GPSC Engineering Services 2025: GWSSB Engineering Service (Mechanical), Preliminary, Engineering Aptitude
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1. Find the odd one out from the given jumbled words.
(A) KILCEN (B) ZENROB
(C) RONCAB (D) REVILS
2. Among the options, choose the option which can replace the question mark?
18 ?
39 121
(A) 488 (B) 367
(C) 245 (D) 16
3. In a company, there are 42 employees. On the New Year Eve, each employee presents
an individual gift to other employees. Now in total how many gifts are there by all the
employees?
(A) 1806 (B) 1764 (C) 1722 (D) 1681
4. In how many ways can the letters of the word “MENTOR” be arranged so that no vowel
occupies odd place?
(A) 144 (B) 96
(C) 72 (D) 36
5. A shop offers a 20% discount on selling price for all the items and also another 10%
discount on bill if you pay through UPI payments. After both the discount, if a buyer pays
Rs. 756 for an item, then what was the actual price of that item?
(A) Rs. 1080 (B) Rs. 1050
(C) Rs. 998 (D) Rs. 983
6. In a row, there are 29 girls, when a girl “Nitu” shifted three places towards the left, she
becomes 11th from the left end. What was her earlier position from the right end of the
row?
(A) 15th (B) 16th (C) 17th (D) 18th
7. In a house, there are seven members in a family. The present average age of the family is
59. Now, if a couple with average age 35 left the house and another couple is blessed with
twins, what will be the average age of the family after 4 years?
(A) 49 (B) 53
(C) 54 (D) 58
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8. Three pipes fill a tank in 30 minutes, 40 minutes and 60 minutes individually. If all the
pipes are opened together, how much time is required to fill 45% of the tank?
(A) 6 minutes (B) 9 minutes
(C) 12 minutes (D) 13 minutes
9. The speed of a train is 80 kmph and the length of the train is 200 m. Find the time it will
take to cross a pole.
(A) 2.5 seconds (B) 9.0 seconds
(C) 11.1 seconds (D) 22.2 seconds
10. How many sides does a polygon have, having the sum of interior angles as 1440°?
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12
11. Among the following statements, which one is FALSE?
(A) Rank of Matrices A and AT are same
(B) Rank of identity matrix of order ‘n’ is equal to ‘n’
(C) Rank of a null matrix is zero
(D) Rank of a non-singular matrix of order ‘n’ is not equal to ‘n’
12. The simultaneous equations are: x + y + z = 6, x + 2y +3z = 10 and x + 2y + γz = µ. Among
the following, which condition states there is no solution of the system?
(A) γ = 3 and µ ≠ 10 (B) γ ≠ 3 and µ = 10
(C) γ = 3 and µ = 10 (D) γ ≠ 3 and µ ≠ 10
13. If y = (sin–1x)2, then (1 – x2)y" – xy' + 1 is equal to
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3
∂u ∂u ∂u
14. If u = log(tanx + tany + tanz), then sin2x + sin2y + sin2z is equal to
∂x ∂y ∂z
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
∂(u,v)
15. If u = ex siny and ν = x + log (siny), then Jacobian is equal to
∂(x,y)
(A) –1 (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) Infinite
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16. The area included between the curve xy2 = 4a2(2a – x) and its asymptote is equal to ______.
(A) πa2 (B) 2πa2 (C) 4πa2 (D) 16πa2
17. is equal to
(A) 0 (B) 0.5
(C) 1 (D) 2
18. The centre of gravity of the area enclosed by the parabola y2 = 4ax and the double ordinates
x=h is _______.
(A) 0.6h, 0 (B) 0, 1.6h
(C) 0.6h, 1.6h (D) 1.6h, 0
19. Among the following, which one is also known as the Newton-Raphson method?
(A) Secant method (B) Chord method
(C) Euler’s method (D) Tangent method
20. Among the following methods, which is a direct method for solving simultaneous algebraic
equations?
(A) Bi-section method (B) Gauss-Seidel method
(C) Cramer’s rule method (D) Jacobi’s method
21. From the given conic sections, find which one has an eccentricity less than one but more
than zero.
(A) Circle (B) Ellipse
(C) Parabola (D) Hyperbola
22. If a point is located behind the VP (Vertical Plane) and above the HP (Horizontal Plane),
then the projections is ___.
(A) First angle projection (B) Second angle projection
(C) Third angle projection (D) Fourth angle projection
23. The value of the ratio of true length to isometric length is _________________.
(A) 0.642 (B) 0.815
(C) 1 (D) 1.227
24. Among the following which nut can be most easily operated by the thumb and a finger?
(A) Cap nut (B) Ring nut
(C) Wing nut (D) Flanged nut
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25. In a steel structure, under which condition are punched holes not allowed?
(A) Fatigue loading (B) Tensile loading
(C) Compressive loading (D) Bending
26. The Young’s modulus of steel is approximately ________.
(A) 2.1×106 N/mm2 (B) 1.5×106 N/mm2
(C) 0.8×106 N/mm2 (D) 0.2×106 N/mm2
27. 1 MPa pressure equals to __________.
(A) 145 psi (B) 368 psi
(C) 689 psi (D) 935 psi
28. Importance of safety involves with _________.
(A) Enhanced productivity
(B) Legal compliances
(C) Reduced risk
(D) Enhanced productivity, legal compliances and reduced risk
29. Which part of taper roller bearing is known as "Cup"?
(A) Outer race (B) Inner race
(C) Inner portion of cage (D) Outer surface of roller
30. The angle between coupler and follower of kinematic chain is known as _____________.
(A) Helix angle (B) Transmission angle
(C) Friction angle (D) Coupling angle
31. The pitch cone angle of miter gear is _________________.
(A) 60° (B) 180°
(C) 90° (D) 120°
32. The maximum fluctuation of energy of flywheel is ___________.
(A) Directly proportional to coefficient of the fluctuation of speed
(B) Inversely proportional to the moment of inertia of flywheel
(C) Inversely proportional to the square of angular speed of flywheel
(D) All of the given options
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33. Which statement is FALSE among the following as per cam nomenclature?
(A) Trace point is a theoretical point which corresponds to the tip of a knife edge follower
(B) For a roller follower, pitch curve and cam surface are same
(C) For a roller follower, base circle is smaller than the prime circle
(D) For a flat-face follower, base circle is equal to prime circle
34. The gyroscopic couple on an aeroplane is not directly proportional to ____________.
(A) Angular speed of engine (B) Angular speed of precession
(C) Radius of curvature (D) Linear velocity of aeroplane
35. The reason behind swaying couple in locomotive is ______________.
(A) Hammer blow (B) Primary unbalanced force
(C) Secondary unbalanced force (D) Tendency to lift wheels from rails
36. What is the main difference between a project and an operation?
(A) A project is temporary, while operations are ongoing and repetitive.
(B) A project is always larger in scope than operations.
(C) Operations are temporary, while projects are ongoing.
(D) Projects and operations are essentially the same in scope and duration.
37. Which of the following is the primary purpose of a project charter?
(A) To establish the project's financial budget.
(B) To provide a detailed schedule of tasks.
(C) To formally authorize the project and define its objectives.
(D) To list the project's risks and assumptions.
38. Which of the following techniques is used to develop a realistic project schedule by
analyzing the project's activities and their dependencies?
(A) Critical Path Method (CPM) (B) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
(C) Monte Carlo Simulation (D) Earned Value Management (EVM)
39. What is the primary purpose of a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
(A) To identify project stakeholders.
(B) To manage project costs and budgets.
(C) To decompose the project scope into manageable sections.
(D) To create a network diagram for project scheduling.
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40. Which project management process group focuses on ensuring that the project remains
on track with respect to scope, schedule and budget?
(A) Initiating (B) Planning
(C) Executing (D) Monitoring and Controlling
41. What does the term "Triple Constraint" refer to in project management?
(A) Time, money and resources
(B) Cost, quality and scope
(C) Scope, schedule and budget
(D) Quality, stakeholder satisfaction and performance
42. During which phase of the project life cycle is the project’s performance against the
project management plan monitored and controlled?
(A) Initiating (B) Planning
(C) Executing (D) Closing
43.
Which of the following is a key characteristic of the "agile" project management
methodology?
(A) Projects are delivered in a single final product after all phases are completed.
(B) Emphasis is placed on detailed upfront planning.
(C) Frequent reassessments and iterative cycles are used to improve the product.
(D) Projects follow a rigid and structured step-by-step approach.
44. Which of the following best describes the concept of "scope creep" in project management?
(A) The intentional addition of project features as agreed upon by stakeholders.
(B) The gradual increase in project scope without corresponding increases in resources or
time.
(C) The process of refining the project scope during the planning phase.
(D) The expansion of project boundaries to align with initial project goals.
45. Which of the following tool is commonly used in the process of project cost control to
compare planned versus actual performance?
(A) Gantt Chart (B) Earned Value Management (EVM)
(C) Risk Register (D) Resource Histogram
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46. In an electric motor, what is the function of the commutator?
(A) To control the speed of the motor
(B) To reverse the direction of current in the armature windings
(C) To generate magnetic fields
(D) To regulate voltage input to the motor
47. What is the main difference between an electric field and a magnetic field?
(A) Electric fields are generated by moving charges, while magnetic fields are generated
by static charges.
(B) Magnetic fields can exist in a vacuum, while electric fields cannot.
(C) Electric fields are associated with static charges, while magnetic fields are associated
with moving charges.
(D) There is no difference between electric and magnetic fields.
48. In an AC circuit, the inductive reactance depends on
(A) Voltage and resistance (B) Frequency and inductance
(C) Current and capacitance (D) Resistance and capacitance
49. For an inductor in a DC circuit, what happens to the current immediately after the circuit
is closed?
(A) The current jumps to its maximum value instantly.
(B) The current starts at zero and increases gradually over time.
(C) The current remains constant at zero.
(D) The current fluctuates rapidly.
50. Which law states that the total voltage around any closed loop is equal to the sum of the
voltage drops across the components in the loop?
(A) Ohm's Law (B) Kirchhoff's Voltage Law
(C) Kirchhoff 's Current Law (D) Thevenin's Theorem
51. The power factor of a purely resistive circuit is __________________.
(A) 0 (B) 0.5
(C) 1 (D) Infinite
52. What is the unit of electrical capacitance?
(A) Ohm (B) Farad
(C) Henry (D) Volt
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53. What is the primary purpose of a transformer in an electrical circuit?
(A) To increase the current while decreasing the voltage
(B) To convert AC to DC
(C) To change the voltage level without changing the frequency
(D) To store electrical energy
54. In a series of RLC circuit, what is the phase difference between the voltage and the current
when the circuit is at resonance?
(A) 0° (B) 45° (C) 90° (D) 180°
55. In a parallel RLC circuit at resonance, what happens to the total impedance (Z)?
(A) It reaches its minimum value.
(B) It reaches its maximum value.
(C) It equals the sum of the resistance and the reactance.
(D) It equals zero.
56. What is the power factor in a purely inductive AC circuit?
(A) 0 (B) 0.5
(C) 1 (D) – 1
57. In a P-N junction diode, which of the following is true about the depletion region?
(A) It only exists when a reverse bias is applied.
(B) It is formed by the recombination of free electrons and holes.
(C) It is highly conductive.
(D) It is formed by the movement of electrons in the forward direction.
58. What is the main characteristic of the current-voltage (I-V) curve of a Schottky diode?
(A) It shows a sharp reverse breakdown region.
(B) It exhibits a linear relationship in the forward direction.
(C) It has a low forward voltage drop and a fast switching time.
(D) It behaves as an ideal diode in both forward and reverse directions.
59. In a transistor, what does the term "base-emitter voltage" refer to?
(A) The voltage between the collector and the emitter.
(B) The voltage required to turn the transistor off.
(C) The voltage that controls the flow of current between the base and the emitter.
(D) The maximum voltage allowed across the base-emitter junction.
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60. Which of the following semiconductor materials has the highest bandgap energy?
(A) Silicon (Si) (B) Germanium (Ge)
(C) Gallium Arsenide (GaAs) (D) Silicon Carbide (SiC)
61. What happens when a P-N junction diode is forward-biased?
(A) The depletion region widens and no current flows.
(B) The majority charge carriers (holes and electrons) move towards the junction and
allow current to flow.
(C) The diode behaves like an open circuit and blocks current.
(D) The diode switches to a negative resistance mode.
62. What is the primary function of a zener diode in a circuit?
(A) To act as a voltage-controlled switch.
(B) To allow current to flow in both directions.
(C) To regulate voltage by allowing reverse breakdown at a specific voltage.
(D) To amplify weak signals.
63. In a Bipolar Junction Transistor (BJT), what is the function of the collector region?
(A) It amplifies the input signal.
(B) It collects the charge carriers (electrons or holes) from the base region.
(C) It allows the base current to flow.
(D) It provides the power for the transistor.
64. For a Junction Field-Effect Transistor (JFET), what controls the current between the
source and drain terminals?
(A) The voltage applied across the gate-source junction.
(B) The current through the gate.
(C) The voltage applied across the collector-emitter junction.
(D) The temperature of the junction.
65. What is the purpose of the base terminal in a Bipolar Junction Transistor (BJT)?
(A) To control the voltage across the emitter and collector.
(B) To inject minority carriers into the base region, which are then collected by the
collector.
(C) To regulate the current between the emitter and collector.
(D) To provide a path for the majority carriers.
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66. Which region of a P-N-P transistor corresponds to the "emitter" in the conventional
current flow?
(A) The region that emits electrons into the base.
(B) The region that collects holes and sends them to the collector.
(C) The region that injects holes into the base and controls the current.
(D) The region that provides biasing for the base.
67. In a diode, what happens when the reverse voltage exceeds the breakdown voltage?
(A) The diode behaves as an open circuit.
(B) The diode becomes non-linear and conducts in both directions.
(C) The diode undergoes avalanche breakdown and current increases rapidly.
(D) The diode allows current to flow normally but with reduced current.
68. In a construction project, how does the implementation of "Lean Construction" practices
typically affect quality?
(A) It focuses on reducing waste, which indirectly improves overall quality by optimizing
processes.
(B) It encourages workers to work faster, potentially compromising quality.
(C) It eliminates quality checks in favour of speed.
(D) It involves strictly adhering to the traditional quality assurance methods.
69. In the context of quality management, which of the following refers to a documented
process for ensuring consistency in construction practices and production procedures?
(A) Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)
(B) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
(C) Root Cause Analysis
(D) Fishbone Diagram
70. Which maintenance strategy focuses on replacing or repairing equipment only when it
breaks down, rather than preventing failure through routine inspections or predictions?
(A) Preventive maintenance (B) Predictive maintenance
(C) Corrective maintenance (D) Proactive maintenance
71. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency works under the ____________.
(A) Ministry of Defense (B) Ministry of Power
(C) Ministry of Finance (D) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
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72. The chemical energy is converted to electrical energy in ____________.
(A) Dynamometer (B) Solar cell
(C) Fuel cell (D) Heat exchanger
73. Which one of the following is not a threat to the biodiversity of a geographical area?
(A) Promotion of vegetarian (B) Global warming
(C) Invasion of alien species (D) Fragmentation of habitat
74. The genetic engineering appraisal committee was constituted under ______________.
(A) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
(B) Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986
(C) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
(D) Geographical Indicators of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
75. The pollutant compound that causes irritation in the eyes and lungs is ______________.
(A) Sulphur (B) Nitrogen
(C) Carbon (D) Hydrogen
76. Which one of the following is not a source of particulate matter?
(A) Smelters (B) Power plants
(C) Electric vehicle (D) Agricultural burning
77. The mathematical model which is used only for simulating Earth’s atmosphere or ocean
is___________.
(A) General circulation model (B) Global climate model
(C) Global circulation model (D) General climate model
78. Under Article 6 of the Paris Agreement, countries can work together on _______________.
(A) Transferring carbon credits (B) Developing water scarcity
(C) Establishing food security (D) Reducing health hazards
79. Schottky defect occurs when _____________.
(A) Ions of opposite charges leave their lattice sites
(B) A pair of ions is missing
(C) A pair of cations is missing
(D) Many pairs of anions are missing
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80. The atomic packing factor of a simple cubic structure is ____________.
(A) 0.53 (B) 0.52
(C) 0.54 (D) 0.51
81. The resistance offered by a material to indentation is ______________.
(A) Shear strength (B) Creep
(C) Hardness (D) Wear
82. Upon heating, the BCC iron changes to FCC iron with
(A) Contraction in volume (B) Increase in volume
(C) No change in volume (D) Increase in volume with cracks
83. The smallest material constituting a crystal structure is ________.
(A) Atoms (B) Molecules
(C) Unit cell (D) Ions
84. The degree of anisotropy increases with decreasing ___________.
(A) Structural symmetry (B) Structural defects
(C) Structural texture (D) Structural integrity
85. If Bragg’s law is not satisfied at a point, then the interference will be ____________.
(A) Constructive (B) Non-constructive
(C) Depend upon incident angle (D) Difficult to predict
86. The ductility of a material can be expressed quantitatively in terms of ____________.
(A) Percent elongation
(B) Percent reduction in area
(C) Percent elongation and percent reduction in area
(D) Percentage stress
87. The ratio that defines true stress in tensile loading of a material is ____________.
(A) (Load)/(Fractured cross-sectional area)
(B) (Load)/(Original cross-sectional area)
(C) (Load)/(Instantaneous cross-sectional area)
(D) (Load)/(Average cross-sectional area)
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88. Ethical issues that can affect an engineer’s professional and personal life is _________.
(A) Microethics (B) Macroethics
(C) Moral (D) Rights
89. What does perseverance mean?
(A) High-level intelligence
(B) Neutral arguments
(C) No real interest or efforts
(D) Doing some things despite difficulty or delay in achieving the process
90. An IP address consists of _________.
(A) 24 bits (B) 32 bits
(C) 16 bits (D) 20 bits
91. The network in which devices are connected together in one physical location is known
as _________.
(A) Metropolitan area network
(B) Wide area network
(C) Local area network
(D) Metropolitan area network and Wide area network
92. The main components of the CPU are _________.
(A) Control unit and ALU (B) ALU and BUS
(C) Control unit and register (D) Registers and main memory
93. The first Cyber Law which provides the legal infrastructure for e-commerce in India
is _________.
(A) The Information Technology Act, 1996
(B) The Information Technology Act, 2000
(C) The Information Technology Act, 1999
(D) The Information Technology Act, 1990
94. The incorrect pair is _________.
(A) .jpg – graphic file (B) .ttf – word file
(C) .wav – audio file (D) .exe – executable file
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95. Which one of the following is NOT an input device?
(A) Mouse (B) Keyboard
(C) Monitor (D) Microphone
96. The protocol that provides e-facility among different hosts is _________.
(A) FTP (B) SMTP
(C) TELNET (D) SNMP
97. The non-volatile memory is _________.
(A) SRAM (B) DRAM
(C) ROM (D) RAM
98. BIT stands for _________.
(A) Binary information term (B) Binary digit
(C) Binary tree (D) Bivarite theory
99. Which material is used for the fabrication of the RAM?
(A) Conductor (B) Semiconductor
(C) Transistor (D) Vacuum tube
100. Assembly Language is _________.
(A) High-level programming language
(B) Medium-level programming language
(C) Low-level programming language
(D) Machine Language
________________
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Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engi. Service
(Mechanical)-Exe. Engi. (Mech.), Class-1 and Deputy Exe. Engi.
(Mech.), Class-2 Aptitude
(Advt No. 78/2024-25) Exam Date:27/04/2025 BMX-1
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 100 is declared as
below Series:M
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 21 B 41 C 61 B 81 C
2 D 22 B 42 C 62 C 82 A
3 C 23 D 43 C 63 B 83 C
4 A 24 C 44 B 64 A 84 A
5 B 25 A 45 B 65 B 85 B
6 B 26 D 46 B 66 C 86 C
7 B 27 A 47 C 67 C 87 C
8 A 28 D 48 B 68 A 88 A
9 B 29 A 49 B 69 A 89 D
10 C 30 B 50 B 70 C 90 A
11 D 31 C 51 C 71 B 91 C
12 A 32 A 52 B 72 C 92 A
13 D 33 B 53 C 73 A 93 B
14 C 34 C 54 A 74 B 94 B
15 B 35 B 55 A 75 B 95 C
16 C 36 A 56 A 76 C 96 B
17 B 37 C 57 B 77 A 97 C
18 A 38 A 58 C 78 A 98 B
19 D 39 C 59 C 79 A 99 B
20 C 40 D 60 D 80 B 100 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:15-09-2025
Text of page 2
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engi. Service
(Mechanical)-Exe. Engi. (Mech.), Class-1 and Deputy Exe. Engi.
(Mech.), Class-2 Aptitude
(Advt No. 78/2024-25) Exam Date:27/04/2025 BMX-1
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 100 is declared as
below Series:A
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 21 B 41 C 61 C 81 C
2 B 22 C 42 C 62 A 82 D
3 D 23 B 43 C 63 C 83 C
4 C 24 A 44 B 64 A 84 A
5 A 25 B 45 B 65 B 85 B
6 D 26 C 46 B 66 C 86 B
7 A 27 C 47 C 67 C 87 B
8 D 28 A 48 B 68 A 88 A
9 A 29 A 49 B 69 D 89 B
10 B 30 C 50 B 70 A 90 C
11 C 31 B 51 C 71 C 91 D
12 A 32 C 52 B 72 A 92 A
13 B 33 A 53 C 73 B 93 D
14 C 34 B 54 A 74 B 94 C
15 B 35 B 55 A 75 C 95 B
16 A 36 C 56 A 76 B 96 C
17 C 37 A 57 B 77 C 97 B
18 A 38 A 58 C 78 B 98 A
19 C 39 A 59 C 79 B 99 D
20 D 40 B 60 D 80 C 100 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:15-09-2025
Text of page 3
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engi. Service
(Mechanical)-Exe. Engi. (Mech.), Class-1 and Deputy Exe. Engi.
(Mech.), Class-2 Aptitude
(Advt No. 78/2024-25) Exam Date:27/04/2025 BMX-1
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 100 is declared as
below Series:B
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 B 21 C 41 C 61 B 81 C
2 C 22 C 42 D 62 B 82 A
3 B 23 C 43 C 63 D 83 C
4 A 24 B 44 A 64 C 84 A
5 B 25 B 45 B 65 A 85 B
6 C 26 B 46 B 66 D 86 C
7 C 27 C 47 B 67 A 87 C
8 A 28 B 48 A 68 D 88 A
9 A 29 B 49 B 69 A 89 D
10 C 30 B 50 C 70 B 90 A
11 B 31 C 51 D 71 C 91 C
12 C 32 B 52 A 72 A 92 A
13 A 33 C 53 D 73 B 93 B
14 B 34 A 54 C 74 C 94 B
15 B 35 A 55 B 75 B 95 C
16 C 36 A 56 C 76 A 96 B
17 A 37 B 57 B 77 C 97 C
18 A 38 C 58 A 78 A 98 B
19 A 39 C 59 D 79 C 99 B
20 B 40 D 60 C 80 D 100 C
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:15-09-2025
Text of page 4
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engi. Service
(Mechanical)-Exe. Engi. (Mech.), Class-1 and Deputy Exe. Engi.
(Mech.), Class-2 Aptitude
(Advt No. 78/2024-25) Exam Date:27/04/2025 BMX-1
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 100 is declared as
below Series:C
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 21 B 41 B 61 C 81 C
2 A 22 B 42 C 62 D 82 C
3 C 23 D 43 B 63 C 83 C
4 A 24 C 44 A 64 A 84 B
5 B 25 A 45 B 65 B 85 B
6 C 26 D 46 C 66 B 86 B
7 C 27 A 47 C 67 B 87 C
8 A 28 D 48 A 68 A 88 B
9 D 29 A 49 A 69 B 89 B
10 A 30 B 50 C 70 C 90 B
11 C 31 C 51 B 71 D 91 C
12 A 32 A 52 C 72 A 92 B
13 B 33 B 53 A 73 D 93 C
14 B 34 C 54 B 74 C 94 A
15 C 35 B 55 B 75 B 95 A
16 B 36 A 56 C 76 C 96 A
17 C 37 C 57 A 77 B 97 B
18 B 38 A 58 A 78 A 98 C
19 B 39 C 59 A 79 D 99 C
20 C 40 D 60 B 80 C 100 D
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:15-09-2025
Text of page 5
Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Water Supply and Sewerage Board Engi. Service
(Mechanical)-Exe. Engi. (Mech.), Class-1 and Deputy Exe. Engi.
(Mech.), Class-2 Aptitude
(Advt No. 78/2024-25) Exam Date:27/04/2025 BMX-1
Final Answer Key for Question No. 01- 100 is declared as
below Series:D
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 21 C 41 C 61 B 81 B
2 C 22 D 42 A 62 C 82 B
3 C 23 C 43 C 63 B 83 D
4 B 24 A 44 A 64 A 84 C
5 B 25 B 45 B 65 B 85 A
6 B 26 B 46 C 66 C 86 D
7 C 27 B 47 C 67 C 87 A
8 B 28 A 48 A 68 A 88 D
9 B 29 B 49 D 69 A 89 A
10 B 30 C 50 A 70 C 90 B
11 C 31 D 51 C 71 B 91 C
12 B 32 A 52 A 72 C 92 A
13 C 33 D 53 B 73 A 93 B
14 A 34 C 54 B 74 B 94 C
15 A 35 B 55 C 75 B 95 B
16 A 36 C 56 B 76 C 96 A
17 B 37 B 57 C 77 A 97 C
18 C 38 A 58 B 78 A 98 A
19 C 39 D 59 B 79 A 99 C
20 D 40 C 60 C 80 B 100 D
* Cancelled Question(s) Revised Answer(s) is(are) Highlighted
Gandhinagar Date:15-09-2025Page 1 of 15
Source: Gujarat Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Gujarat Public Service Commission.