GPSC Assistant Engineer 2021: Preliminary, Assistant Engineer (Mechanical) Class-2, Gujarat Maritime Board
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PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Name of the post Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Class-2(GMB)
Advertisement No. 20/2021-22
Preliminary Test held on 30-10-2021
Question No 001 – 300
Publish Date 02-11-2021
Last Date to Send Suggestion(s) 09-11-2021
THE LINK FOR ONLINE OBJECTION SYSTEM WILL START FROM 02-11-2021; 06:00 PM ONWARDS
Instructions / � ૂચના
Candidate must ensure compliance to the instructions mentioned below, else objections
shall not be considered: -
(1) All the suggestion should be submitted through ONLINE OBJECTION SUBMISSION SYSTEM only.
Physical submission of suggestions will not be considered.
(2) Question wise suggestion to be submitted in the prescribed format (proforma) published on the
website / online objection submission system.
(3) All suggestions are to be submitted with reference to the Master Question Paper with provisional
answer key (Master Question Paper), published herewith on the website / online objection
submission system. Objections should be sent referring to the Question, Question No. & options of
the Master Question Paper.
(4) Suggestions regarding question nos. and options other than provisional answer key (Master
Question Paper) shall not be considered.
(5) Objections and answers suggested by the candidate should be in compliance with the responses given
by him in his answer sheet. Objections shall not be considered, in case, if responses given in the answer
sheet /response sheet and submitted suggestions are differed.
(6) Objection for each question should be made on separate sheet. Objection for more than one question
in single sheet shall not be considered.
ઉમેદવાર નીચેની ૂચનાઓ ુ ં પાલન કરવાની તકદાર રાખવી, અ યથા વાંધા- ૂચન ગે કરલ ર ૂ આતો યાને લેવાશે નહ
(1) ઉમેદવાર વાંધાં- ૂચનો ફ ત ઓનલાઈન ઓ શન સબમીશન સી ટમ ારા જ સબમીટ કરવાના રહશે. બ અથવા ટપાલ
ારા આયોગની કચેર એ મોકલવા આવેલ વાંધા- ૂચનો યાને લેવામા આવશે નહ ની ખાસ ન ધ લેવી.
(2) ઉમેદવાર વાંધા- ૂચનો ર ૂ કરવા વેબસાઈટ / ઓનલાઈન ઓ શન સબમીશન સી ટમ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત ન ૂનાનો
જ ઉપયોગ કરવો.
(3) ઉમેદવાર પોતાને પર ામાં મળે લ પ ુ તકામાં છપાયેલ માક ુજબ વાંધા- ૂચનો ર ૂ ન કરતા તમામ વાંધા- ૂચનો
વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર ક (મા ટર પ )ના માંક ુજબ અને તે સંદભમાં ર ૂ કરવા.
(4) મા ટર પ માં િન દ ટ અને િવક પ િસવાયના વાંધા- ૂચનો યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહ .
(5) ઉમેદવાર ના િવક પ પર વાંધો ર ૂ કરલ છે અને િવક પ પે જવાબ ૂચવેલ છે એ જવાબ ઉમેદવાર પોતાની ઉ રવહ માં
આપેલ હોવો જોઈએ. ઉમેદવાર ૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉ રવહ નો જવાબ ભ હશે તો ઉમેદવાર ર ૂ કરલ વાંધા- ૂચનો
યાનમા લેવાશે નહ .
(6) એક માટ એક જ વાંધા- ૂચન પ ક વાપર ુ ં. એક જ વાંધા- ૂચનો પ કમાં એકથી વધાર ોની ર ૂ આત કરલ હશે તો તે
ગેના વાંધા- ૂચનો યાને લેવાશે નહ .
Website link for online objection submission system : https://www.safevaults.in/login/
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037. fuLÿ ‚hfkh fux÷e f]r»k …uËkþku™wt LÞq™Œ{ ‚{Úko™ {wÕÞ (MSP) ònuh fhu Au.
(A) 19 (B) 16
(C) 23 (D) 21
038. «Äk™ {tºke rf‚k™ ‚L{k™ r™rÄ (PM – KISAN) Þkus™k ™ku {wÏÞ WÆuþ þwt Au.
(A) f]r»k™e „wýð¥kk ‚wÄkhðk ¾uzqŒku™u ‚nkÞ
(B) M…Äkoí{f f]r»k™u «kuí‚kn™ yk…ðk sYhe ‚nkÞ
(C) ™k™k y™u ‚e{ktŒ ¾uzqŒ …rhðkuhku™u ykrÚkof ‚nkÞ
(D) xuõ™ku÷kuS™k «Þku„ ŒhV ¾uzqŒku ð¤u Œu {kxu ‚nkÞ
039. ßÞkhu ‚hfkh ƒkuLz ƒnkh …kzu Au, íÞkhu su {wÿk™ku «ðkn ‚hfkh™k fku»k{kt òÞ Au, Œu™u fuðe {wÿk fnuðkÞ Au?
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(A) ‚MŒe {wÿk (Cheap currency)
(B) ‚w÷¼ ™kýkt (Soft currency)
(C) {kU½e {wÿk (Dear currency)
(D) Wr»{Œ {wÿk (Heated currency)
040. ƒu‚÷-III ™e[u™k{ktÚke fku™e ‚kÚku ‚tƒÄ Ähkðu Au?
(A) sið rðrðÄŒk ‚thûký {kxu hk»xÙeÞ fkÞo™erŒyku rðfr‚Œ fhðk™ku «Þk‚ fhu Au.
(B) ƒu®Lf„ ûkuºkku{kt ™kýkfeÞ y™u ykrÚkof ˃kðku™ku ‚k{™ku fhðk Œu{s òu¾{e ðneðx™u WLLkŒ fhðk «Þk‚ fhu Au.
(C) „úe™ nkW‚ „u‚ Wí‚so™™u ykuAwt fhðk {kxu™k «Þk‚ Au.
(D) rðfr‚Œ ËuþkuÚke „heƒ Ëuþku™u xuõ™ku÷kuS xÙkL‚Vh fhu Au.
041. ÷ez ƒuLf Þkus™k™ku {wÏÞ WÆu~Þ ..........
(A) {kuxe ƒuLf SÕ÷k{kt …kuŒk™wt fkÞko÷Þ ¾ku÷ðk™ku «Þk‚ fhu
(B) rðr¼LLk hk»xÙeÞf]Œ ƒuLfku{kt «rŒM…Äko
(C) «íÞuf ƒuLf ‚½™ rðfk‚ {kxu …]ÚÚkf rsÕ÷kyku™u y…™kðþu
(D) Ëhuf ƒuLf …kuŒk™e …k‚u s{k hkrþ ÷„kzðk™ku «Þk‚
042. rðrðÄ …kfku™k Wí…kË™{kt y„úu‚h hksÞku™e òuze …ife fE òuze ‚k[e ™Úke?
(A) ™kht„e™wt ‚kiÚke {kuxwt Wí…kËf hkßÞ – …tòƒ
(B) ‚ku…khe™wt ‚kiÚke {kuxwt Wí…kËf hkßÞ – fuh¤
(C) [ýk™wt ‚kiÚke {kuxwt Wí…kËf hkßÞ – {æÞ«Ëuþ
(D) n¤Ë¤™wt ‚kiÚke {kuxwt Wí…kËf hkßÞ – yktÄú«Ëuþ
[BBS] [P.T.O. 7
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043. ¼khŒ{kt ÷ktƒk{kt ÷ktƒe {w‚kVhe fhkðŒe yuõM«u‚ xÙu™ fE Au, fu su™ku «ðk‚ 4200 fe. {e. sux÷ku ÷ktƒku Au?
(A) hksÄk™e yuõM«u‚ (B) rððuf yuõM«u‚
(C) ðLËu ¼khŒ yuõM«u‚ (D) ytíÞkuËÞ yuõM«u‚
044. ‚uðk ûkuºku fux÷wt {qzehkufký fh™kh ‚kn‚ ™u ÷½w Wãku„ fnuðk{k ykðu Au?
(A) ` 10 ÷k¾Úke ` 2 fhkuz (B) ` 2 fhkuzÚke ` 5 fhkuz
(C) ` 2 fhkuzÚke ` 10 fhkuz (D) ` 5 fhkuzÚke ` 10 fhkuz
045. ònuh ‚kn‚ku™k {níð™k ûkuºkku{kt ™e[u™k …ife fÞk ûkuºkku™ku ‚{kðuþ ÚkkÞ Au?
1. ðes¤e
2. fku÷‚ku
3. Ëwh‚t[kh
4. …uxÙkur÷Þ{
(A) 1, 2, 3, y™u 4 (B) 2 y™u 3
(C) 1 y™u 2 (D) 3 y™u 4
046. ŒksuŒh{kt furLÿÞ r‚rð÷ yurðyuþ™ {tºkk÷Þu fÞk yuh…kuxo …h Ëuþ™ku ‚ki «Úk{ rsÞku„úkrVf÷ #rzfuþ™ (GI xu„)
ÄhkðŒku Mxkuh þY fÞkuo Au?
(A) ™uŒkS ‚w¼k»k[tÿ ƒkuÍ ykt.hk. yuh…kuxo, f÷f¥kk
(B) ƒU„k÷wÁ ykt.hk.yuh…kuxo, ƒU„k÷wÁ
(C) Aºk…rŒ rþðkS ykt.hk. yuh…kuxo, {wtƒE
(D) zkƒku÷e{ ykt.hk. yuh…kuxo,„kuðk
047. 14 Úke 18 ð»ko™e ƒÄe s rfþkuheyku™u …qhf …ku»ký y™u ykhkuøÞ rþûký {kxu™e „wshkŒ ‚hfkh ™e fE Þkus™k Au?
(A) ‚íð Þkus™k (B) …qýko Þkus™k
(C) r{þ™ {t„÷{ Þkus™k (D) ‚wfLÞk ‚{]rØ Þkus™k
048. ¼khŒ{kt ¾kÄ™e ™kýkfeÞ ÔÞðMÚkk fku™k {kxu ‚tþkuÄ™ku ðÄkhðk {kxu W…Þku„{kt ÷uðkÞ Au.
(A) rðËuþe Éý ykuAwt fhðk {kxu
(B) ykrÚkof rðfk‚ {kxu
(C) ‚kðosr™f Éý [qfððk {kxu
(D) ƒu÷uL‚ ykuV …u{Ux™k ‚{kÞkus™ {kxu
8 [BBS] [Contd.
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061. „wshkŒ nkRfkuxo™k {wÏÞ LÞkÞkÄeþ y™u ‚ðkuoå[ yËk÷Œ™k {wÏÞ LÞkÞkÄeþ yu{ ƒt™u …Ë …h r™{ýqf …k{™kh
LÞkÞkÄeþ fkuý nŒk?
(A) nrh÷k÷ frýÞk (B) ßÞtrŒ÷k÷ ‚e.þkn
(C) …e. yu™. ¼„ðŒe (D) yu. yu{. yn{Ëe
062. ¼khŒ™k ƒtÄkhý™k WÆuþku{ktÚke yuf™k Y…{kt ‘ykrÚkof LÞkÞ’ þu™k îkhk W…÷çÄ fhkðkÞu÷ Au?
(A) yk{w¾ y™u hkßÞ™k ™erŒr™ËuoþfŒíð
(B) yk{w¾ y™u {q¤ yrÄfkh
(C) {q¤ yrÄfkh y™u hkßÞ™k ™erŒr™ËuoþfŒíð
(D) W…hkuõŒ{ktÚke fkuE ™net
063. òu (64)2 – (36)2 = 20 * x Œku x = ?
(A) 70 (B) 120
(C) 180 (D) 140
064. ƒu ‚tÏÞkyku™ku „w.‚k.y. y™u ÷.‚k.y. y™w¢{u 50 y™u 250 Au. òu «Úk{ ‚tÏÞk™u 2 ðzu ¼k„ðk{kt ykðu Œku ¼k„V¤
50 {¤u Au. Œku ƒeS ‚tÏÞk fE nþu.
(A) 50 (B) 100
(C) 125 (D) 250
065. ™e[u yk…u÷ …ife ‚kiÚke {kuxku y…qýkOf fÞku Au?
4 7
(A) (B)
9 11
8 12
(C) (D)
3 33
066. 1200 ÔÞrõŒyku™wt yuf „úw… xÙu™{kt {w‚kVhe fhe hÌkwt Au. su{kt fuÃx™ku y™u ‚ir™fku™ku ‚{kðuþ ÚkkÞ Au. òu Ëh 15 ‚ir™fkuyu
yuf fuÃx™ nkuÞ Œku „úw…{kt fuÃx™ku™e ‚tÏÞk fux÷e nþu?
(A) 70 (B) 75
(C) 80 (D) 82
067. yuf „ku¤k™wt 𢠂…kxe™w ûkuºkV¤ y™u ½™V¤ ‚{k™ Au, Œku „ku¤k™ku ÔÞk‚ fux÷ku ÚkkÞ?
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) 6
068. ™e[u™k ‚{efhý{kt ƒt™u «§kÚko r[Ln™e søÞkyu fE ‚tÏÞk {qfðk™e Úkþu?
? 111
=
1776 ?
(A) 343 (B) 414
(C) 444 (D) 543
[BBS] [P.T.O. 11
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069. yuf fkh¾k™k™k Œ{k{ fk{Ëkhku ™ku ‚huhkþ {kr‚f …„kh Y. 8000 Au. Œu{kt ™k 7 xuf™erþÞ™ku ™ku ‚huhkþ {kr‚f …„kh
` 12000 Au. Œu{s ƒkfe™k fkhe„hku™ku ‚huhkþ …„kh ` 6000 Au. Œku fw÷ fk{Ëkhku fux÷k nþu?
(A) 21 (B) 24
(C) 14 (D) 20
070. þrõŒ y™u fktrŒ™e W{h™ku „wýku¥kh y™w¢{u 8:7 Au. 10 ð»ko …Ae Œu{™e W{h™ku „wýku¥kh 13:12 Úkþu. Œku, Œu{™e ô{h
ðå[u ™ku ŒVkðŒ fux÷ku nþu.?
(A) 2 ð»ko (B) 4 ð»ko
(C) 8 ð»ko (D) 6 ð»ko
071. ™e[u™e ‚tÏÞkyku{kt «§kÚko r[Ln™k MÚkk™ …h ykðŒe ‚tÏÞk þkuÄku?
576, 569, 555, ? , 506
(A) 520 (B) 550
(C) 505 (D) 534
072. yuf f{o[khe™k …„kh{kt ‚ŒŒ Ëh ð»kuo 50% ðÄkhku ÚkkÞ Au. òu Œu™ku …„kh yksu ` 10,000. nkuÞ Œku [kh ð»ko
…Ae Œu™ku …„kh fux÷ku nþu?
(A) ` 26500 (B) ` 33750
(C) ` 50625 (D) ` 62500
073. yuf ðu…khe 10 zÍ™ …u™ ` 4 «rŒ zÍ™™k ¼kðu ¾heËu Au, Œ…k‚ fhŒk 20 …u™ku ¾hkƒ ÚkE „Þu÷ ™ef¤e nŒe. nðu Œuýu
25% ™Vku f{kðk ƒkfe hnuŒe Ëhuf/«rŒ …u™ fux÷e ®f{Œu ðu[ðe òuEyu?
(A) 40 …i‚k (B) 44 …i‚k
(C) 50 …i‚k (D) 55 …i‚k
074. ‚w¼k»ku ` 25000 ™wt hkufký fhe ÄtÄku þY fÞkuo. A {k‚ …Ae ykrËíÞ ` 15000 ™wt hkufký fhe ÄtÄk{kt òuzkÞ Au. ƒeò A
{k‚ …Ae ykrËíÞ ` 15000 ðÄw hkufký fhu Au. ºký ð»ko …Ae Œuyku ÄtÄk{kt ` 2,47,000™ku ™Vku fhu Au. Œku ykrËíÞ™k
¼k„u ™Vk™e fux÷e hf{ {¤þu?
(A) ` 1,17,000 (B) ` 1,11,500
(C) ` 1,23,000 (D) ` 1,30,000
075. yuf xÙu™ 10 rf.{e. ™wt ytŒh 12 r{r™x{kt fk…u Au. òu Œu™e M…ez 5 rf.{e. «rŒ/f÷kfu ½xkzku ÚkkÞ Œku, yk s ytŒh
fk…Œk xÙu™ fux÷ku ‚{Þ ÷uþu?
(A) 10 r{r™x (B) 11 r{r™x 20 ‚ufLz
(C) 13 r{r™x (D) 13 r{r™x 20 ‚ufLz
12 [BBS] [Contd.
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082. ™e[u™k{ktÚke Qòo™k rƒ™…ht…hk„Œ MºkkuŒku …ife fÞku rƒ™…ht…hk„Œ MºkkuŒ ™Úke?
(A) fwËhŒe ðkÞw (B) ¼qŒkr…Þ Qòo
(C) sið Qòo (D) ‚kih Qòo
083. fku÷‚k™k Ën™Úke rðãwŒ Wí…LLk fhðk™e «r¢Þk™k ytŒu ¼qfe suðe hk¾ {¤u Au su VT÷kEyuþ Œhefu yku¤¾kÞ Au, …htŒw
yk hk¾™k ¼khu fýku™u .......... Œhefu …ý yku¤¾ðk{kt ykðu Au.
(A) zÙkÞ VT÷kE yuþ (B) ƒkux{ yuþ
(C) {kuLz yuþ (D) {kRLz yuþ
084. ¼khŒ MxkLzz‚o (BS) ™kuB‚o þwt Au?
(A) ðkn™ku îkhk Wí‚rsoŒ fhkŒk ðkÞwyku{kt hnu÷k «Ëq»kfku™k ‚t˼o{kt {k™f
(B) ¼khŒeÞ fuhe™e „wýð¥kk ‚t˼o™k {k™fku.
(C) …whkŒ™ ¼khŒeÞ [rhºkku …h™ku ‚t„ún
(D) ‚ku™k™k nku÷{kfo Ëk„e™k ‚t˼o™k {k™fku.
085. ¾Œhk™e r™þk™eyku y™u xÙkrVf r‚ø™÷{kt ÷k÷ ht„ ð…hkÞ Au, fkhýfu ..........
(A) ÷k÷ ht„™k «fkþ™ku ðu„ ‚kiÚke ykuAku nkuÞ Au
(B) …hkðŒo™ ‚kiÚke ðÄkhu nkuÞ Au.
(C) «fkþ™ku ðu„ ‚kiÚke ðÄw y™u …hkðŒo™ ‚kiÚke ykuAwt nkuÞ Au.
(D) WõŒ (A) y™u (B) ƒt™u
086. ‚ku™ku„úkVe{kt fÞk ðuÔ‚(æðr™Œht„ku)™ku W…Þku„ ÚkkÞ Au?
(A) …hk©kÔÞ (RL£k‚kur™f)
(B) y©kÔÞ(yÕxÙk‚kur™f)
(C) ©kÔÞ
(D) W…hkuõŒ …ife yuf …ý ™net
087. 2019{kt …w÷kðk{k{kt ÚkÞu÷ ykŒtfe nw{÷k™k «rŒhkuÄ MðY…u ¼khŒeÞ ðkÞw‚u™k îkhk …krfMŒk™ ™k ƒk÷kfkux{kt fhðk{kt
ykðu÷ MxÙkEf fÞk yr¼Þk™ Œhefu yku¤¾kÞ Au?
(A) yku…huþ™ ‚tfx {ku[™
(B) yku…huþ™ {u½ËqŒ
(C) yku…huþ™ rðsÞ
(D) yku…huþ™ ƒtËh
088. ¼khŒ™e fE r{‚kR÷ yurLx ‚uxu÷kEx ðu…L‚™e fûkk{kt „ýe þfkÞ?
(A) yrø™-4 (B) yrø™-5
(C) …]Úðe-3 (D) nu÷e™k
14 [BBS] [Contd.
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089. ™uþ™÷ Úk{o÷ …kðh fku…kuohuþ™ (NTPC) yu 25 {u½kðkux™ku ‚kiÚke {kuxku VT÷ku®x„ ‚ku÷kh PV «kusufx fâkt þY
fhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au?
(A) [uLLkE (B) fku[e™
(C) rðþk¾k…è™{ (D) {k{ko„kuðk
090. ™kuÚko-EMx £trxÞh huÕðu (NRF) yu fÞk huÕðu Áx …h r™Þr{Œ ‘st„÷ xÙe xkuÞ xÙu™’ þY fhe Au?
(A) ËkSo®÷„ (B) fk÷fk-r‚{÷k
(C) fkt„zk (D) LÞw s÷…kE„wze
091. xkufâku …uhkr÷rB…f{kt xuƒ÷ xur™‚ {rn÷k ®‚„Õ‚{kt r‚Õðh {uz÷ SŒ™kh „wshkŒe ¾u÷kze ‚w.©e ¼kð™kƒu™ …xu÷™u
„wshkŒ ‚hfkh ŒhVÚke fux÷e «kuí‚knf Ä™hkþe yk…ðk™e ònuhkŒ ÚkE Au?
(A) Y. 5 fhkuz (B) Y. 3 fhkuz
(C) Y. 2 fhkuz (D) Y. 1 fhkuz
092. ŒksuŒh{kt Mxkxo y… ûkuºk™u ðu„ yk…ðk {kxu fÞk hkßÞyu ònuh-¾k™„e ¼k„eËkhe ‘R™kuðuþ™ r{þ™’ þY fhu÷ Au?
(A) Œu÷t„kýk (B) …tòƒ
(C) {æÞ«Ëuþ (D) yktÄú«Ëuþ
093. ‘hu™e yƒúkn{ yuðkuzo’ 2021 {kxu ŒksuŒh{kt fku™e …‚tË„e fhðk{kt ykðe Au?
(A) ™u£ku÷kursMx zkì . rð™eŒ r{©k
(B) fkrzoÞku÷kursMx zkì.fu.fu.y„úðk÷
(C) zkì. yu{.yu{.yu‚.yknwò
(D) ‚so™ zkì.yu™.fu.…ktzu
094. xuMx r¢fux y™u ð™-zu r¢fux{kt ‚ki «Úk{ yB…kÞ®h„ fh™kh {rn÷k™wt ™k{ þwt Au?
(A) ‚w huzV™o
(B) suf÷e™ rðr÷ÞB‚
(C) fe{ fkux™
(D) õ÷uÞh …ku÷ku‚kf
095. yku„Mx 2021{kt fku™u ™ðk ftxÙku÷h s™h÷ ykuV yufkWLxT‚ (CGA) Œhefu r™ÞwõŒ fhðk{kt ykÔÞk Au?
(A) ©e rË…f Ëk‚
(B) ©e ‚ku{k hkuÞ ƒ{o™
(C) ©e sðknh Xkfwh
(D) ©e …e. ‚wÄehfw{kh
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101. Which of the following is the extensive property of a thermodynamics system?
(A) Volume (B) Pressure
(C) Temperature (D) Density
102. An ideal gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure till its volume becomes three times. What
would be then the temperature of the gas?
(A) 81°C (B) 627°C
(C) 543°C (D) 327°C
103. A closed system receives 60 kJ heat, its internal energy decreases by 30 kJ. Then the work done by
the system is
(A) 90 kJ (B) 30 kJ
(C) – 30 kJ (D) – 90 kJ
104. Three engines A, B and C operating on Carnot cycle use working substances as Argon, Oxygen
and Air respectively, with equal temperature limits. Which engine will have higher efficiency?
(A) Engine A (B) Engine B
(C) Engine C (D) All engines have same efficiency
105. Find correct statement. During sensible cooling of humid air,
(A) relative humidity remains constant.
(B) wet bulb temperature increases.
(C) specific humidity increases.
(D) partial pressure of vapour remains constant.
106. Find the most appropriate reason towards the use of regeneration in gas turbine plant.
(A) Increase compression work
(B) Decrease turbine work
(C) Limit the maximum temperature
(D) Improve plant efficiency
107. A cylinder made of a metal of conductivity 40 W/mK is to be insulated with material of conductivity
0.1 W/mK. If the convective heat transfer coefficient with the ambient atmosphere is 5 W/m2K, the
critical radius of insulation is
(A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm
(C) 8 cm (D) 50 cm
108. Two walls of same thickness and cross-sectional area have thermal conductivities in the ratio 1:2.
If same temperature difference is maintained across the two faces of both the walls, what is ratio
of heat flow Q1/Q2?
(A) 1/2 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
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109. A condenser of a refrigeration system rejects heat at a rate of 120 kW, while its compressor
consumes a power of 30 kW. The coefficient of performance of the system would be
(A) 1/4 (B) 4
(C) 1/3 (D) 3
110. In the phenomenon of cavitation, the predominantly involved characteristic property is
(A) Surface tension
(B) Viscosity
(C) Bulk modulus of elasticity
(D) Vapour pressure
111. A flow field which has only convective acceleration is
(A) A steady uniform flow
(B) An unsteady uniform flow
(C) A steady non-uniform flow
(D) An unsteady non-uniform flow
112. A jet of water issues from a nozzle with a velocity 20 m/s, and it impinges normally on a flat plate
moving away from it at 10 m/s. The cross sectional area of the jet is 0.01 m2, and the density of
water equal to 1000 kg/m3. Find the force developed on the plate.
V1 = 20 m/s
u = 10 m/s
(A) 1000 N (B) 100 N
(C) 10 N (D) 2000 N
113. The parameters which determine the friction factor for turbulent flow in a rough pipe are
(A) Froude number and relative roughness
(B) Froude number and Mach number
(C) Reynolds number and relative roughness
(D) Nusselt number and relative roughness
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114. Find the discharge velocity at the pipe exit as shown in the figure
h
H
(A) (B) (C) (D) 0
115. Kaplan turbine is
(A) A high head mix flow turbine
(B) A low head axial flow turbine
(C) An outward flow reaction turbine
(D) An impulse inward flow turbine
116. The ratio of momentum diffusivity (v) to thermal diffusivity (a), is called
(A) Prandtl number (B) Nusselt number
(C) Biot number (D) Lewis number
117. For an opaque surface, the absorptivity, transmissivity and reflectivity are related by the equation
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
118. For the same inlet and exit temperatures of the hot and cold fluids, the log mean temperature
difference (LMTD) is
(A) Greater for parallel flow heat exchanger than for counter flow heat exchanger
(B) Greater for counter flow heat exchanger than for parallel flow heat exchanger
(C) Same for both parallel and counter flow heat exchangers
(D) Depending on the properties of fluid
119. Heat and work are
(A) Intensive properties (B) Extensive properties
(C) Point function (D) Path function
120. Change in internal energy in a reversible process occurs in a closed system is equal to the heat
transferred, if the process occurs at constant
(A) pressure (B) volume
(C) temperature (D) enthalpy
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121. Constant pressure lines in the superheated region of the Mollier diagram will have
(A) A Positive slope
(B) A negative slope
(C) Zero slope
(D) Both positive and negative slope
122. An air standard diesel cycle consists of
(A) Two adiabatic and two constant volume processes
(B) Two constant volume and two isothermal processes
(C) One constant pressure, one constant volume and two adiabatic processes
(D) One constant pressure, one constant volume and two isothermal processes
123. For the same values of peak pressure, peak temperature and heat rejection, the correct order of
efficiencies of Otto, Duel and Diesel cycle is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
124. In vapour compression refrigeration system, liquid-to-suction heat exchanger is used to
(A) Keep the COP constant
(B) Prevent the liquid refrigerant from entering the compressor
(C) Subcool the liquid refrigerant leaving the condenser
(D) Subcool the vapour refrigerant from the evaporator
125. Weight bulb depression, under saturated ambient air conditions
(A) is always positive
(B) is always negative
(C) is always zero
(D) may have a value depending upon the new point temperature
126. Higher efficiency during the regeneration process in Rankin cycle is because of
(A) the heat is added before steam enters the low pressure turbine
(B) the mean temperature of heat addition in the boiler increases
(C) the total work delivered by the turbine increases
(D) the pressure inside the boiler increases
127.
The power developed by a turbine in a certain steam power plant is 1206 kW. The heat
supplied to the boiler is 3500 kJ/kg. The heat rejected by the steam to cooling water is
2900 kJ/kg. The feed pump work required to condensate back to the boiler is 6 kW. What will be
mass flow rate of cycle?
(A) 2 kg/s (B) 0.002 kg/s
(C) 6.22 kg/s (D) 0.00622 kg/s
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128. In a gas turbine plant, the heat rejection from the working fluid is carried out by which type of
process?
(A) Constant volume
(B) Constant temperature
(C) Constant pressure
(D) None of these
129. Which of the given boilers operates above critical pressure?
(A) Lancashire boilers
(B) Babcock Wilcox boilers
(C) Once through boilers
(D) Fire tube boilers
130. What will be the effect, if temperature of feed water raised by the economiser?
(A) fuel consumption increases
(B) fuel mechanical efficiency increases
(C) fuel consumption decreases
(D) fuel mechanical efficiency decreases
131. When the temperature of fuel oil is raised, its viscosity _______.
(A) remains constant (B) reduces
(C) increases (D) may increase or decrease
132. The outer surface of a long hollow cylinder is maintained at constant temperature. The cylinder
does not have any heat source. The temperature in the cylinder will _______.
(A) increase linearly with radius
(B) decrease linearly with radius
(C) be independent of radius
(D) vary logarithmically with radius
133. Up to the critical radius of insulation, _______.
(A) added insulation increases heat loss
(B) added insulation decreases heat loss
(C) convection heat loss is less than the conduction heat loss
(D) heat flux decreases
134. The ratio of energy transferred by convection to that by conduction is represented by _______.
(A) Stanton number (B) Nusselt number
(C) Biot number (D) Preclet number
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135.
Which one of the following heat exchanger indicates parallel line pattern of temperature
distribution for both cold and hot fluid?
(A) parallel-flow with unequal heat capacities
(B) counter-flow with equal heat capacities
(C) parallel flow with equal heat capacities
(D) counter-flow with unequal heat capacities
136. Bomb calorimeter is used to find the calorific value of _______ fuels.
(A) solid (B) gaseous
(C) solid and gaseous (D) none of the above
137. Measurement of temperature is based on which law of thermodynamics?
(A) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(B) first law of thermodynamics
(C) second law of thermodynamics
(D) third law of thermodynamics
138. A closed system undergoes a process 1-2 for which the values for Q1-2 and W1-2 are +20 kJ and
+ 50 kJ respectively. If the system is returned to state1, and Q1-2 is –10 kJ, what is the value of the
work W1-2?
(A) +20 kJ (B) – 40 kJ
(C) – 80 kJ (D) +40 kJ
139. An engine operates between temperature limits of 900 K and T2 and another between T2 and
400 K. For both to be equally efficient, the value of T2 will be _______.
(A) 500 K (B) 600 K
(C) 800 K (D) 1300 K
140.
Find the equivalent evaporation (kg/hr) of a boiler producing 2000 kg/hr of steam
with enthalpy content of 2426 kJ/kg from feed water at temperature of 40°C (liquid enthalpy = 168
kJ/kg), considering enthalpy of vaporisation of water at 100°C = 2258 kJ/kg) is _______.
(A) 2000 (B) 2149
(C) 1682 (D) 1649
141. For the wind turbine, the available wind power is directly proportional to _______.
(A) wind velocity
(B) square of wind velocity
(C) cube of the wind velocity
(D) fourth power of the wind velocity
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142. Which of the following is correct?
The cyclic integral of (dQ – dW) for a cycle is
(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Zero (D) unpredictable
143. Efficiency of a Carnot engine is 75%. If the cycle direction is reversed, COP of the reversed Carnot
cycle (refrigeration) is
(A) 1.33 (B) 0.75
(C) 0.33 (D) 1.75
144. Increases in entropy of a system represents
(A) Increase in availability of energy
(B) Increase in temperature
(C) Decrease in pressure
(D) Degradation of energy
145. Employing superheated steam in turbine leads to
(A) Increase in erosion of blading
(B) Decrease in erosion of blading
(C) No change in erosion of blading
(D) None of the above
146. Brayton cycle with infinite inter cooling and reheat stages would approximate a
(A) Stirling cycle (B) Ericsson cycle
(C) Otto cycle (D) Atkinson cycle
147. The ratio of electron mobility and hole mobility in silicon is
(A) 2.1:1 (B) 2.6:1
(C) 14.5:1 (D) 1:2.1
148. What does NTU indicate?
(A) Effectiveness of heat exchanger
(B) Efficiency of heat exchanger
(C) Size of heat exchanger
(D) Temperature drop in heat exchanger
149. The differential manometer connected to a Pitot static tube used for measuring fluid velocity gives
(A) Static pressure
(B) Total pressure
(C) Dynamic pressure
(D) Difference between total pressure and dynamic pressure
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150. Which of the following forces acts on a fluid at rest?
(A) Gravity force (B) Hydrostatic force
(C) Surface tension (D) Viscous force
151. The unit of mass moment of inertia,
(A) kg/m (B) kg/m2
(C) kg-m2 (D) m3
152. When the sleeve of a porter governor moves upwards, the governor speed
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains unaffected
(D) motion of the sleeve does not depend on speed
153. What is the effect gyroscopic couple, when engine of an aeroplane rotates in clockwise direction
when seen from the tail-end and then it takes a turn to the left?
(A) to raise the nose and dip the tail
(B) to dip the nose and raise the tail
(C) to raise the nose and tail
(D) to dip the nose and tail
154. For constant sink temperature, if the temperature of source is increased, the efficiency of Carnot
engine
(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) does not change (D) depends on working fluid
155. The expression ds – (∆s)system + (∆s)surrounding > 0 is valid for
(A) impossible process (B) reversible process
(C) irreversible process (D) none of these
156. Following equation is written for cyclic process.
Find the nature of the cycle
(A) The cycle is reversible
(B) The cycle is irreversible and possible
(C) The cycle is impossible
(D) The cycle is reversible and possible
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157. A system absorbs 5000 kJ heat energy from an infinite heat source at 500 K. The temperature of
atmosphere is 300 K. Find the available energy (Availability) in terms of kJ.
(A) 2000 (B) 4500
5
(C) 5000 × (D) 3000
3
158. The difference between the reversible maximum work and the actual work is called
(A) Availability (B) Unavailability
(C) Reversibility (D) Irreversibility
159. Boiling water reactor employs
(A) single circuit system
(B) direct cycle of coolant system
(C) double circuit system of coolant cycle
(D) multi pass system
160. Find the commonly used shielding material in a nuclear reactor
(A) lead or concrete
(B) graphite or cadmium
(C) thick galvanized sheets
(D) black carbon papers
161. Reflector in nuclear plants is used to
(A) return the neutrons back into the core
(B) shield the radioactivity completely
(C) check pollution
(D) conserve energy
162. The resistance against the fatigue failure of a material is measured by
(A) elastic limit
(B) Young’s modulus
(C) ultimate tensile strength
(D) endurance limit
163. Which theory states that the failure of the machine component subjected to bi-axial or tri-axial
stresses occur when the maximum principal stresses reach the ultimate or yield strength of the
material.
(A) Maximum principal stress theory
(B) Tresca theory
(C) Maximum strain energy theory
(D) Von Mises theory
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164. A rectangular parallel key is used to connect coupling with shaft. For key design, which type of
failures of key should be considered?
(A) Tensile and shear (B) Tensile and crushing
(C) Bending and shear (D) Shear and crushing
165. Cotter joints is used to connect two _______ roads.
(A) Co-axial (B) Parallel
(C) Perpendicular (D) Inclined
166. The coefficient of restitution of a perfectly plastic impact is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) ∞
167. During inelastic collision of two particles, which one of the following is conserved?
(A) Total linear momentum only
(B) Total kinetic energy only
(C) Both linear momentum and kinetic energy
(D) Neither linear momentum nor kinetic energy
168. The transverse shear stress acting in a beam of rectangular cross-section, subjected to a transverse
shear load, is
(A) variable with maximum at the bottom of the beam
(B) variable with maximum at the top of the beam
(C) uniform
(D) variable with maximum on the neutral axis
169. The Coriolis component of acceleration is present in
(A) 4 bar mechanisms with 4 turning pairs
(B) shaping mechanism
(C) slider-crank mechanism
(D) all of these
170. Tooth interference in an external involute spur gear pair can be reduced by
(A) decreasing center distance between gear pair
(B) decreasing module
(C) decreasing pressure angle
(D) increasing number of gear teeth
171. Which one of the following is the criterion in the design of hydrodynamic journal bearings?
(A) Sommerfeld number (B) Rating life
(C) Specific dynamic capacity (D) Rotation factor
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172. Find correct statement for same RPM and CC of the petrol engines
(A) Longer fins required in 2-stroke engine compared to 4-stroke engine
(B) Longer fins required in 4-stroke engine compared to 2-stroke engine
(C) Length of the fins will be same in both 2-stroke and 4-stroke engines
(D) Fins do not require in air cooled 2-stroke and 4-stroke engines
173.
A flywheel is rotating with angular velocity of 100 rad/s. Its mass moment of inertia is
0.5 kgm2. Find the kinetic energy of the flywheel in terms of Joules.
(A) 50 (B) 200
(C) 500 (D) 2500
174. Instantaneous centre of a body rolling without sliding on a stationary curved surface lies
(A) At a point of contact
(B) On the common normal at the point of contact
(C) On the common tangent at the point of contact
(D) At the centre of curvature of the stationary surface
175. A bar having a cross section area of 1000 mm2 is fixed at the end P, as shown in figure. Further,
the bar is subjected to axial loads at the indicated positions. Find the value of stress in the segment
QR in terms of N/mm2.
P Q R S
20 kN
20 kN
10 kN
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 30 (D) 40
176. The stress strain curve for mild steel is shown in figure given below. Choose the correct option
referring to both figure and table.
T Point Description of the point
U P 1. Upper yield point
Q 2. Ultimate tensile strength
R R 3. Proportionality limit
Q
S 4. Elastic limit
P S T 5. Lower yield point
U 6. Failure
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4, T-5, U-6 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2, T-6, U-5
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-5, T-2, U-6 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2, T-3, U-6
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177. The stiffness of a compressive helical spring is K. If the wire diameter of a compressive helical
spring is increased by 2%, find the stiffness of the new spring.
(A) 0.84K (B) 1.024K
(C) 0.8K (D) 1.02K
178. Which of the following quantity is not dimensionless?
(A) Coefficient of discharge
(B) Kinematic viscosity
(C) Reynolds number
(D) Mach number
179. If there are m physical quantities and n fundamental dimensions in a particular process, the
number of non-dimensional parameters is
(A) m + n (B) m × n
(C) m – n (D) m / n
180. Morse test can be conducted for
(A) Petrol engines (B) Diesel engines
(C) Multi cylinder engines (D) None of the above
181. Which of the following devices does not relate to a compression ignition engine?
(A) Fuel pump (B) Fuel injector
(C) Governor (D) Carburettor
182. In loop scavenging, which shape of piston top is used?
(A) Flat (B) Projected curved
(C) Straight Slanted (D) Depressed curved
183. Surface tension is due to
(A) Viscous forces
(B) Cohesion
(C) Adhesion
(D) The difference between adhesive and cohesive forces
184. Two coplanar concurrent forces, P and Q, are acting on infinitesimal small body. The angle between
both forces is q. Find the magnitude of resultant force on the body.
(A) P + Q (B)
(C) (D)
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185. A cantilever beam is rigidly fixed at one end and free at other end. An inclined load is acting at the
free end of the beam. Find the type of reactions which can develop at the fixed end of the beam.
(A) Only horizontal reaction
(B) Only vertical reaction
(C) Both horizontal and vertical reactions
(D) Horizontal and vertical reactions with resisting moment
186. Find the force in the member BC of the truss shown in Figure
E
10 kN
C
1.0 m 5 kN
D B 1.5 m A
1.5 m
1
tan
3
(A) 0 kN (B) 5 kN
(C) 10 kN (D) 15 kN
187. A solid block of 100 N weight is just on a verge of slide when it is pulled by a horizontal force of
magnitude P. The block is placed on horizontal table surface. The coefficient of friction between
the surface of block and table is 0.1. Find the magnitude of the force P.
(A) 0.1 N (B) 10 N
(B) 100 N (D) 1000 N
188. A rectangular bar of cross section A and length L is pulled axially along the length by external
force P. The modulus of elasticity of the bar material is E. Find the deformation (∆L) of the bar
developed due to external load P.
PL PL
(A) (B)
2AE 4AE
PL3 PL
(C) 2 (D)
A E AE
189. Match the approaches given below to perform stated kinematics/dynamics analysis of machine.
column I column II
P. Continuous relative rotation 1. D’Alembert’s principle
Q. Velocity and acceleration 2. Grubler’s criterion
R. Mobility 3. Grashof’s law
S. Dynamic-static analysis 4. Kennedy’s theorem
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
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190. Which one of the following engines requires heavier flywheel than the remaining ones?
(A) 40 H.P. four-stroke petrol engine running at 1500 rpm
(B) 40 H.P. two-stroke petrol engine running at 1500 rpm
(C) 40 H.P. two-stroke diesel engine running at 750 rpm
(D) 40 H.P. four-stroke diesel engine running at 750 rpm
191. A rod AB of length 1 m is sliding in a corner as shown in figure. At an instant when the rod makes
an angle of 60 degrees with the horizontal plane, the velocity of point A on the rod is 1 m/s. Find
the angular velocity of the rod at this instant. Consider cos 60° = 0.5
1 m/s A
1m
60 B
(A) 2 rad/s (B) 1.5 rad/s
(C) 0.5 rad/s (D) 0.75 rad/s
192. Match the items in column I and column II
column I column II
P. Addendum 1. Cam
Q. Instantaneous centre of velocity 2. Beam
R. Section modulus 3. Linkages
S. Prime circle 4. Gear
(A) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
193. In a band brake, the tight side and slack side tension on the bend are 1000 N and 500 N respectively.
The brake drum was rotating at 600 rpm, before brake applied. If the diameter of brake drum is
400 mm, find the torque applied on brake drum.
(A) 100 Nm (B) 200 Nm
(C) 300 Nm (D) 600 Nm
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194. The number of degree of freedom of the planetary gear train shown in the figure is,
20 teeth
arm
50 teeth
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
195. If s1 and s2 are the algebraically largest and smallest principal stresses respectively, find the value
of the maximum shear stress.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
196. Stress concentration in a machine component of a ductile material is not so harmful as it is in a
brittle material because
(A) In ductile material local yielding may distribute stress concentration
(B) Ductile material has larger Young’s modulus
(C) Poisson's ratio is larger in ductile materials
(D) Modulus of rigidity is larger in ductile materials
197. If the load on a ball bearing is reduced to half, the life of the ball bearing will
(A) Increase 8 times (B) Increase 4 times
(C) Increase 2 times (D) not change
198. What is dimension of surface tension?
(A) ML–1 (B) L2T –1
(C) ML–1 T –1 (D) MT–2
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199. A square plate of size 1 m × 1 m is submerged vertically in water such that one edge becomes
parallel to free surface of the water. The top edge is 9.5 m below the free surface of water. Find the
total hydrostatic pressure force on one side of the plate.
(A) 9.81 kN (B) 98.1 kN
(C) 9.5 kN (D) 95 kN
200. The pressure gauges G1 and G2 are installed on the system as shown in figure. The pressure gauges
G1 and G2 indicate 5.00 bar and 1.00 bar respectively. Find the value of unknown pressure P
(Absolute) considering atmospheric pressure as 1.01 bar.
G2
P G1
(A) 1.01 bar (B) 2.01 bar
(C) 5.00 bar (D) 7.01 bar
201. The state of stress at a point under plane stress condition is
σxx = 40 MPa, σyy 100 = MPa, and τxy = 40 MPa
The radius of the Mohr’s circle representing the given state of stress in MPa is
(A) 40 (B) 50
(C) 100 (D) 60
202. A massless beam has a loading pattern as shown in the figure. The beam is of rectangular cross-
section with a width of 30 mm and height of 100 mm. The maximum bending moment occurs at
3000 N m–1
A B C
2000 2000
(A) Location B
(B) 2675 mm to the right of A
(C) 2500 mm to the right of A
(D) 3225 mm to the right of A
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203. The moment of inertia (I) of a thin spherical shell having mass M and radius r is
Mr 4
(A) (B) Mr 2
2
2 2
(C) Mr 2 (D)
Mr 2
3 5
204. For an Oldham coupling used between two shafts, which among the following statements are
correct?
I. Torsional load is transferred along shaft axis.
II. A velocity ratio of 1:2 between shafts is obtained without using gears.
III. Bending load is transferred transverse to shaft axis.
IV. Rotation is transferred along shaft axis.
(A) I and II (B) I and IV
(C) II and III (D) II and IV
205. For a circular shaft of diameter d subjected to torque T, the maximum value of the shear stress is
64T 32T
(A) (B)
πd 3 πd 3
16T 8T
(C) (D)
πd 3 πd 3
206. A long thin walled cylindrical shell, closed at both the ends, is subjected to an internal pressure.
The ratio of the hoop stress (circumferential stress) to longitudinal stress developed in the shell is
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0
(C) 2.0 (D) 4.0
207. For a long slender column of uniform cross section, the ratio of critical buckling load for the case
with both ends clamped to the case with both ends hinged is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 8
208. Hooke’s Law holds good upto
(A) Yield point (B) Limit of proportionality
(C) Breaking point (D) Elastic limit
209. The state of plane stress at a point is described by
σx = σy = σ and τxy = 0
The normal stress on the plane inclined at 45° to X plane will be
(A) σ (B) √2σ
(C) √3σ (D) 2σ
[BBS] [P.T.O. 33
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210. In a heat exchanger, the hot liquid enters with a temperature of 180°C and leaves at 160°C. The
cooling fluid enters at 30°C and leaves at 110°C. The capacity ratio of the heat exchanger is:
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.40
(C) 0.50 (D) 0.55
211. The centre of gravity of plane laminate will not be at its geometrical centre if it is a
(A) Circle (B) Equilateral triangle
(C) Rectangle (D) Right angled triangle
212. What is the twisting stiffness (Torque required for unit twist angle)?
(A) GJ/L (B) Gq/L
(C) Tr/J (D) TL/J
213. A 4-bar linkage possesses following link lengths with link L1 fixed to the ground. L1 = 2 cm,
L2 = 6 cm, L3 = 8 cm and L4 = 10 cm. What conclusion can be drawn about the 4-bar linkage?
(A) double crank (B) double rocker
(C) crank-rocker (D) non-Grashofian chain
214. Process efficiency of arc welding process is determined by
(A) welding power source
(B) heat transfer from arc
(C) weld metal composition
(D) joint design
215. In a statistically indeterminate system in equilibrium, the number of equations relating the forces
(A) is equal to the number of unknown forces
(B) is more than the number of unknown forces
(C) is less than the number of unknown forces
(D) is not equal to the number of unknown forces
216. A truss has 12 members and 6 joints. Number of members that can be removed without making
the truss unstable are
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
217. Which of the following qualities is conserved during an elastic collision?
(A) Speed Alone
(B) Momentum alone
(C) Kinetic energy alone
(D) Both momentum and kinetic energy
34 [BBS] [Contd.
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218. Among the following choices for the grid material, which one is not suitable for high-temperature
applications?
(A) Nichrome (B) Isoelastic
(C) Monel (D) Platinum-iridium
219. In particular material if modulus of rigidity is equal to the bulk modulus then Poisson’s ratio
will be
(A) 1/8 (B) 1/4
(C) 1/2 (D) 1
220. If a part is constrained to move and heated, it will develop
(A) Principal stress
(B) Tensile stress
(C) Compressive stress
(D) Shear stress
221.
The number of degrees of freedom in a planar mechanism having n links and j simple
hinge joints is
(A) 3(n – 3) – 2j (B) 3(n – 1) – 2j
(C) 3n – 2j (D) 2j – 3n
222. If ratio of the diameter of rivet hole to the pitch of rivets is 0.25, then tearing efficiency of the
joint is
(A) 0.50 (B) 0.75
(C) 0.25 (D) 0.87
223. The creep in a belt drive is due to the
(A) Material of the pulley
(B) Material of the belt
(C) Unequal size of the pulleys
(D) Unequal tension on tight and slack sides of the belt
224. The velocity ratio between pinion and gear in a gear drive is 2.3, the module of teeth is 2.0 mm and
sum of number of teeth on pinion and gear is 99. What is the centre distance between pinion and
the gear?
(A) 49.5 mm (B) 99 mm
(C) 148.5 mm (D) 198 mm
225. Antifriction bearings are
(A) Sleeve bearings
(B) Gas lubricated bearings
(C) Ball and roller bearings
(D) Journal bearings
[BBS] [P.T.O. 35
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226. For given fluctuating fatigue load, the values of stress amplitude and stress ratio are
MPa
250
200
150
100
0
Time
(A) 100 MPa and 5 respectively
(B) 250 MPa and 5 respectively
(C) 100 MPa and 0.20 respectively
(D) 250 MPa and 0.20 respectively
227. n-type silicon is obtained by doping silicon with
(A) Germenium (B) Aluminium
(C) Boron (D) Phosphorus
228. The piston rod and the crosshead in a steam engine are usually connected by means of
(A) Cotter joint (B) Knuckle joint
(C) Ball joint (D) Universal joint
229. The BJT is said to be operating in the saturated region if
(A) Both junctions are reverse biased
(B) Base-emitter junction is reverse biased and base collector junction is forward biased
(C) Base-emitter junction is forward biased and base collector junction is reverse biased
(D) Both junctions are forward biased
230. The main advantage of computer controlled automation over mechanical (e.g. cam controlled)
automation is
(A) Glamour
(B) Flexibility
(C) Ability to apply higher speed feed depth of cut compared to those of conventionally controlled
machine of same duty
(D) None of the above
231. In USM process, the tool oscillates at
(A) high frequency (19-25 kHz) and low amplitude (less than 50 mm)
(B) low frequency (less than 10 kHz) and low amplitude (less than 50 mm)
(C) low frequency (less than 10 kHz) and high amplitude (more than 100 mm)
(D) high frequency (19-25 kHz) and high amplitude (more than 100 mm)
36 [BBS] [Contd.
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232. In pulsed GMAW,
(A) drop transfer is promoted
(B) heat input is increased
(C) mean current is increased
(D) jetting spray occurs
233. Thermit welding is a form of
(A) Resistance welding (B) Fusion welding
(C) Gas welding (D) Forge welding
234. The electroslag welding is
(A) A process which uses a mixture of iron oxide and granular aluminium
(B) Accomplished by maintaining a hot molten metal pool between plates
(C) A process in which arc is maintained under a blanket of flux
(D) There is nothing called electroslag
235. The property that describes the ability of a metal to deform when stressed is
(A) strength (B) toughness
(C) hardness (D) ductility
236. Which of the following is used as quality indicator in radiographic testing?
(A) Density of the film (B) Penetrameter
(C) KVA available (D) Stand-off distance
237. Generation of Eddy currents depends on the principle of
(A) Wave guide theory
(B) Electromagnetic induction
(C) Magneto-restrictive forces
(D) All of the above
238. On the basis of coupling mechanisms, piezoelectric transducers can be classified as
(A) Normal beam transducer; Angle beam transducer
(B) Single element transducer; Dual element transducer
(C) Contact, Immersion, and Air-coupled transducers
(D) All of the above
239. Which one of the following options is NOT true about friction stir welding?
(A) Fine microstructure is produced.
(B) Good dimensional stability and repeatability is obtained.
(C) Absence of cracking in welds.
(D) Shielding gas is used.
[BBS] [P.T.O. 37
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240. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) The ‘GO’ gage controls the upper limit of a hole.
(B) The ‘NO GO’ gage controls the lower limit of a shaft.
(C) The ‘GO’ gage controls the lower limit of a hole.
(D) The ‘NO GO’ gage controls the lower limit of a hole.
241. Which one of the following instruments is widely used to check and calibrate geometric features
of machine tools during their assembly?
(A) Ultrasonic probe
(B) Coordinate Measuring Machine
(C) Laser interferometer
(D) Vernier calipers
242. Abbe’s principle of alignment is followed in
(A) Vernier Calipers
(B) Depth Vernier
(C) Internal Caliper Micrometre
(D) Height Vernier
243. The non-traditional machining process that essentially requires vacuum is
(A) electron beam machining
(B) electro chemical machining
(C) electro chemical discharge machining
(D) electro discharge machining
244. The following four unconventional machining processes are available in a shop floor. The most
appropriate one to drill a hole of square cross section of 6 mm × 6 mm and 25 mm deep is
(A) Abrasive Jet Machining
(B) Plasma Arc Machining
(C) Laser Beam Machining
(D) Electro Discharge Machining
245. In abrasive jet machining, as the distance between the nozzle tip and the work surface increases,
the material removal rate
(A) increases continuously
(B) decreases continuously
(C) decreases, becomes stable and then increases
(D) increases, becomes stable and then decreases
38 [BBS] [Contd.
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246. Arrange the processes in the increasing order of their maximum material removal rate for
Electrochemical Machining (ECM), Ultrasonic Machining (USM), Electron Beam Machining
(EBM), Laser Beam Machining (LBM) and Electric Discharge Machining (EDM)
(A) EBM, LBM, USM, ECM, EDM
(B) LBM, EBM, USM, EDM, ECM
(C) USM, LBM, EBM, ECM, EDM
(D) ECM, LBM, USM, ECM, EDM
247. Bond coat is preferred between thermal barrier coating (TBC) and superalloy substrate
(A) Because of lattice mismatch between superalloy substrate and TBC
(B) B
ecause of Thermal expansion coefficient mismatch between superalloy substrate
and TBC
(C) To provide corrosion resistance
(D) To provide oxidation resistance
248. Singles crystal turbine blades of nickel-based superalloys for aero-engines are manufactured using
(A) Investment casting (B) Die Casting
(C) Squeeze casting (D) Directional Solidification
249. The iron-carbon diagram and the TTT curves are determined under
(A) Equilibrium and non-equilibrium conditions respectively
(B) Non-equilibrium and equilibrium conditions respectively
(C) Equilibrium conditions for both
(D) Non-equilibrium conditions for both
250. For improving the strength of steel at elevated temperatures, which one of the following alloying
element is used?
(A) Copper (B) Tungsten
(C) Aluminium (D) Zinc
251. Vibration damping in machinery is best achieved by means of base structures made of which one
of the following materials?
(A) Low carbon steel (B) Nodular iron
(C) Grey cast iron (D) White cast iron
252. Identify the possible strengthening mechanism in nitriding of austenitic stainless steel
(A) Dislocation strengthening
(B) Amorphization
(C) Dispersion strengthening
(D) Martensite hardening
[BBS] [P.T.O. 39
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253. Cast steel crankshaft surface is hardened by
(A) Nitriding (B) Normalising
(C) Carburising (D) Induction heating
254. Spiral test is conducted to measure the
(A) Hardenability of the metal
(B) Fluidity of the molten metal
(C) Flowability of the sand
(D) Viscosity of the molten metal
255. Which of the following is TRUE about extrusion process?
(A) Structure is homogeneous.
(B) No time is lost in changing the shape.
(C) Service life of extrusion tool is too high.
(D) Its leading end is in good shape as compared to rolling.
256. Hot working process is the plastic deformation of metal which is carried out
(A) at temperature below the recrystallisation temperature
(B) at temperature above the recrystallisation temperature
(C) at temperature equals to boiling point of water
(D) none of the above
257. Which of the following is not improved by cold working of metals?
(A) hardness (B) toughness
(C) surface finish (D) corrosion resistance
258. Which of the following operation can be performed on lathe?
(A) spinning (B) drawing
(C) coining (D) swaging
259. Tubes for shaving cream and tooth paste are made by
(A) Forward Extrusion (B) Backward Extrusion
(C) Impact Extrusion (D) All of the above
260. Arrange the following correct steps for preparation of a piezocermic actuator
1. Powder preparation
2. High temperature sintering
3. Shape forming
4. Finishing
(A) 1-2-3-4 (B) 1-3-2-4
(C) 3-1-2-4 (D) 3-2-1-4
40 [BBS] [Contd.
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261. The products made by powder metallurgy process are very strong in
(A) Bending (B) Compression
(C) Tension (D) Shear
262. Within the Heat Affected Zone (HAZ) in a fusion welding process, the work material undergoes
(A) Microstructural changes but does not melt
(B) Neither melting nor microstructural changes
(C) Both melting and microstructural changes after solidification
(D) Melting and retains the original microstructure
263. The joint configuration best suited for adhesive bonding is
(A) Butt (B) Fillet
(C) Lap (D) Spot
264. Brazing and soldering are
(A) Plastic joining methods
(B) Homogenous joining methods
(C) Autogenous joining methods
(D) Heterogenous joining methods
265. During heat treatment of steel, hardness of various structures in increasing order is
(A) Martensite, fine pearlite, coarse pearlite, spherodite
(B) Fine pearlite, coarse pearlite, spherodite, martensite
(C) Martensite, coarse pearlite, fine pearlite, spherodite
(D) Spherodite, coarse pearlite, fine pearlite, martensite
266. Which of the following statements is TRUE about brittle fracture?
(A) High temperature and low strain rates favour brittle fracture.
(B) Many metal with HCP crystal structure commonly show brittle fracture.
(C) Brittle fracture is always preceded by noise.
(D) Cup and cone formation is characteristic for brittle materials.
267. A measure of Rockwell hardness is the
(A) Depth of penetration of indenter
(B) Surface area of indentation
(C) Projected area of indentation
(D) Height of rebound
[BBS] [P.T.O. 41
Text of page 42
M
268. Match the following non-traditional machining processes with the corresponding material removal
mechanisms:
Machining process Mechanism of material removal
P Chemical machining 1 Erosion
Q Electro-chemical machining 2 Corrosive reaction
R Electro-discharge machining 3 Ion displacement
S Ultrasonic machining 4 Fusion and vaporization
(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
269. In manual arc welding, the equipment should have drooping charactertic in order to maintain
Weld pool red hot
(A) Voltage constant when arc length changes
(B) Temperature in arc constant
(C) Weld pool red hot
(D) Current constant when arc length increases
270. In fracture mode-II, fracture surfaces
(A) shear parallel to edge of crack
(B) shear perpendicular to edge of crack
(C) displace normal to each other
(D) None
271. In a 2-D CAD package, clockwise circular arc of radius 5, specified from P1(15, 10) to P2(10, 15)
will have its centre at
(A) (10, 10) (B) (15, 10)
(C) (15, 15) (D) (10, 15)
272. Gunmetal which is used in journal bearings contains
(A) 88%Cu,10%Sn,2%Zn (B) 80%Cu,10%Sn,10%Al
(C) 85%Cu,5%Mg,10%Al (D) 85%Cu,5%Sn,10%Pb
273. Word “endurance limit” is used for _______
(A) Plastics (B) Ferrous materials
(C) Nonferrous materials (D) Alloys
274. The ratio of the volume occupied by the atoms to the total volume of the unit cell is called
(A) Coordination number
(B) Atomic packing factor
(C) Space lattice
(D) None of the above
42 [BBS] [Contd.
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275. Body centered cubic space lattice is found in
(A) Zinc, magnesium, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and bismuth
(B) Gamma iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and nickel
(C) Alpha iron, tungsten, chromium and molybdenum
(D) None of the above
276. Atomic Packing factor for BCC, simple cubic and FCC are
(A) 0.68,0.52,0.74 (B) 0.52,0.74,0.68
(C) 0.74,0.52,0.68 (D) 0.68,0.74,0.52
277. In a conventional unit cell of a crystal, a = b ≠ c and α = β = γ = 90° . This crystal belongs to which
of the following systems?
(A) Cubic (B) Tetragonal
(C) Orthorhombic (D) Triclinic
278. Vacancies are an example of which one of the following types of crystal structure defects?
(A) dislocation (B) line defects
(C) point defects (D) surface defects
279. Ability of material to absorb energy when deformed elastically is called as
(A) Proof strength of material (B) Resilience of material
(C) Toughness of material (D) Yield strength of material
280. Which of the following phase regions may be present across a liquidus boundary?
(A) L and L + a (B) a and L + a
(C) a and L + b (D) a and a + b
281. The lever rule is based on _______.
(A) momentum balance (B) heat balance
(C) energy balance (D) mass balance
282. What is the name of the reaction when one solid splits into two solids on cooling?
(A) Eutectoid (B) Eutectic
(C) Peritectic (D) Peritectoid
283. Creep can occur by _______.
P: diffusion
Q: grain boundary sliding
R: cross-slip of dislocations
(A) P alone (B) P and Q
(C) P and R (D) P, Q and R
[BBS] [P.T.O. 43
Text of page 44
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284. At what temperature (°C) these reactions take place in iron carbon phase diagram?
(i) Eutectic
(ii) Peritectic
(iii) Eutectoid
(A) (i) 1493 (ii) 1100 (iii) 723
(B) (i) 723 (ii) 1493 (iii) 1100
(C) (i) 1100 (ii) 723 (iii) 1493
(D) (i) 1100 (ii) 1493 (iii) 723
285. Which of the following is wrong about a phase diagram?
(A) It gives information on transformation rates.
(B) Relative amount of different phases can be found under given equilibrium conditions.
(C) It indicates the temperature at which different phases start to melt.
(D) Solid solubility limits are depicted by it.
286. Which of the following phases formed through diffusionless transformation?
(A) Pearlite (B) Austenite
(C) Martensite (D) Ferrite
287. The final products of annealing (furnace cooling) and normalizing (air cooling) of a eutectoid steel
are _______ and _______ respectively.
(A) coarse pearlite and fine pearlite
(B) fine pearlite and coarse pearlite
(C) coarse pearlite and bainite
(D) coarse pearlite and martensite
288. Shot peening of surface for surface modification results in
(A) Tensile residual stresses
(B) Softening of the surface layer
(C) Work hardening
(D) Surface finishing
289. Increase in carbon content in plain carbon steels raises its
(A) Ductility and UTS
(B) Tensile strength and malleability
(C) Tensile strength and hardness
(D) Ductility and Melting point
44 [BBS] [Contd.
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290. Which of the following metal is used in making electrical resistance wire for electric furnaces and
heating elements?
(A) Babbit metal (B) Monel metal
(C) Nichrome (D) Phosphor bronze
291. The relation between mobility (m), drift velocity (v) and electric field intensity (e) is
(A) m = ve (B) e = mv
(C) v = me (D) mve = 1
292. Leakage current doubles for every
(A) 5°C rise in temperature
(B) 10°C rise in temperature
(C) 15°C rise in temperature
(D) 20°C rise in temperature
293. N-type semiconductor is
(A) negatively charged (B) positively charged
(C) no charge at all (D) electrically neutral
294. The value of voltage V0 (given figure) will be
+ +
R Vo
30V 10V
– –
(A) 10 V (B) 0.7 V
(C) 10.7 V (D) 30 V
295. The following circuit will act as a
+ +
R C
Vi
L Vo
– –
(A) low pass filter (B) high pass filter
(C) band pass filter (D) band reject filter
[BBS] [P.T.O. 45
Text of page 46
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296. The rise time of the given circuit will be
+ +
1k
Vi 1 F Vo
– –
(A) 1 msec (B) 1.1 msec
(C) 2 msec (D) 2.2 msec
297. Common base transistor acts as a
(A) current control voltage source
(B) voltage control voltage source
(C) voltage control current source
(D) current control current source
298. As temperature increases, the b value of a BJT
(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) does not change (D) can’t be determined
299. In intrinsic semiconductor, the Fermi level exists
(A) just below the conduction band
(B) just above the valance band
(C) centre of the forbidden energy band
(D) deep in the conduction band
300. When step signal is applied to the input of high pass RC network, the transient output will be
(A) step signal (B) ramp signal
(C) impulse (D) zero
_____________________
46 [BBS] [Contd.
Text of page 1
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Class-IIGMB)(Advt No. 20/2021-22) Exam Date:30-10-2021
BBS
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:M
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 31 A 61 C 91 B 121 A 151 C 181 D 211 D 241 C 271 C
2 C 32 A 62 A 92 B 122 C 152 A 182 B 212 A 242 C 272 A
3 B 33 D 63 D 93 A 123 B 153 A 183 B 213 A 243 A 273 *
4 D 34 C 64 C 94 D 124 * 154 B 184 C 214 B 244 D 274 B
5 A 35 C 65 C 95 A 125 C 155 C 185 D 215 C 245 D 275 C
6 C 36 A 66 B 96 B 126 B 156 B 186 A 216 C 246 B 276 A
7 B 37 C 67 D 97 C 127 A 157 A 187 B 217 D 247 B 277 B
8 C 38 C 68 C 98 A 128 C 158 D 188 D 218 B 248 D 278 C
9 B 39 C 69 A 99 B 129 C 159 B 189 B 219 A 249 A 279 B
10 C 40 B 70 A 100 B 130 C 160 A 190 D 220 C 250 B 280 A
11 D 41 C 71 D 101 A 131 B 161 A 191 A 221 B 251 C 281 D
12 C 42 A 72 C 102 B 132 D 162 D 192 B 222 B 252 C 282 A
13 B 43 B 73 C 103 A 133 A 163 A 193 A 223 D 253 D 283 D
14 B 44 * 74 A 104 D 134 B 164 D 194 C 224 B 254 B 284 D
15 D 45 A 75 D 105 D 135 B 165 A 195 B 225 C 255 B 285 A
16 D 46 D 76 * 106 D 136 A 166 A 196 A 226 * 256 B 286 C
17 B 47 B 77 D 107 A 137 A 167 A 197 A 227 D 257 * 287 A
18 A 48 B 78 B 108 A 138 A 168 D 198 D 228 A 258 A 288 C
19 C 49 B 79 A 109 D 139 B 169 B 199 B 229 D 259 C 289 C
20 A 50 D 80 A 110 D 140 A 170 D 200 D 230 B 260 B 290 C
21 C 51 C 81 C 111 C 141 C 171 A 201 B 231 A 261 B 291 C
22 B 52 D 82 A 112 A 142 C 172 A 202 C 232 A 262 A 292 B
23 B 53 D 83 B 113 C 143 C 173 D 203 C 233 B 263 C 293 D
24 A 54 B 84 A 114 B 144 D 174 A 204 B 234 B 264 D 294 C
25 C 55 C 85 C 115 B 145 B 175 A 205 C 235 D 265 D 295 B
26 B 56 * 86 B 116 A 146 B 176 C 206 C 236 B 266 B 296 D
27 A 57 C 87 D 117 C 147 B 177 B 207 C 237 B 267 A 297 D
28 D 58 B 88 B 118 B 148 C 178 B 208 B 238 C 268 A 298 B
29 A 59 D 89 C 119 D 149 C 179 C 209 A 239 D 269 D 299 C
30 B 60 C 90 A 120 B 150 * 180 C 210 A 240 C 270 B 300 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:24-01-2022
Text of page 2
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Class-IIGMB)(Advt No. 20/2021-22) Exam Date:30-10-2021
BBS
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:A
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 * 31 C 61 C 91 C 121 A 151 C 181 B 211 C 241 C 271 C
2 D 32 B 62 A 92 A 122 A 152 A 182 D 212 A 242 D 272 A
3 B 33 C 63 D 93 B 123 D 153 A 183 A 213 C 243 B 273 *
4 A 34 B 64 C 94 * 124 B 154 B 184 B 214 C 244 A 274 B
5 A 35 C 65 C 95 A 125 D 155 C 185 B 215 C 245 C 275 C
6 C 36 D 66 B 96 D 126 A 156 B 186 A 216 C 246 B 276 *
7 A 37 C 67 D 97 B 127 B 157 A 187 A 217 B 247 B 277 D
8 B 38 B 68 C 98 B 128 A 158 D 188 A 218 D 248 D 278 A
9 A 39 B 69 A 99 B 129 D 159 B 189 B 219 C 249 B 279 D
10 C 40 D 70 A 100 D 130 D 160 A 190 A 220 B 250 C 280 B
11 B 41 D 71 D 101 C 131 D 161 A 191 C 221 D 251 C 281 A
12 D 42 B 72 C 102 B 132 A 162 D 192 C 222 D 252 C 282 A
13 B 43 A 73 C 103 B 133 A 163 A 193 C 223 B 253 D 283 B
14 C 44 C 74 A 104 C 134 D 164 D 194 D 224 C 254 B 284 B
15 A 45 A 75 D 105 C 135 D 165 A 195 B 225 C 255 B 285 D
16 B 46 C 76 B 106 D 136 C 166 A 196 B 226 B 256 B 286 B
17 B 47 B 77 A 107 B 137 A 167 A 197 B 227 C 257 * 287 B
18 A 48 B 78 D 108 B 138 C 168 D 198 C 228 C 258 A 288 C
19 D 49 A 79 A 109 C 139 B 169 B 199 C 229 B 259 C 289 D
20 A 50 C 80 B 110 D 140 B 170 D 200 * 230 C 260 B 290 C
21 B 51 C 81 A 111 A 141 A 171 A 201 A 231 C 261 B 291 C
22 C 52 D 82 A 112 B 142 C 172 A 202 B 232 C 262 A 292 C
23 A 53 D 83 D 113 D 143 B 173 D 203 C 233 B 263 C 293 A
24 B 54 B 84 C 114 B 144 D 174 A 204 B 234 A 264 D 294 D
25 B 55 C 85 C 115 D 145 B 175 A 205 A 235 A 265 D 295 D
26 C 56 * 86 A 116 A 146 A 176 B 206 D 236 D 266 B 296 B
27 C 57 C 87 C 117 B 147 C 177 A 207 A 237 A 267 A 297 B
28 B 58 B 88 C 118 A 148 B 178 C 208 D 238 A 268 A 298 D
29 D 59 D 89 C 119 C 149 * 179 C 209 D 239 B 269 D 299 A
30 A 60 C 90 B 120 B 150 C 180 C 210 A 240 C 270 B 300 B
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:24-01-2022
Text of page 3
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Class-IIGMB)(Advt No. 20/2021-22) Exam Date:30-10-2021
BBS
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:B
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 31 C 61 D 91 B 121 B 151 A 181 B 211 B 241 C 271 B
2 A 32 A 62 C 92 D 122 B 152 B 182 A 212 B 242 B 272 B
3 D 33 B 63 B 93 C 123 C 153 A 183 D 213 C 243 D 273 D
4 A 34 A 64 B 94 A 124 C 154 D 184 B 214 D 244 C 274 B
5 B 35 C 65 D 95 A 125 * 155 D 185 A 215 C 245 B 275 C
6 A 36 B 66 D 96 D 126 C 156 D 186 A 216 C 246 D 276 C
7 A 37 D 67 B 97 C 127 B 157 A 187 D 217 C 247 D 277 C
8 D 38 B 68 A 98 C 128 B 158 A 188 A 218 A 248 B 278 D
9 C 39 C 69 C 99 A 129 C 159 D 189 D 219 D 249 C 279 B
10 C 40 A 70 A 100 D 130 C 160 D 190 A 220 D 250 C 280 B
11 A 41 B 71 C 101 B 131 D 161 C 191 A 221 B 251 B 281 B
12 C 42 B 72 B 102 A 132 B 162 A 192 A 222 B 252 C 282 *
13 C 43 A 73 B 103 C 133 B 163 C 193 D 223 D 253 C 283 A
14 C 44 D 74 A 104 C 134 C 164 B 194 B 224 A 254 B 284 C
15 B 45 A 75 C 105 C 135 D 165 B 195 D 225 B 255 C 285 B
16 C 46 B 76 C 106 B 136 A 166 A 196 A 226 A 256 C 286 B
17 A 47 C 77 D 107 D 137 B 167 C 197 A 227 B 257 C 287 A
18 B 48 A 78 D 108 A 138 D 168 B 198 D 228 C 258 B 288 C
19 * 49 B 79 B 109 B 139 B 169 D 199 A 229 B 259 A 289 D
20 A 50 B 80 C 110 B 140 D 170 B 200 A 230 A 260 A 290 D
21 D 51 C 81 * 111 A 141 A 171 A 201 * 231 D 261 D 291 B
22 B 52 C 82 C 112 A 142 B 172 C 202 D 232 A 262 A 292 A
23 B 53 B 83 B 113 A 143 A 173 B 203 A 233 D 263 A 293 A
24 B 54 D 84 D 114 B 144 C 174 * 204 D 234 D 264 B 294 D
25 D 55 A 85 C 115 A 145 B 175 C 205 B 235 A 265 C 295 B
26 * 56 C 86 C 116 C 146 A 176 C 206 A 236 C 266 C 296 C
27 D 57 B 87 A 117 C 147 A 177 A 207 A 237 A 267 D 297 A
28 B 58 C 88 D 118 C 148 D 178 A 208 B 238 C 268 B 298 *
29 A 59 B 89 C 119 D 149 B 179 B 209 B 239 C 269 A 299 B
30 A 60 C 90 C 120 B 150 D 180 C 210 D 240 C 270 C 300 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:24-01-2022
Text of page 4
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Class-IIGMB)(Advt No. 20/2021-22) Exam Date:30-10-2021
BBS
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:C
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 31 * 61 A 91 B 121 A 151 B 181 D 211 D 241 B 271 B
2 C 32 C 62 C 92 B 122 C 152 A 182 B 212 A 242 A 272 B
3 B 33 B 63 C 93 A 123 B 153 C 183 B 213 A 243 A 273 D
4 D 34 D 64 C 94 D 124 * 154 C 184 C 214 B 244 D 274 A
5 A 35 C 65 B 95 A 125 C 155 C 185 D 215 C 245 B 275 B
6 C 36 C 66 C 96 B 126 C 156 B 186 A 216 C 246 C 276 A
7 B 37 A 67 A 97 C 127 A 157 D 187 B 217 D 247 A 277 B
8 C 38 D 68 B 98 A 128 A 158 A 188 D 218 B 248 * 278 C
9 B 39 C 69 * 99 B 129 B 159 B 189 B 219 A 249 B 279 B
10 C 40 C 70 A 100 B 130 C 160 B 190 D 220 C 250 C 280 A
11 D 41 B 71 D 101 A 131 B 161 A 191 A 221 B 251 * 281 D
12 C 42 D 72 B 102 B 132 A 162 A 192 B 222 B 252 D 282 A
13 B 43 C 73 B 103 A 133 D 163 A 193 A 223 D 253 A 283 D
14 B 44 A 74 B 104 D 134 B 164 B 194 C 224 B 254 D 284 D
15 D 45 A 75 D 105 D 135 A 165 A 195 B 225 C 255 B 285 A
16 D 46 D 76 * 106 D 136 A 166 C 196 A 226 C 256 A 286 C
17 B 47 C 77 D 107 A 137 D 167 C 197 A 227 C 257 A 287 A
18 A 48 C 78 B 108 A 138 A 168 C 198 D 228 D 258 B 288 C
19 C 49 A 79 A 109 D 139 D 169 D 199 B 229 B 259 B 289 C
20 A 50 D 80 A 110 D 140 A 170 B 200 D 230 B 260 D 290 C
21 C 51 B 81 C 111 C 141 A 171 B 201 B 231 B 261 B 291 C
22 B 52 A 82 A 112 A 142 A 172 B 202 C 232 * 262 B 292 B
23 B 53 D 83 B 113 C 143 D 173 C 203 C 233 A 263 C 293 D
24 A 54 A 84 A 114 B 144 B 174 C 204 B 234 C 264 D 294 C
25 C 55 B 85 C 115 B 145 D 175 * 205 C 235 B 265 C 295 B
26 C 56 A 86 B 116 A 146 A 176 C 206 C 236 B 266 C 296 D
27 D 57 A 87 D 117 C 147 A 177 B 207 C 237 A 267 C 297 D
28 D 58 D 88 B 118 B 148 D 178 B 208 B 238 C 268 A 298 B
29 B 59 C 89 C 119 D 149 A 179 C 209 A 239 D 269 D 299 C
30 C 60 C 90 A 120 B 150 A 180 C 210 A 240 D 270 D 300 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:24-01-2022
Text of page 5
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Class-IIGMB)(Advt No. 20/2021-22) Exam Date:30-10-2021
BBS
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 300 is declared as below Series:D
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 31 A 61 B 91 D 121 A 151 C 181 D 211 B 241 C 271 D
2 D 32 A 62 D 92 B 122 A 152 B 182 A 212 A 242 C 272 D
3 D 33 D 63 B 93 A 123 D 153 B 183 A 213 C 243 A 273 B
4 B 34 C 64 C 94 C 124 A 154 C 184 D 214 D 244 D 274 C
5 C 35 C 65 A 95 A 125 A 155 C 185 D 215 D 245 D 275 C
6 * 36 A 66 B 96 C 126 B 156 D 186 C 216 B 246 B 276 B
7 C 37 C 67 B 97 B 127 A 157 B 187 A 217 A 247 B 277 C
8 B 38 C 68 A 98 B 128 C 158 B 188 C 218 A 248 D 278 C
9 D 39 C 69 D 99 A 129 C 159 C 189 B 219 D 249 A 279 B
10 C 40 B 70 A 100 C 130 C 160 D 190 B 220 B 250 B 280 C
11 C 41 C 71 B 101 C 131 B 161 A 191 A 221 C 251 A 281 C
12 A 42 A 72 C 102 A 132 D 162 B 192 C 222 A 252 B 282 C
13 D 43 B 73 A 103 A 133 A 163 D 193 B 223 * 253 C 283 B
14 C 44 * 74 B 104 B 134 B 164 B 194 D 224 B 254 B 284 A
15 C 45 A 75 B 105 C 135 B 165 D 195 B 225 C 255 A 285 A
16 B 46 D 76 C 106 B 136 A 166 A 196 A 226 * 256 D 286 D
17 D 47 B 77 C 107 A 137 A 167 B 197 C 227 D 257 A 287 A
18 C 48 B 78 B 108 D 138 A 168 A 198 B 228 A 258 D 288 A
19 A 49 B 79 D 109 B 139 B 169 C 199 * 229 D 259 D 289 B
20 A 50 D 80 A 110 A 140 A 170 B 200 C 230 B 260 A 290 C
21 D 51 * 81 C 111 A 141 C 171 A 201 C 231 A 261 C 291 C
22 C 52 D 82 B 112 D 142 C 172 A 202 C 232 A 262 A 292 D
23 C 53 B 83 C 113 A 143 C 173 D 203 D 233 B 263 C 293 B
24 A 54 A 84 B 114 D 144 D 174 B 204 B 234 B 264 C 294 A
25 D 55 A 85 C 115 A 145 B 175 D 205 B 235 D 265 C 295 C
26 B 56 C 86 D 116 A 146 B 176 A 206 B 236 B 266 C 296 B
27 A 57 A 87 C 117 A 147 B 177 B 207 * 237 B 267 B 297 B
28 D 58 B 88 B 118 D 148 C 178 A 208 A 238 C 268 D 298 D
29 A 59 A 89 B 119 B 149 C 179 D 209 C 239 D 269 C 299 B
30 B 60 C 90 D 120 D 150 * 180 D 210 B 240 C 270 B 300 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:24-01-2022Page 1 of 46
Source: Gujarat Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Gujarat Public Service Commission.