278 C
9 D 39 C 69 C 99 C 129 C 159 A 189 A 219 D 249 B 279 D
10 D 40 C 70 A 100 B 130 D 160 B 190 C 220 D 250 D 280 D
11 D 41 B 71 A 101 D 131 A 161 C 191 A 221 A 251 A 281 C
12 B 42 A 72 D 102 C 132 B 162 A 192 C 222 B 252 B 282 A
13 D 43 B 73 A 103 C 133 D 163 A 193 D 223 A 253 B 283 C
14 C 44 A 74 B 104 D 134 C 164 * 194 C 224 D 254 C 284 C
15 A 45 B 75 D 105 B 135 B 165 C 195 B 225 B 255 A 285 C
16 C 46 D 76 B 106 A 136 D 166 D 196 B 226 B 256 B 286 B
17 A 47 A 77 A 107 B 137 C 167 C 197 C 227 D 257 B 287 D
18 A 48 B 78 D 108 * 138 B 168 C 198 C 228 C 258 C 288 A
19 B 49 C 79 A 109 B 139 D 169 C 199 A 229 A 259 C 289 D
20 D 50 A 80 C 110 * 140 C 170 C 200 B 230 D 260 A 290 D
21 B 51 A 81 B 111 C 141 B 171 B 201 B 231 D 261 C 291 B
22 A 52 D 82 B 112 A 142 C 172 B 202 B 232 A 262 A 292 D
23 A 53 C 83 C 113 B 143 A 173 D 203 B 233 C 263 A 293 D
24 B 54 B 84 A 114 D 144 B 174 A 204 D 234 B 264 C 294 B
25 C 55 A 85 D 115 B 145 A 175 * 205 A 235 B 265 A 295 D
26 B 56 C 86 C 116 C 146 B 176 C 206 A 236 C 266 D 296 B
27 D 57 D 87 C 117 B 147 C 177 B 207 D 237 C 267 C 297 D
28 * 58 B 88 B 118 C 148 A 178 B 208 C 238 A 268 D 298 B
29 C 59 A 89 A 119 D 149 D 179 A 209 B 239 C 269 B 299 B
30 C 60 D 90 D 120 C 150 D 180 A 210 D 240 B 270 A 300 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:09-12-2021Page 1 of 44
Source: Gujarat Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Gujarat Public Service Commission.