GPSC Assistant Engineer 2021: Preliminary, Assistant Engineer (Electrical) Class-2, Gujarat Maritime Board
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PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Name of The Post Assistant Engineer (Electrical), Class-2
Advertisement No 21/2021-22
Preliminary Test Held On 03-10-2021
Que. No. 001-300
Publish Date 04-10-2021
Last Date to Send Suggestion (S) 12-10-2021
Instructions / સૂચના (Physical Submission)
Candidate must ensure compliance to the instructions mentioned below, else objections
shall not be considered: -
(1) All the suggestion should be submitted in prescribed format of suggestion sheet
PHYSICALLY.
(2) Question wise suggestion to be submitted in the prescribed format (Suggestion Sheet)
published on the website.
(3) All suggestions are to be submitted with reference to the Master Question Paper with
provisional answer key (Master Question Paper), published herewith on the website.
Objections should be sent referring to the Question, Question No. & options of the Master
Question Paper.
(4) Suggestions regarding question nos. and options other than provisional answer key (Master
Question Paper) shall not be considered.
(5) Objections and answers suggested by the candidate should be in compliance with the
responses given by him in his answer sheet. Objections shall not be considered, in case, if
responses given in the answer sheet /response sheet and submitted suggestions are differed.
(6) Objection for each question shall be made on separate sheet. Objection for more than one
question in single sheet shall not be considered & treated as Cancelled.
(7) Candidate who is present in the exam entitled to submit the objection/(s).
(8) Candidate should attach copy of his/her OMR (Answer sheet) with objection/(s).
ઉમેદવાર ે નીચેની સૂચનાઓનું પાલન કરવાની તકે દારી રાખવી, અ યથા વાંધા-સૂચન અંગે કર ેલ રજૂ આતો યાને
લેવાશે નહી ં
(1) ઉમેદવારે વાંધા-સૂચનો િનયત કરવામાં આવેલ વાંધા-સૂચન પ કથી રજૂ કરવાના રહેશે.
(2) ઉમેદવારે માણે વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ કરવા વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત વાંધા-સૂચન પ કના
નમૂનાનો જ ઉપયોગ કરવો.
(3) ઉમેદવારે પોતાને પરી ામાં મળેલ પુિ તકામાં છપાયેલ માંક મુજબ વાંધા-સૂચનો રજૂ ન કરતા તમામ
વાંધા-સૂચનો વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર કી (મા ટર પ )ના માંક મુજબ અને તે
સંદભમાં રજૂ કરવા.
(4) મા ટર પ માં િન�દ� ષ્ટ અને િવક પ િસવાયના વાંધા-સૂચન યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહીં.
(5) ઉમેદવારે જે ના િવક પ પર વાંધો રજૂ કરેલ છે અને િવક પ પે જે જવાબ સૂચવેલ છે એ જવાબ ઉમેદવારે
પોતાની ઉ રવહીમાં આપેલ હોવો જોઈએ. ઉમેદવારે સૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉ રવહીનો જવાબ િભ હશે તો
ઉમેદવારે રજૂ કરેલ વાંધા-સૂચન યાનમાં લેવાશે નહીં.
(6) એક માટે એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પ ક વાપરવું. એક જ વાંધા-સૂચન પ કમાં એકથી વધારે ોની રજૂઆત
કરેલ હશે તો તે અંગેના વાંધા-સૂચનો યાને લેવાશે નહીં.
(7) પર�ક્ષામાં હાજર રહ�લ ઉમેદવાર જ વાંધા - �ુચન ર�ુ કર� શકશે .
(8) ઉમેદવાર� વાંધા-�ુ ચન સાથે પોતાની જવાબવહ�ની નકલ �બડાણ કરવાની રહ�શે.
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101. The value of the temperture co-efficient of material depends on
(A) length of the material (B) cross sectional area of the material
(C) volume of the material (D) nature of the material and temperature
102. Two electric bulbs rated for the same voltage have powers of 200 W and 100 W respectively.
If their resistances are respectively R1 and R2, then
(A) R1 = 2R2 (B) R2 = 2R1
(C) R2 = 4R1 (D) R1 = 4R2
103. Figure shows a part of closed circuit. What is the value of VA - VB?
3V
2A 2 1
A B
(A) 12V (B) 9V (C) 18V (D) 6V
104. A house is served by a 220V line. In a circuit protected by a fuse marked 9A, the maximum
number of 60W lamps (operating at unity pf) in parallel that can be turned on is
(A) 33 (B) 44 (C) 22 (D) 20
105. A circuit consisting of inductance L = 10H and R = 2 W is switched on to a dc supply of 20V. The
time taken by the current to reach 63.2% of its final value is
(A) 20 sec (B) 10 sec
(C) 5 sec (D) 2 sec
106. A certain air capacitor has a capacitance of 20 mF. If a dielectric having relative permittivity of
5 is introduced between the plates, the value of capacitance would be
(A) 100 mF (B) 4 mF
(C) 20 mF (D) 0.25 mF
107. In a certain RLC series circuit fed from an AC source, the value of power factor at resonance is
(A) unity
(B) zero lagging
(C) zero leading
(D) zero leading or zero lagging depending upon the value of inductor and capacitor
108. A balanced star connected load having an impedance of Z/j and connected to a 3-j source may be
replaced by an equivalent delta connected load having an impedance of
(A) Z/j (B) Z/3j
(C) 0.33Z/j (D) 3Z/j
109. If the separation between the three phases of a transmission system is increased
(A) the inductance will increase and capacitance will remain unchanged
(B) both the inductance and capacitance will decrease
(C) the inductance will increase and capacitance will decrease
(D) both the inductance and capacitance will increase
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110. A certain periodic voltage waveform has an rms value = 30V, average value = 20V and peak
value = 60V. Its form factor is
(A) 1.5 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 0.66
111. For the circuit shown in figure the value of Thevenin equivalent resistance Rth across terminals
A-B is
4 5 A
40V 6 RL
B
(A) 15W (B) 3.5W
(C) 6.4W (D) 7.4W
112. According to maximum power transfer theorem, under the conditions of maximum power transfer,
the efficiency is
(A) 75% (B) 100%
(C) 50% (D) 25%
113. In a two-port network containing linear, bilateral passive circuit elements, which one of the
following conditions for z-parameters would hold?
(A) z11 = z22 (B) z11z21 = z11z22
(C) z11z12 = z22z21 (D) z12 = z21
114. In a two-port network, the output short circuit current was measured while the source voltage at
the input was 1V, the value of the output current would provide the parameter
(A) C (B) y12
(C) h21 (D) y21
115. s/(s2 + w2) is the Laplace transform of
(A) sinwt (B) coswt
(C) coshwt (D) sinhwt
116. For V(s) = (s + 2)/(s(s + 1)), the initial and final values of v(t) will be respectively
(A) 1 and 1 (B) 2 and 2
(C) 2 and 1 (D) 1 and 2
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117. Currently, which battery is preferred for hybrid vehicles where high performance rather than
cost is the main criterion?
(A) Lithium ion (B) Sodium Metal Cloride
(C) Nickel metal hydride (D) Nickel cadmium
118. The ripple factor of a full wave rectifier without filter is
(A) 0.482 (B) 1.11
(C) 1.21 (D) 1.57
119. A common collector amplifier has the highest
(A) voltage gain (B) current gain
(C) power gain (D) output impedance
120. The input resistance of an ideal voltage amplifier is
(A) zero (B) unity
(C) infinity (D) any of the above
121. A properly biased JFET will work as
(A) current controlled current source (B) voltage controlled voltage source
(C) voltage controlled current source (D) current controlled voltage source
122. Zener diode is used as the main component in dc power supply for
(A) rectification (B) voltage regulation
(C) filter action (D) providing constant current to load
123. The core flux of a practical transformer with a resistive load
(A) is constant with load changes (B) increases linearly with load
(C) increases as the square root of load (D) decreases with increase in load
124. Full load voltage regulation of a transformer is zero when the power factor of the load is near
(A) unity and leading (B) zero and leading
(C) zero and lagging (D) unity and lagging
125. At 50 Hz operation, a single phase transformer has hysteresis loss of 200 W and eddy current loss
of 100 W. Its core loss at 60 Hz operation will be
(A) 432 W (B) 408 W
(C) 384 W (D) 360 W
126. It is desirable to eliminate 5th harmonic voltage of an alternator. The coils should be short-pitched
by an electrical angle of
(A) 30° (B) 36°
(C) 72° (D) 18°
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127. The synchronous reactance is the
(A) reactance due to armature reaction of the machine
(B) reactance due to leakage flux
(C) combined reactance due to leakage flux and armature reaction
(D) reactance either due to armature reaction or leakage flux
128. Which one of the following methods would give higher than actual value of voltage regulation of
an alternator ?
(A) ZPF method (B) MMF method
(C) EMF method (D) ASA method
129. If Xd, X'd and X''d are the steady state, transient and sub-transient d-axis reactance of a
synchronous machine respectively, which of the following statements is true?
(A) Xd > X'd > X''d (B) X''d > X'd > Xd
(C) X'd > X''d > Xd (D) Xd > X''d > X'd
130. A synchronous motor is operating on no-load at unity power factor. If the field current is increased,
the power factor will become
(A) leading and the current will decrease
(B) lagging and the current will increase
(C) lagging and the current will decrease
(D) leading and the current will increase
131. In a synchronous motor, the synchronizing power comes into action when
(A) rotor speed either exceeds or falls below the synchronous speed
(B) rotor speed is equal to synchronous speed
(C) rotor speed falls below the synchronous speed
(D) rotor speed exceeds the synchronous speed
132.
An induction motor and synchronous motor are connected to a common feeder line.
To operate the feeder line at unity pf, the synchronous motor should be
(A) underexcited (B) overexcited
(C) normally excited (D) disconnected from the common terminals
133. In an induction motor, if the air gap is increased
(A) its speed will reduce (B) its efficiency will improve
(C) its power factor will reduce (D) its breakdown torque will reduce
134. The mmf produced by the current of 3-f induction motor
(A) rotates at the speed of rotor in the air gap
(B) is standstill with respect to stator mmf
(C) rotates at slip speed with respect to stator mmf
(D) rotates at synchronous speed with respect to rotor
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135. A 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor runs at a speed of 1440 rpm. The frequency of the rotor
current is
(A) 3 Hz (B) 2.5 Hz
(C) 1 Hz (D) 2 Hz
136. Candela is the unit of which of the following?
(A) Wavelength (B) Luminous intensity
(C) Luminous flux (D) Frequency
137.
An induction motor when started on load does not accelerate upto full speed but runs at
1/7th of rated speed. The motor is said to be
(A) locking (B) plugging
(C) crawling (D) cogging
138. In a single phase shaded pole squirrel cage induction motor, the flux in the shaded part always
(A) leads the flux in the unshaded pole segment
(B) is in phase with the flux in the unshaded pole segment
(C) lags the flux in the unshaded pole segment
(D) is 180 out of phase with the unshaded pole segment
139. A universal motor runs at
(A) higher speed with dc supply and with less sparking
(B) higher speed with ac supply and with less sparking
(C) same speed with ac and dc supply
(D) higher speed with ac supply but with increased sparking at the brushes
140. An over current relay used for phase to phase fault protection can be set at
(A) 20% to 200 % of the rated current in steps of 10%
(B) 10% to 100 % of the rated current in steps of 10 %
(C) 10% to 50 % of the rated current in steps of 5 %
(D) 50% to 200 % of the rated current in steps of 25 %
141. In a 4-pole, 25 kW, 200V wave wound dc shunt generator, the current in each parallel path will be
(A) 62.5 A (B) 125 A
(C) 31.25 A (D) 250 A
142. If the applied voltage is 230V, then the back emf, for maximum power developed is
(A) 115 V (B) 200 V
(C) 230 V (D) 460 V
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143. The speed of a dc shunt motor is
(A) directly proportional to back emf and flux
(B) directly proportional to back emf and inversely proportional to flux
(C) inversely proportional to both back emf and flux
(D) directly proportional to flux and inversely proportional to back emf
144. A dc shunt motor, running lightly at 1000 rpm is operated under plugging. With plugging
connections left as it is, the final speed of the motor will be
(A) zero (B) 1000 rpm
(C) slightly less than 1000 rpm (D) 1000 rpm in reverse direction
145. If the field circuit of a dc shunt generator exceeds its critical value, the generator
(A) fails to build up (B) builds up a very high voltage
(C) exceeds its current capacity (D) produces power beyond its rating
146. Open circuit test on a transformer gives
(A) hysteresis loss (B) eddy current loss
(C) copper loss (D) sum of hysteresis and eddy current loss
147. A 10 kVA, 400/200 V single phase transformer with 10% impedance draws a steady state short
circuit line current of
(A) 50 A (B) 150 A
(C) 250 A (D) 350 A
148. Two coupled coils connected in series have an equivalent inductance of 16 mH or 8 mH depending
on their connection. The mutual inductance M between the coils is
(A) 2 mH (B) 4 mH
(C) 12 mH (D) 8√2 mH
149. A dc shunt motor has external resistance of Ra and Rf in the armature and field circuits respectively.
The armature current at starting can be reduced by keeping
(A) Rf maximum and Ra minimum (B) Ra maximum and Rf maximum
(C) Ra minimum and Rf maximum (D) Ra maximum and Rf minimum
150. Two 3-limb, 3-phase delta star transformers are supplied from the same source. One of the
transformers is Dy1 and the other is Dy11 connection. The phase difference between the two
corresponding phase voltages of the secondaries would be
(A) 0 degree (B) 30 degrees
(C) 60 degrees (D) 120 degrees
151. The inductance of line is minimum when
(A) GMD is high (B) GMD is high and GMR is low
(C) both GMD and GMR are high (D) GMD is low and GMR is high
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152. Which of the following power plants will take least time in starting from cold conditions to full
load operation?
(A) Nuclear power plant (B) Steam power plant
(C) Hydroelectric plant (D) Gas turbine power plant
153. Shunt capacitance is usually neglected in the analysis of
(A) short transmission lines
(B) medium transmission lines
(C) long transmission lines
(D) medium and long transmission lines
154. A three phase transmission line of negligible resistance and capacitance has an inductive reactance
of 100 ohms per phase. When the sending-end and receiving-end voltages are maintained at
110 kV, the maximum power that can be transmitted is
(A) 121 MW (B) 121√3 MW
(C) 363 MW (D) 363 kW
155. Series compensation on EHV lines is resorted to
(A) reduce the fault level
(B) improve the stability
(C) improve the voltage profile
(D) as a substitute for synchronous phase modifier
156. If the penalty factor of a plant is unity, its incremental transmission loss is
(A) 1.0 (B) – 1.0
(C) Zero (D) Infinity
157. A transmission line of 210 km length has certain values of A, B, C, D. If the length is made 100 km,
then the parameter
(A) A increases and B decreases (B) A and B both decrease
(C) A and B both increase (D) A decreases and B increases
158. For protection of parallel feeders fed from one end, the relays required are
(A) Non-directional relays at the source end and directional relays at the load end
(B) Non-directional relays at both the ends
(C) Directional relays at the source end and non-directionals relays at the load end
(D) Directional relays at both the ends
159. In GS method of load flow, a voltage controlled bus is treated as a load bus in subsequent iteration
when
(A) active power limited is violated (B) reactive power limit is violated
(C) voltage limit is violated (D) phase angle limit is violated
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160. The unit protection scheme provides
(A) primary protection (B) back-up protection
(C) simultaneous protection (D) remote protection
161. Mho relay is normally used for the protection of
(A) Long transmission lines (B) Medium length lines
(C) Short length lines (D) No length criterion
162. The velocity of travelling wave through a cable of relative permittivity of 9 is
(A) 9 × 108 metres/sec (B) 3 × 108 metres/sec
(C) 108 metres/sec (D) 2 × 108 metres/sec
163. Which of the following statements is correct from power system stability point of view?
(A) The higher the initial load, the larger the critical clearing angle
(B) The higher the initial load, the lower the critical clearing angle
(C) The initial load has nothing to do with critical clearing angle
(D)
The higher the operating time of the circuit breaker, the larger will be the critical
clearing angle
164. For a load flow solution, the quantities specified at the load bus are
(A) P and Q (B) P and |V|
(C) Q and |V| (D) P and load angle d
165. An alternator having an induced emf of 1.6 pu is connected to an infinite bus having a voltage of
1.0 pu. If the bus-bar reactance is 0.6 pu and alterator reactance is 0.2 pu, the maximum power
that can be transferred is
(A) 8 pu (B) 2 pu
(C) 2.67 pu (D) 5 pu
166. The inrush current of a transformer at no load is maximum if the supply voltage is switched on
(A) at zero voltage value (B) at peak voltage value
(C) at V/2 value (D) at √3/2 V value
167. The insulation resistance of a cable of length 10 km is 1 MW. For a cable of length 100 km, the
insulation resistance will be
(A) 10 MW (B) 5 MW
(C) 0.1 MW (D) 20 MW
168. If positive, negative and zero sequence networks for a particular fault on the power system are
connected in parallel, the type of fault that has occurred is
(A) single line to ground fault (B) double line to ground fault
(C) line to line fault (D) open circuit
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169. The voltages across the various discs of a string of suspension insulators having identical discs are
different due to
(A) surface leakage currents (B) series capacitance
(C) shunt capacitance to ground (D) series and shunt capacitances
170. Four identical alternators each rated for 20 MVA, 11 kV having a subtransient reactance of 16%
are working in parallel. The short circuit level at the bus-bars is
(A) 500 MVA (B) 400 MVA
(C) 125 MVA (D) 80 MVA
171. A string insulator has 4 units. The voltage across the bottom-most unit is 33.33% of the total
voltage. Its string efficiency is
(A) 25% (B) 33.33%
(C) 66.67% (D) 75%
172. A wave-trap is used at the termination of a HVAC overhead line to a station switchyard to
(A) prevent the transformer magnetising harmonics from reaching the overhead line
(B) damp the incoming surge waves from the overhead line
(C) attenuate sub-harmonic oscillations
(D) provide for carrier communication
173. In which one of the following models of transmission lines, is the full charging current assumed to
flow over half the length of the line only?
(A) Equivalent - p (B) Short line
(C) Nominal - p (D) Nominal-T
174. The percentage differential protection of a transformer protects the transformer against
(A) external faults (B) internal faults
(C) magnetising current inrush (D) overloading
175. The boundary of a protective system is determined by the location of
(A) circuit breakers (B) transformer
(C) CTs (D) PTs
176. For the protection of stator winding of an alternator against internal faults involving ground, the
relay used is a
(A) biased differential relay (B) directional overcurrent relay
(C) plain impedance relay (D) Buchholz relay
177. For the protection of a large squirrel cage induction motor against single phase, normally
(A) an over current relay is used (B) a differential relay is used
(C) a directional relay is used (D) negative sequence current relay is used
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178. To prevent mal-operation of differentially connected relay while energising a transformer, the
relay restraining coil is biased with
(A) second harmonic current (B) third harmonic current
(C) fifth harmonic current (D) seventh harmonic current
179. Resistance switching is normally employed in
(A) all breakers (B) bulk oil circuit breakers
(C) minimum oil circuit breakers (D) air blast circuit breakers
180. An isolator is meant for
(A) breaking abnormal current
(B) making under fault conditions
(C) breaking the circuit under no load condition
(D) breaking the circuit under overload condition
181. The force between two small charged particles, separated by a distance of 3 m is 10 N. If the
distance between them now becomes 6 m, then according to Coulomb's law the force between them
would be
(A) 20 N (B) 10 N
(C) 5 N (D) 2.5 N
182. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
(A) Magnetic flux density (B) Volume charge density
(C) Electric flux density (D) Magnetic field intensity
183. If E, V, J and rs denote electric field intensity, electric potential, current density and surface charge
density respectively, then which of the following gives Laplacian equation?
(A) ∇2V = 0 (B) ∇2V = E
(C) ∇2V = J (D) ∇2V = rs
184. Which of the following equations is correct for conductor-dielectric boundary condition? (Here Dt
and DN represent tangential and normal component of electric flux density 'D', while rv indicates
volume charge density)
(A) Dt = rv (B) Dt = rs
(C) DN = rs (D) DN = 0
185. The divergence of curl of magnetic field intensity is always
(A) unity (B) negative
(C) undefined (D) zero
186. In an electrostatic field, the angle between electric field intensity vector and equipotential
surface is
(A) 0 (B) 90
(C) 120 (D) 180
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187. If H represents magnetic field intensity, then H.dL = ∫(∇ × H).dS represents
(A) Stoke's theorem (B) Divergence theorem
(C) Poisson's theorem (D) Gaussian theorem
188. According to Maxwell, which term is additionally required to be considered (i.e. added) in the
equation ∇ × H = J, for time varying fields?
(A) dD/dt (B) dB/dt
(C) dI/dt (D) dV/dt
189. The electric field intensity due to an infinite sheet charge at a point 4 m from the plane in which
the sheet charge is located, is found to be 20 kV/m. The electric field intensity at a point 8 m from
the plane would be
(A) 10 kV/m (B) 20 kV/m
(C) 5 kV/m (D) 40 kV/m
190. The divergence theorem gives relationship between
(A) line integral and surface integral
(B) line integral and volume integral
(C) surface integral and volume integral
(D) two surface inegrals
191. Electricity distribution company named Powerco, will be testing long distance wireless power
transmission technology developed by a start-up called Emrod in
(A) USA (B) Canada
(C) China (D) New Zealand
192. For a p-pole machine, the relation between electrical angle qe and mechanical angle qm degrees is
given by
(A) qe = (2/P)qm (B) qe = pqm
(C) qe = qm (D) qe = (P/2)qm
193. The primary current in a current transformer is dictated by
(A) the secondary burden (B) the core of the transformer
(C) load current (D) load voltage
194. DC series motors are best suited for traction because
(A) torque is proportional to the square of the armature current and speed is proportional to the
torque
(B) torque is proportional to the square of the armature current and speed is inversely proportional
to the torque
(C) torque and speed both are proportional to the square of the armature current
(D) none of the above
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195. A voltage waveform V(t) = 12t2 is applied across a 1H inductor for t > 0, with initial current
through it being zero. The current through the inductor for t > 0 is given by
(A) 4t3 (B) 12t
(C) 24t (D) 12t3
196. Two incandescent light bulbs of 40W and 60W having same voltage rating are connected in series
across the mains. Then which of the following statement is necessarily true?
(A) the bulbs together consume 100 W
(B) the bulbs together consume 50 W
(C) the 60W bulb glows more brighter
(D) the 40W bulb glows more brighter
197. A stand-alone synchronous generator is feeding a partly inductive load. A capacitor is now
connected across the load to completely nullify the inductive current. For this operating condition
(A) the field current and fuel input have to be reduced
(B) the field current and fuel input have to be increased
(C) the field current has to be increased and fuel input left unaltered
(D) the field current has to be reduced and fuel input left unaltered
198. A synchronous generator is feeding a zero power factor (lagging) load at rated current. The
armature current is
(A) magnetizing (B) demagnetizing
(C) cross magnetizing (D) ineffective
199. Two capacitors of capacitances 2 pF and 6 pF are connected in parallel across a 120V dc source.
The sum of total charges on the capacitors is
(A) 15 pC (B) 1980 pC
(C) 180 pC (D) 960 pC
200. A double circuit line running between Vindhyachal and Varanasi which was recently commissioned
in July 2021 has a transmission voltage of
(A) 400 kV (B) 500 kV
(C) 765 kV (D) 1200 kV
201. The digital multiplexer is basically a combinational logic circuit to perform the operation
(A) AND - AND (B) OR - OR
(C) AND - OR (D) OR - AND
202. Which semiconductor power device out of the following is not a current triggered device?
(A) Thyristor (B) G.T.O.
(C) Triac (D) MOSFET
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203. A wound rotor induction motor is preferred over a squirrel cage induction motor, when the
major/consideration/considerations is/are
(A) large starting torque (B) low starting current
(C) speed control for limited range (D) all of the above
204. Signal flow graph is used to find
(A) Stability of the system (B) Controllability of the system
(C) Transfer function of the system (D) Poles of the system
205. If the HLT instruction of a 8085 microprocessor is executed, the microprocessor
(A) disconnected from the system bus till the reset is pressed
(B) enters into a halt state and the buses are tristated
(C) reloads the program from the locations 0024 and 0025H
(D) halts execution of the program and returns to monitor
206. Modern HVDC systems are all
(A) 3 pulse converter (B) 6 pulse converter
(C) 24 pulse converter (D) 12 pulse converter
207. The analysis of multiple-input, multiple-output system is studied by
(A) state space approach (B) root locus approach
(C) characteristic equation approach (D) Nichols chart
208. Non-contact speed measurements can be carried out by
(A) Tachometer (B) Stroboscope
(C) Oscilloscope (D) Odometer
209. DC machines that are subjected to abrupt load changes are provided with
(A) Interpole windings (B) Compensating windings
(C) Equalisers (D) Copper brushes
210. What is full form of MPPT in reference of solar energy?
(A) Maximum Power Point Tracking (B) Maximum Power Point Tariff
(C) Minimum Power Point Tracking (D) Minimum Power Point Tariff
211. What is full form of GERC?
(A) Gujarat Electricity Regional Committee
(B) Gujarat Electricity Regional Commission
(C) Gujarat Electricity Regulatory Committee
(D) Gujarat Electricity Regulatory Commission
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212. In a sequenctial circuit, the outputs at any instant of time depends
(A) only on the inputs present at that instant of time
(B) on past outputs as well as present inputs
(C) only on the past inputs
(D) only on the present outputs
213. The TRIAC can be used only in
(A) Inverter (B) Rectifier
(C) Multiquadrant Chopper (D) Cycloconverter
214. A trigonometric Fourier series of a peridoic function can have only
(A) cosine terms (B) sine terms
(C) cosine and sine terms both (D) D.C. and cosine terms
215. In position control systems, the device used for providing rate feedback voltage is called
(A) Potentiometer (B) Synchro Transmitter
(C) Synchro Transformer (D) Tachogenerator
216. Which of the following interrupts are unmaskable interrupts?
(A) RST 5.5 (B) RST 7.5
(C) TRAP (D) INTR
217. A d.c. motor runs at 1725 rpm at full load and 1775 rpm at no load. The speed regulation is
(A) 4.7% (B) 2.9%
(C) 7.6% (D) 1.5%
218. Under the conditions of maximum power transfer, a voltage source is delivering a power of 30 W
to the load. The power generated by the source is
(A) 45 W (B) 30 W
(C) 60 W (D) 90 W
219. An electric fan and a heater are marked as 100 W, 220 V and 1000 W, 220 V respectively. The
resistance of the heater is
(A) More than that of the fan (B) Less than that of the fan
(C) Equal to that of the fan (D) Zero
220. Non-contact flow measurement can be carried out by
(A) Orifice meter (B) Turbine flow meter
(C) Ultrasonic flow meter (D) Magnetic flow meter
221. Coolant used in thyristor/IGBT valves is
(A) Air (B) SF6
(C) Freon (D) Oxygen
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222. What is full form of GEDA?
(A) Gujarat Energy Development Association
(B) Gujarat Electricity Development Association
(C) Gujarat Energy Development Agency
(D) Gujarat Electrical Development Agency
223. The first HVDC scheme in INDIA is
(A) Vidhyachal back-to-back System (B) Chadrapur-Padghe Scheme
(C) Delhi-Rihand 500KV system (D) Sileru-Barsoor System
224. The output of a 2-input OR gate is 0 only when it's
(A) Both inputs are 0 (B) Either input is 1
(C) Both inputs are 1 (D) Either input is 0
225. How many select lines would be required for an 8-line-to-1-line multiplexer?
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 3
226. A _______ converts a fixed voltage DC source into a variable voltage DC source.
(A) Inverter (B) Rectifier
(C) Chopper (D) Cycloconverter
227. A TRIAC is
(A) 3 terminal bidirectional switch (B) 3 terminal unidirectional switch
(C) 2 terminal switch (D) 2 terminal bilateral switch
228. Graphical representation of a signal in time domain is called
(A) Frequency System (B) Frequency
(C) Waveform (D) None of the above
229. A cumulatively compounded motor does not run at dangerous speed at light loads because of the
presence of
(A) shunt winding (B) series winding
(C) interpoles (D) compensating windings
230. Which of the following logic family is fastest of all?
(A) TTL (B) RTL
(C) DCTL (D) ECL
231. In force voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to
(A) Current (B) Charge
(C) Inductance (D) Capacitance
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232. The type 0 system has _______ at the origin.
(A) no pole (B) net pole
(C) simple pole (D) two pole
233. In a single-phase half wave inverter, _______ SCR(s) is/are gated at a time.
(A) one (B) two
(C) three (D) four
234. The output of a single-phase half bridge inverter on R load is ideally
(A) A sine wave (B) A cosine wave
(C) A square wave (D) A constant DC
235. In an inverse definite time electromagnetic over current relay, the minimum time feature is
achieved because of
(A) saturation of the magnetic circuit (B) proper mechanical design
(C) appropriate time delay element (D) electromagnetic damping
236. HVDC transmission is mainly used for
(A) bulk power transmission over very long distance
(B) inter connecting two systems with the same nominal frequency
(C) eliminating reactive power requirement in the operation
(D) minimizing harmonics at the converter stations
237. The origin for the investigation of closed loop stability in relation to Nyquist criterion is
(A) – 1 + j0 (B) + 1 + j0
(C ) 0 + j1 (D) 0 – j1
238. The initial slope of the bode plot gives an indication of the
(A) type of system (B) nature of the system time response
(C) system stability (D) gain margin
239. The decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number E5 is
(A) 279 (B) 229
(C) 427 (D) 3000
240. In a microprocessor, the resistor which holds the address of the next instruction to be fetched is
(A) Accumulator (B) Program Counter
(C) Stack Pointer (D) Instruction Register
241. If the fault current is 2000A, the relay plug setting is 50% and the CT ratio is 200/5, then the plug
setting multiplier will be
(A) 25 (B) 20
(C) 50 (D) 45
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242. In a d.c. generator, the armature reaction
(A) weakens the flux at the trailing pole tip
(B) weakens the flux at the leading pole tip
(C) strengthens the flux at the leading pole tip
(D) none of the above
243. What is full form of THD in the context of inverter output waveform?
(A) Total Harmonic Disorder (B) Theoretical Harmonic Distortion
(C) Total Harmonic Distortion (D) Theoretical Harmonic Disorder
244. A _______ converts a fixed voltage DC source into a AC source.
(A) Inverter (B) Rectifier
(C) Chopper (D) Cycloconverter
245. Analog Signals can be converted into discrete time signals by
(A) Sampling (B) Coding
(C) Quantizing (D) None of the above
246. The number of pins in 8085 microprocessor are
(A) 27 (B) 40
(C) 15 (D) 36
247. The combinational circuit that can add two binary numbers, accept a carry and yield a carry is a
(A) multiplexer (B) demultiplexer
(C) half adder circuit (D) full adder circuit
248. If the flux per pole of the d.c generator is halved but, its speed is doubled, its generated emf will
(A) be halved (B) remain the same
(C) be doubled (D) be quadrupled
249. In an 8085 microprocessor, after the execution of XRA A instruction
(A) The carry flag is set
(B) The accumulator contains FFH
(C) The zero flag is set
(D) The accumulator contents are shifted left by one bit
250. A 60 W lamp, given a luminous flux of 1500 lumen will have an efficiency of
(A) 1500 lumen/watt (B) 250 lumen/watt
(C) 25 lumen/watt (D) 2.5 lumen/watt
251. When the load on the transformer is increased, the eddy current
(A) is increased (B) remains unchanged
(C) is decreased (D) becomes zero
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252. Bundled conductors are mainly used in high voltage overhead transmission lines to
(A) reduce transmission line losses (B) increase mechanical strength of the line
(C) reduce corona (D) reduce sag
253. It is desirable that voltage regulation of a transmission line should be
(A) high (B) low
(C) 90% (D) infinite
254. The 2's complement representation of (– 17) is
(A) 01110 (B) 01111
(C) 11110 (D) 10001
255. If a JK flip flop toggles more than once during one clock cycle, it is called _______
(A) Bouncing (B) Racing
(C) Pinging (D) Spiking
256. Cycloconverter converts
(A) Fixed dc to variable ac (B) Fixed dc to variable dc
(C) Fixed ac to variable dc (D) Fixed ac to variable ac
257. What is mean by ALU?
(A) Arithmetic logic upgrade (B) Arithmetic logic unsigned
(C) Arithmetic local unsigned (D) Arithmetic logic unit
258. _______ is the process of turning off a thyristor.
(A) Commutation (B) Triggering
(C) Firing (D) Latching
259. Regenerative braking mode can be achieved in which quadrant (V-I curve)?
(A) Third (B) Second
(C) Fourth (D) First
260. Type-A chopper is used for obtaining which type of mode?
(A) Motoring mode (B) Regenerative braking mode
(C) Reverse motoring mode (D) Reverse regenerative braking mode
261. In a double cage induction motor, good starting torque is produced because at starting,
(A) Impedance of the outer winding is less than that of the inner winding, causing a large portion
of the current to flow through the outer winding
(B) Impedance of the outer winding is more than that of the inner winding, causing a large portion
of the current to flow through the outer winding
(C) Impedance of the inner winding is less than that of the outer winding, causing a large portion
of the current to flow through the inner winding
(D) Impedance of the inner winding is more than that of the outer winding, causing a large portion
of the current to flow through the inner winding
[BBE] [P.T.O. 33
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262. In an autotransformer, the primary and secondary are
(A) only magnetically coupled (B) only electrically coupled
(C) magnetically as well as electrically (D) not coupled at all
263. The transfer function is defined as
(A) The ratio of Laplace transform of output to Laplace transform of input considering initial
condition as zero.
(B) The ratio of Laplace transform of input of Laplace transform to output considering initial
condition as zero.
(C) The ratio of input to output
(D) The ratio of error to input
264. Unit impulse response of a system in Laplace transform form gives
(A) Transfer function (B) System gain
(C) Unit step function (D) Unit ramp function
265. For a stable system
(A) Gain Margin & Phase Margin both are positive
(B) Gain Margin & Phase Margin both are negative
(C) Gain Margin positive & Phase Margin both are negative
(D) Gain Margin negative & Phase Margin both are positive
266. The corona effect is
(A) The air surrounding the conductor becomes conducting and as a result, the virtual diameter
of the conductor is decreased
(B) The air surrounding the conductor is unaffected and there is no change in the virtual diameter
of the conductor
(C) The air surrounding the conductor becomes conducting and as a result, the virtual diameter
of the conductor is increased
(D) The air surrounding the conductor is unaffected but, there is a decrease in the virtual diameter
of the conductor.
267. In a SCR, for dv/dt protection with RC circuit is known as
(A) Crowbar Circuit (B) Turn on Circuit
(C) Snubber Circuit (D) Turn off Circuit
268. What is full form of GTO in context of thyristor classification?
(A) Gate turn on Thyristor (B) Gate trigger on Thyristor
(C) Gate testing on Thyristor (D) Gate turn off Thyristor
269. A closed loop control system has the characteristic equation given by s3 + 4.5 s2 + 3.5 s + 1.5 = 0.
Comment upon the stability using Routh Hurwitz criterion.
(A) System is stable (B) System is unstable
(C) System is marginally stable (D) System is critically stable
34 [BBE] [Contd.
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270. Which type of chopper is known as four quadrant chopper?
(A) Class A Chopper (B) Class B Chopper
(C) Class D Choppper (D) Class E Chopper
271. An ideal current source has zero
(A) internal conductance (B) internal resistance
(C) voltage on no load (D) ripple
272. (52)10 = ( )2
(A) (110110) 2 (B) (110101) 2
(C) (110100) 2 (D) (100100) 2
273. At maximum power point of the solar cell
(A) current is maximum
(B) voltage is maximum
(C) both voltage and current are maximum
(D) the product of voltage and current is maximum
274. Which of the following is known as Universal Gate?
(A) OR (B) NOT
(C) AND (D) NOR
275. What is the maximum number of inputs a NOT gate can have?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
276. The device commonly used for triggering a TRIAC is a
(A) Diode (B) Diac
(C) Transistor (D) Thyristor
277. If the output of a rectifier is pure DC, then the ripple factor will be
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 1.21 (D) 0.48
278. The minimum current below which a thyristor stops conduction is known as the
(A) Saturation Current (B) Gate Current
(C) Electron Current (D) Holding Current
279. In a critically damped system,
(A) oscillations are prominent (B) no oscillations are observed
(C) oscillations just disappear (D) oscillations are sustained
280. Equalizer circuits are provided across each SCR in series operation to provide uniform
(A) current distribution (B) voltage distribution
(C) firing of SCRs (D) all of the above
[BBE] [P.T.O. 35
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281. The roots of a characteristic equation are same as the
(A) closed loop zeros (B) closed loop poles
(C) open loop zeros (D) open loop poles
282. Double integration of a unit step function would give
(A) an impulse (B) a parabloa
(C) A ramo (D) A doublet
283. On the two sides of a star delta transformer,
(A) Voltages and currents are both in phase
(B) Voltages and currents both differ in phase by 30°
(C) Voltages differ in phase by 30° but currents are in phase
(D) Currents differ in phase by 30° but voltages are in phase
284. The root locus separates at a point between two open loop poles, the point is called
(A) Critical Point (B) Crossover Point
(C) Shift Point (D) Breakaway Point
285. For 0% overshoot the damping ratio for a second order system is
(A) < 1 (B) > 1
(C) Zero (D) 1
286. In a salient pole synchronous machine, the air gap is
(A) Uniform under the whole pole shoe
(B) Least under the middle of the pole shoe and increases outside
(C) Largest under the middle of the pole shoe and decreases outwards
(D) Least at one end of the pole shoe and increases to the maximum value at the other end
287. An increase in the damping ratio
(A) increases rise time (B) decreases rise time
(C) does not affect rise time (D) keeps the time within limits
288. The Geothermal Energy is related with
(A) Sun (B) Water
(C) Air (D) Land
289. The vertical angle between the projection of the Sun's rays on the horizonal plane and the direction
of Sun's rays (passing through the point)
(A) Altitude Angle (B) Solar Azimuth Angle
(C) Zenith Angle (D) Surface Azimuth Angle
290. Which number system has a base of 16?
(A) Decimal (B) Octal
(C) Hexadecimal (D) Binary
36 [BBE] [Contd.
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291. CPU stands for ________
(A) Common Purpose Unit (B) Central Processing Unit
(C) Central Point Unit (D) Common Processing Unit
292. The value of the intrinsic stand off ratio for the UJT lies between
(A) Between 0 and 0.3 (B) Between 1 and 2
(C) Zero (D) Between 0.51 and 0.82
293. The air gap in an alternator, as compared to an induction motor is
(A) much shorter (B) much longer
(C) about the same (D) zero
294. When the varying frequncy of an ac motor is produced by rapidly switching the output of the
circuit on and off several time during each half-cycle, it is referred to as
(A) Pulse width modulation (B) Pulse width control
(C) Pulse Amplitude modulation (D) Pulse amplitude control
295. While increasing the value of the gain factor K, the system becomes
(A) less stable (B) more stable
(C) unstable (D) absolutely stable
296. In which year Gujarat state government has announced wind solar hybrid policy?
(A) 2018 (B) 2019
(C) 2020 (D) 2021
297. A 3-phase induction machine draws active power P and reactive power Q from the grid. If this
machine is operated as a generator, P and Q will respectively be
(A) positive and negative (B) positive and positive
(C) negative and negative (D) negative and positive
298. In HVDC, VSC schemes filters are used
(A) Only on the AC side (B) Only on the DC side
(C) Both AC and DC side (D) No filter is needed
299. The maximum value of the harmonic current depends on
(A) Firing Angle (B) Overlap Angle
(C) DC current (D) Both firing and overlap angle
300. The ground currents in HVDC system flow through
(A) Small Area
(B) Small Area along the line
(C) Very large area and do not confine to the route of the line
(D) Very large area along the route of the line
_____________________
[BBE] [P.T.O. 37
Text of page 1
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Electrical), Class-II(Advt No. 21/2021-22) Exam Date:03-10-2021
BBE
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:M
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 D 61 D 91 D 121 C 151 D 181 D 211 D 241 B 271 A
2 A 32 A 62 D 92 C 122 B 152 C 182 B 212 B 242 B 272 C
3 C 33 A 63 * 93 B 123 A 153 A 183 A 213 C 243 C 273 D
4 B 34 C 64 B 94 B 124 A 154 A 184 C 214 D 244 A 274 D
5 C 35 A 65 C 95 C 125 C 155 B 185 D 215 D 245 A 275 A
6 C 36 C 66 A 96 D 126 B 156 C 186 B 216 C 246 B 276 B
7 B 37 C 67 C 97 A 127 C 157 A 187 A 217 B 247 D 277 A
8 A 38 D 68 D 98 B 128 C 158 A 188 A 218 C 248 B 278 D
9 C 39 B 69 A 99 C 129 A 159 B 189 B 219 B 249 C 279 C
10 B 40 B 70 C 100 D 130 D 160 A 190 C 220 C 250 C 280 B
11 C 41 A 71 B 101 D 131 A 161 A 191 D 221 A 251 B 281 B
12 A 42 D 72 D 102 B 132 B 162 C 192 D 222 C 252 C 282 B
13 D 43 C 73 C 103 B 133 C 163 B 193 C 223 D 253 B 283 B
14 B 44 B 74 D 104 A 134 B 164 A 194 B 224 A 254 C 284 D
15 D 45 B 75 A 105 C 135 D 165 B 195 A 225 D 255 B 285 D
16 B 46 C 76 A 106 A 136 B 166 A 196 D 226 C 256 D 286 B
17 B 47 A 77 D 107 A 137 C 167 C 197 D 227 A 257 D 287 B
18 B 48 C 78 D 108 D 138 C 168 B 198 B 228 C 258 A 288 D
19 C 49 D 79 B 109 C 139 A 169 C 199 D 229 A 259 B 289 A
20 C 50 D 80 B 110 A 140 D 170 A 200 C 230 D 260 A 290 C
21 C 51 A 81 A 111 D 141 A 171 D 201 C 231 A 261 A 291 B
22 B 52 C 82 D 112 C 142 A 172 D 202 D 232 A 262 C 292 D
23 C 53 D 83 C 113 D 143 B 173 D 203 D 233 A 263 A 293 B
24 A 54 C 84 C 114 D 144 D 174 B 204 C 234 C 264 A 294 A
25 C 55 B 85 C 115 B 145 A 175 C 205 B 235 A 265 A 295 A
26 B 56 B 86 B 116 D 146 D 176 A 206 D 236 A 266 C 296 A
27 D 57 * 87 A 117 A 147 C 177 D 207 A 237 A 267 C 297 D
28 B 58 C 88 D 118 A 148 A 178 A 208 B 238 A 268 D 298 A
29 C 59 B 89 B 119 B 149 D 179 D 209 A 239 B 269 A 299 D
30 B 60 C 90 B 120 C 150 C 180 C 210 A 240 B 270 D 300 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:06-12-2021
Text of page 2
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Electrical), Class-II(Advt No. 21/2021-22) Exam Date:03-10-2021
BBE
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:A
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 31 A 61 C 91 A 121 D 151 D 181 C 211 A 241 B 271 A
2 D 32 D 62 A 92 C 122 C 152 B 182 A 212 A 242 D 272 C
3 B 33 C 63 D 93 D 123 A 153 B 183 A 213 A 243 B 273 D
4 C 34 C 64 B 94 A 124 D 154 A 184 B 214 B 244 A 274 A
5 B 35 C 65 D 95 C 125 C 155 C 185 A 215 B 245 A 275 D
6 D 36 B 66 B 96 B 126 A 156 A 186 A 216 B 246 A 276 B
7 A 37 A 67 B 97 D 127 D 157 A 187 C 217 B 247 D 277 C
8 A 38 D 68 B 98 C 128 A 158 D 188 B 218 C 248 A 278 B
9 C 39 B 69 C 99 D 129 D 159 C 189 A 219 A 249 D 279 C
10 A 40 B 70 C 100 A 130 C 160 A 190 B 220 A 250 C 280 B
11 C 41 D 71 C 101 B 131 D 161 D 191 A 221 B 251 C 281 D
12 C 42 C 72 B 102 C 132 B 162 C 192 C 222 D 252 D 282 D
13 D 43 B 73 C 103 C 133 A 163 D 193 B 223 B 253 D 283 A
14 B 44 B 74 A 104 A 134 C 164 D 194 C 224 C 254 C 284 B
15 B 45 C 75 C 105 D 135 D 165 B 195 A 225 C 255 B 285 A
16 A 46 D 76 A 106 A 136 B 166 D 196 D 226 B 256 D 286 A
17 D 47 A 77 C 107 B 137 A 167 A 197 D 227 A 257 A 287 C
18 C 48 B 78 D 108 C 138 A 168 A 198 D 228 D 258 B 288 A
19 B 49 C 79 C 109 B 139 B 169 B 199 B 229 C 259 A 289 A
20 B 50 D 80 B 110 D 140 C 170 C 200 C 230 B 260 A 290 A
21 C 51 A 81 B 111 B 141 D 171 C 201 C 231 B 261 D 291 C
22 A 52 A 82 * 112 C 142 D 172 B 202 A 232 B 262 B 292 C
23 C 53 C 83 C 113 C 143 C 173 A 203 C 233 B 263 C 293 D
24 D 54 B 84 B 114 A 144 B 174 A 204 A 234 D 264 D 294 A
25 D 55 C 85 C 115 D 145 A 175 C 205 D 235 D 265 D 295 D
26 A 56 C 86 D 116 A 146 D 176 D 206 A 236 B 266 C 296 A
27 D 57 B 87 D 117 A 147 D 177 C 207 A 237 B 267 B 297 C
28 D 58 A 88 * 118 B 148 B 178 A 208 A 238 D 268 C 298 D
29 B 59 C 89 B 119 D 149 D 179 A 209 C 239 A 269 B 299 D
30 B 60 B 90 C 120 A 150 C 180 B 210 A 240 C 270 C 300 A
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:06-12-2021
Text of page 3
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Electrical), Class-II(Advt No. 21/2021-22) Exam Date:03-10-2021
BBE
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:B
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 B 61 C 91 D 121 C 151 B 181 D 211 D 241 C 271 B
2 A 32 * 62 C 92 C 122 B 152 C 182 B 212 B 242 C 272 D
3 C 33 C 63 D 93 B 123 A 153 C 183 A 213 C 243 D 273 B
4 B 34 B 64 B 94 B 124 A 154 A 184 C 214 D 244 A 274 C
5 C 35 C 65 B 95 C 125 C 155 D 185 D 215 D 245 D 275 C
6 C 36 D 66 A 96 D 126 D 156 A 186 B 216 C 246 A 276 B
7 B 37 D 67 D 97 A 127 C 157 B 187 A 217 B 247 C 277 A
8 A 38 * 68 C 98 B 128 A 158 C 188 A 218 C 248 D 278 D
9 C 39 B 69 B 99 C 129 A 159 B 189 B 219 B 249 D 279 C
10 B 40 C 70 B 100 D 130 B 160 D 190 C 220 C 250 A 280 B
11 C 41 A 71 C 101 D 131 C 161 B 191 D 221 A 251 C 281 B
12 A 42 C 72 A 102 B 132 A 162 C 192 D 222 C 252 A 282 B
13 D 43 D 73 C 103 B 133 A 163 C 193 C 223 D 253 C 283 B
14 B 44 A 74 D 104 A 134 B 164 A 194 B 224 A 254 A 284 D
15 D 45 C 75 D 105 C 135 A 165 D 195 A 225 D 255 D 285 D
16 B 46 B 76 A 106 A 136 A 166 A 196 D 226 B 256 A 286 B
17 B 47 D 77 D 107 A 137 C 167 A 197 D 227 C 257 A 287 B
18 B 48 C 78 D 108 D 138 B 168 B 198 B 228 B 258 A 288 D
19 C 49 D 79 B 109 C 139 A 169 D 199 D 229 C 259 C 289 A
20 C 50 A 80 B 110 A 140 B 170 A 200 C 230 B 260 A 290 C
21 C 51 B 81 A 111 D 141 A 171 D 201 C 231 D 261 A 291 B
22 B 52 D 82 D 112 C 142 C 172 C 202 D 232 D 262 A 292 D
23 C 53 B 83 C 113 D 143 B 173 A 203 D 233 A 263 A 293 B
24 A 54 C 84 C 114 D 144 C 174 D 204 C 234 B 264 B 294 A
25 C 55 B 85 C 115 B 145 A 175 C 205 B 235 A 265 B 295 A
26 A 56 D 86 B 116 D 146 D 176 A 206 D 236 A 266 B 296 A
27 C 57 A 87 A 117 A 147 D 177 D 207 A 237 C 267 B 297 D
28 D 58 A 88 D 118 A 148 D 178 A 208 B 238 A 268 C 298 A
29 C 59 C 89 B 119 B 149 B 179 D 209 A 239 A 269 A 299 D
30 B 60 A 90 B 120 C 150 C 180 C 210 A 240 A 270 A 300 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:06-12-2021
Text of page 4
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Electrical), Class-II(Advt No. 21/2021-22) Exam Date:03-10-2021
BBE
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:C
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 D 61 B 91 B 121 D 151 A 181 A 211 A 241 B 271 A
2 C 32 A 62 A 92 B 122 D 152 D 182 A 212 C 242 B 272 D
3 D 33 A 63 D 93 B 123 D 153 A 183 D 213 A 243 C 273 A
4 C 34 C 64 B 94 C 124 B 154 D 184 C 214 A 244 A 274 D
5 B 35 A 65 B 95 C 125 C 155 C 185 A 215 A 245 A 275 C
6 B 36 C 66 D 96 C 126 B 156 D 186 D 216 C 246 B 276 C
7 * 37 C 67 C 97 B 127 C 157 B 187 C 217 C 247 D 277 D
8 C 38 D 68 B 98 C 128 C 158 A 188 D 218 D 248 B 278 D
9 B 39 B 69 B 99 A 129 A 159 C 189 D 219 A 249 C 279 C
10 C 40 B 70 C 100 C 130 D 160 D 190 B 220 D 250 C 280 B
11 D 41 A 71 D 101 D 131 A 161 B 191 D 221 A 251 B 281 D
12 D 42 D 72 A 102 C 132 B 162 A 192 A 222 C 252 A 282 A
13 * 43 C 73 B 103 A 133 C 163 A 193 A 223 D 253 D 283 B
14 B 44 B 74 C 104 A 134 B 164 B 194 B 224 D 254 C 284 A
15 C 45 B 75 D 105 B 135 D 165 C 195 C 225 A 255 B 285 A
16 A 46 C 76 A 106 C 136 B 166 D 196 C 226 C 256 B 286 D
17 C 47 A 77 A 107 A 137 C 167 D 197 B 227 A 257 B 287 B
18 D 48 C 78 C 108 A 138 C 168 C 198 A 228 C 258 B 288 C
19 A 49 D 79 B 109 B 139 A 169 B 199 A 229 A 259 D 289 D
20 C 50 D 80 C 110 A 140 D 170 A 200 C 230 D 260 D 290 D
21 B 51 A 81 C 111 A 141 A 171 D 201 B 231 A 261 B 291 C
22 D 52 D 82 B 112 C 142 A 172 D 202 C 232 A 262 B 292 B
23 C 53 D 83 A 113 B 143 B 173 B 203 B 233 A 263 D 293 C
24 D 54 B 84 C 114 A 144 D 174 D 204 C 234 C 264 A 294 B
25 A 55 B 85 B 115 B 145 A 175 C 205 B 235 A 265 C 295 C
26 B 56 A 86 C 116 A 146 D 176 D 206 D 236 A 266 B 296 A
27 D 57 D 87 A 117 C 147 C 177 B 207 D 237 A 267 D 297 C
28 B 58 C 88 D 118 B 148 A 178 B 208 A 238 A 268 B 298 D
29 C 59 C 89 B 119 C 149 D 179 A 209 B 239 B 269 A 299 A
30 B 60 C 90 D 120 A 150 C 180 C 210 A 240 B 270 A 300 D
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:06-12-2021
Text of page 5
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Electrical), Class-II(Advt No. 21/2021-22) Exam Date:03-10-2021
BBE
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:D
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 C 61 D 91 A 121 D 151 D 181 A 211 B 241 C 271 A
2 D 32 B 62 D 92 D 122 D 152 C 182 B 212 B 242 B 272 C
3 D 33 A 63 * 93 C 123 B 153 A 183 C 213 D 243 C 273 D
4 B 34 C 64 B 94 B 124 D 154 A 184 B 214 A 244 B 274 D
5 B 35 B 65 C 95 B 125 C 155 B 185 D 215 C 245 C 275 A
6 A 36 C 66 A 96 C 126 D 156 C 186 B 216 B 246 A 276 C
7 D 37 A 67 C 97 A 127 B 157 A 187 C 217 D 247 C 277 A
8 C 38 D 68 D 98 C 128 B 158 A 188 C 218 B 248 D 278 C
9 C 39 B 69 A 99 D 129 A 159 B 189 A 219 A 249 A 279 A
10 C 40 D 70 C 100 D 130 C 160 A 190 D 220 A 250 D 280 D
11 B 41 B 71 B 101 A 131 A 161 A 191 A 221 A 251 B 281 A
12 A 42 B 72 D 102 D 132 A 162 C 192 A 222 D 252 C 282 A
13 D 43 B 73 C 103 A 133 D 163 B 193 B 223 A 253 B 283 A
14 B 44 C 74 D 104 D 134 C 164 A 194 D 224 D 254 C 284 C
15 B 45 C 75 A 105 C 135 A 165 B 195 A 225 C 255 B 285 A
16 D 46 C 76 B 106 D 136 D 166 A 196 D 226 C 256 D 286 A
17 C 47 B 77 D 107 B 137 C 167 C 197 C 227 D 257 D 287 A
18 B 48 C 78 B 108 A 138 D 168 B 198 A 228 D 258 A 288 A
19 B 49 A 79 C 109 C 139 D 169 C 199 D 229 C 259 B 289 B
20 C 50 C 80 B 110 D 140 B 170 A 200 C 230 B 260 A 290 B
21 D 51 A 81 D 111 B 141 D 171 D 201 B 231 D 261 A 291 B
22 A 52 C 82 A 112 A 142 A 172 D 202 A 232 A 262 C 292 B
23 B 53 D 83 A 113 A 143 A 173 D 203 D 233 B 263 A 293 C
24 C 54 C 84 C 114 B 144 B 174 B 204 C 234 A 264 A 294 A
25 D 55 B 85 A 115 C 145 C 175 C 205 B 235 A 265 A 295 A
26 A 56 B 86 C 116 D 146 C 176 B 206 B 236 D 266 C 296 B
27 A 57 * 87 C 117 D 147 B 177 C 207 B 237 B 267 C 297 D
28 C 58 C 88 D 118 C 148 A 178 C 208 B 238 C 268 D 298 B
29 B 59 B 89 B 119 B 149 A 179 A 209 D 239 D 269 A 299 C
30 C 60 C 90 B 120 A 150 C 180 D 210 D 240 D 270 D 300 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:06-12-2021Page 1 of 37
Source: Gujarat Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Gujarat Public Service Commission.