HPSC Polytechnic Lecturer 2022: Lecturer (Technical Education) Screening Test, Mechanical Engineering (Advt. No. 11/2021)
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Mechanical Engineering /8- A
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1. The maximum energy that can be 4. 2·5 kW of power is transmitted by an
absorbed up to the elastic limit, open-belt drive. The linear velocity
without creating a permanent of the belt is 2·5 m/s. The angle of
distortion is called lap is such maintained that the
ratio of tension on the tight and
[A] proof resilience slack side is 3. What will be the
initial tension in the belt? [Without
[B] modulus of resilience
considering centrifugal tension]
[C] toughness [A] 500 N
[B] 800 N
[D] flexural rigidity
[C] 1000 N
[D] 1200 N
2. A box is resting on a floor with
coefficient of friction equal to 0·4. At 5. To make a bolt of uniform strength,
what maximum height H, the box be a hole is drilled in the shank part.
pulled if it is to move with uniform If the nominal diameter of the bolt
velocity without overturning? is 12 mm and the core diameter is
0·80 times the nominal diameter,
then radius of the hole is
[A] 3·2 mm
[B] 2·8 mm
[C] 2·4 mm
[D] 3·6 mm
6. In a single degree of freedom under
[A] H = 30 mm damped spring-mass-damper system
as shown in the figure, an additional
[B] H = 60 mm
damper is added in parallel such
[C] H = 75 mm that the system remains under-
damped. Which one of the following
[D] H = 150 mm statements is always true?
3. In a plate clutch, the axial force is
5 kN. The inside diameter of the
contact surface is 150 mm and the
outside diameter is 300 mm. For
uniform pressure, the mean radius
of the friction surface will be
[A] Transmissibility will increase
[A] 116·7 mm
[B] Transmissibility will decrease
[B] 233·3 mm [C] Time period of free oscillations
will increase
[C] 112·5 mm
[D] Time period of free oscillations
[D] 225 mm will decrease
Mechanical Engineering /8- A 2
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7. A gear tooth profile generated 10. It is required to find the pressure
using a curve traced by a point on difference between two horizontal
the circumference of a circle that pipes through which water is flowing
rolls without slipping on a fixed using an inverted manometer. Two
straight line, is known as manometric fluids with specific
gravities 13·6 and 0·8 are available.
[A] epi-cycloid Which manometric fluid is to be
used?
[B] hypo-cycloid
[A] Fluid with specific gravity 13·6
[C] involute
[B] Fluid with specific gravity 0·8
[D] cycloid [C] Both fluids can be used
[D] None can be used
8. A pipeline 20 cm in diameter, 70 m
long conveys oil of specific gravity
0·95 and viscosity 0·23 Ns/m2. If 11. Due to aging of a pipeline, its
the velocity of oil is 1·38 m/s, find carrying capacity has decreased by
the difference in pressure heads 25%. The corresponding increase
between the two ends of the pipe. in the Darcy-Weisbach friction
factor f is
[A] 2·52 m
[A] 63%
[B] 3·75 m
[B] 77%
[C] 1·21 m
[C] 56%
[D] 1·91 m
[D] 86%
9. When the fluid pipes are connected
12. A reversible engine is operating
in parallel, the total loss of head is
with temperature limits of 800 K
and 300 K. If it takes 560 kJ of
[A] equal to the sum of the loss of
heat, then unavailable work should
head in each pipe
be
[B] same as in each pipe [A] 210 kJ
[C] equal to the reciprocal of the [B] 200 kJ
sum of loss of head in each
pipe [C] 175 kJ
[D] None of the above [D] 150 kJ
Mechanical Engineering /8- A 3 [ P.T.O.
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13. The volume V versus temperature 15. In a vapour absorption refrigerator,
T graphs for a certain amount of a the temperatures of evaporator
perfect gas at two pressures P1 and and ambient are 10 °C and 30 °C
P2 are as shown in the figure. It can respectively. If the COP of the
be concluded that system is 2, estimate the generator
temperature.
[A] 90 °C
[B] 85 °C
[C] 80 °C
[D] 75 °C
16. In a CNC machine tool, the
function of an interpolator is to
generate
[A] the pressure P1 is greater
than the pressure P2 [A] reference signal prescribing
the shape of the part to be
[B] the adiabatic index for P1 is
machined
higher than that for P2
[B] error signal for tool radius
[C] P1 represents monoatomic gas compensation during machining
and P2 represents diatomic gas
[C] NC code from the part drawing
[D] P2 represents monoatomic gas during post-processing
and P1 represents diatomic gas
[D] signal for the lubrication pump
during machining
14. 85 kJ of heat is supplied to a
closed system at constant volume.
During the next process, the 17. Assertion (A) : Die-casting yields
system rejects 90 kJ of heat at a product of good accuracy and
constant pressure while 20 kJ of finish.
work is done on it. The system is
Reason (R) : Low melting alloys
brought to the original state by
are used in die-casting.
adiabatic process. The initial
internal energy is 100 kJ. What is [A] Both A and R are individually
the quantity of work transfer true and R is the correct
during the process? explanation of A
[A] 30 kJ [B] Both A and R are individually
true and R is not the correct
[B] 20 kJ explanation of A
[C] 10 kJ [C] A is true but R is false
[D] 15 kJ [D] A is false but R is true
Mechanical Engineering /8- A 4
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18. Which one of the following is the 22. The cutting tool signature as per
correct statement pertaining to ASA is 6° – 11° – 10° – 7° – 10° – 30°
the friction welding process? – 0·5 inch. The difference in side
cutting edge angle and end cutting
[A] Heat affected zone is not formed
edge angle is
[B] Flashes are not produced
[A] 23°
[C] Dissimilar materials cannot
be joined [B] 19°
[D] Melting of the base material(s) [C] 20°
is not involved
[D] 24°
19. Which one of the following
statements related to grinding 23. In orthogonal cutting of a mild-
process is incorrect ? steel component, if rake angle of
tool is 10° and shear angle is 30°,
[A] Grinding wheels made of finer
find the chip reduction coefficient.
abrasive grains produce better
surface finish [A] 0·55
[B] Abrasive grains tend to [B] 0·66
fracture frequently during the
grinding process [C] 0·9
[C] Specific energy in grinding is [D] 0·7
higher than that in turning
[D] Cutting speed in grinding 24. The DC power source for arc
process is much lower than welding has the characteristics as
that in face milling 4V + 2I = 240, where V = voltage
and I = current in amperes. The
20. The size of abrasive grains in an maximum arc power at the electrode
abrasive jet machining ranges from is
[A] 1 to 10 microns [A] 5·2 kW
[B] 10 to 50 microns [B] 1·7 kW
[C] 50 to 100 microns [C] 2 kW
[D] 100 to 500 microns [D] 1·8 kW
21. The solidification time for a
cuboidal block (20 × 15 × 10 cm3) is 25. The amount of time by which an
20 seconds. The solidification time activity can be delayed without
for a sphere of same volume will be affecting project completion time is
[A] 20 sec [A] free float
[B] 33·3 sec [B] total float
[C] 35·1 sec [C] independent float
[D] 21·2 sec [D] activity float
Mechanical Engineering /8- A 5 [ P.T.O.
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26. An organization has decided to 30. A 10 mm diameter electrical
produce a new product. Fixed cost conductor is covered by an
for producing the product is insulation of 2 mm thickness. The
estimated as <1,00,000. Variable conductivity of the insulation is
cost for producing the product is 0·08 W/mK and the convection
coefficient at the insulation
<100. Market survey indicated that
surface is 10 W/m2K. Additions of
the product selling price could be
further insulation of the same
<200. The break-even quantity is material will
[A] 1000 [A] decrease heat loss to a
[B] 2000 maximum and then increase
heat loss
[C] 500
[B] increase heat loss to a
[D] 100 maximum and then decrease
heat loss
27. ABC analysis divides on-hand [C] increase heat loss continuously
inventory into three classes based [D] decrease heat loss continuously
on
[A] unit price 31. Water is being heated from hot
exhaust gases in a shell and tube
[B] the number of units on hand
type heat exchanger. The heat
[C] annual demand capacity of water is 4000 J/K and
heat capacity of gases is 1000 J/K.
[D] annual consumption values
If heat transfer surface area is 20 m2
and overall heat transfer coefficient
28. What precise movement does CMM is 200 W/m2K, the NTU of the heat
have? exchanger is
[A] precise movement in x [A] 4
coordinate only [B] 6
[B] precise movement in x and y [C] 9
coordinates [D] 2
[C] precise movement in y and z
coordinates 32. The specific heat ratio in a parallel
flow heat exchanger is 0·420. The
[D] precise movement in x, y and z
lower capacity rate is 800 W/K and
coordinates
the overall heat transfer coefficient
is given as 800 W/m2K. To get the
29. In a super-critical boiler, the pressure effectiveness of 0·52, what should be
range is the area of heat exchanger?
[A] 50 to 100 kg/cm2 [A] 0·64 m2
[B] 100 to 150 kg/cm2 [B] 0·75 m2
[C] 150 to 200 kg/cm2 [C] 0·85 m2
[D] 225 to 250 kg/cm2 [D] 0·94 m2
Mechanical Engineering /8- A 6
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33. The temperature distribution along 36. The equation v 2 – u 2 = 2as, where v
a pin fin was found to vary with and u are final and initial velocities
distance x as T = 6x2 – 5x + 3, respectively, a is acceleration and s
where x is in meter. Take thermal is displacement, is applicable for
conductivity of fin material as
[A] variable acceleration of a point
0·75 W/mK. The heat transfer from
the base of the fin is [B] constant acceleration of a point
2
[A] 3·75 W/m
[C] constant velocity of a point
[B] 4·01 W/m2
[D] all possible motions of a point
[C] 5·22 W/m2
[D] 6·32 W/m2
37. If the length of a column is tripled,
the critical load becomes
34. A weight of 500 N is supported by
two metallic ropes as shown in 1
[A] of the original value
the figure. The values of tensions 4
T1 and T2 are respectively 1
[B] of the original value
16
1
[C] of the original value
25
1
[D] of the original value
9
38. Virtual work is the work performed
[A] by actual forces
[B] by assuming possible
displacements
[A] 250 3 N and 250 N
[C] in overcoming constraints
[B] 250 3 N and 433 N
[D] by actual displacements
[C] 353·5 N and 250 3 N
[D] 250 3 N and 353 N 39. A body starting from rest moves in
a straight line with its equation of
35. A car moving with uniform motion being s = 2t 3 – 3t 2 + 2t + 1,
acceleration covers 500 m in a where s is the displacement in
5-second interval and covers 800 m metres and t is the time in seconds.
in the next 5-second interval. The Its acceleration after one second is
acceleration in the car is
[A] 3 m/s2
2
[A] 8 m/s
[B] 2 m/s2
[B] 10 m/s2
[C] 50 m/s2 [C] 6 m/s2
[D] 25 m/s2 [D] 12 m/s2
Mechanical Engineering /8- A 7 [ P.T.O.
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40. A cantilever beam is under 43. Match the List—I (Kinematic
uniformly distributed load. The Inversions) with List—II
shear force and bending moment (Applications) :
diagram of the beam will be List—I List—II
respectively
( Kinematic Inversions ) ( Applications )
[A] linear line and parabolic curve
(a) (1) Hand pump
[B] parabolic curve and exponential
curve
[C] parabolic curve and linear line (b) (2) Compressor
[D] parabolic curve and cubic curve
(c) (3) Whitworth
Quick
41. Two shafts are to be connected by
a belt drive. Centre distance Return
Mechanism
between the shafts is 10 m and it
is required that the driven shaft
rotates opposite to the driving
(d) (4) Oscillating
shaft. Which of the following
cylinder
drives will be most appropriate?
engine
[A] Flat belt — open drive
[A] (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-2, (d)-4
[B] V belt — open drive [B] (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4
[C] (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-4, (d)-1
[C] Flat belt — crossed drive
[D] (a)-2, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-1
[D] Belt drive is not suitable
44. If the speed of the engine varies
between 380 r.p.m. and 420 r.p.m.
42. Which one of the following sets of in a cycle of operation, the
acceleration is involved in the coefficient of fluctuation of speed
motion of the piston inside the will be
cylinder of a uniformly rotating
[A] 0·1
cylinder mechanism?
[B] 0·2
[A] Radial and tangential
[C] 0·3
accelerations
[D] 0·4
[B] Coriolis and radial
accelerations 45. For a critically damped system,
the vibratory motion will be
[C] Gyroscopic and tangential [A] zero
accelerations
[B] harmonic
[D] Coriolis and gyroscopic [C] periodic
accelerations
[D] aperiodic
Mechanical Engineering /8- A 8
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46. The mass moments of inertia of two 49. In a plate clutch, axial force is 2 kN.
rotors in a two-rotor system are The inside radius of contact surface
200 kgm2 and 100 kgm2. The is 50 mm and the outside radius is
length of the shaft of uniform 100 mm. For uniform pressure, the
diameter between the rotors is mean radius of friction surface will
105 cm. The distance of node from be nearly
the rotor of lower moment of
[A] 75 mm
inertia is
[B] 78 mm
[A] 70 [C] 80 mm
[D] 25 mm
[B] 80
[C] 90 50. The static deflection of a shaft
under a flywheel is 4 mm, the
critical speed in rad/sec will be
[D] 110
(take g = 10 m/s2)
[A] 50
47. The critical speed of a uniform
[B] 20
shaft with a rotor at the centre of
the span can be reduced by [C] 10
[D] 5
[A] increasing the shaft diameter
51. Which of the following statements
[B] increasing the rotor mass
is correct for ductile materials?
[C] reducing the shaft length [A] They fail by fracture
[B] They do not obey Hooke’s law
[D] reducing the rotor mass
[C] They have a clearly defined
yield point
48. Select the correct statement. [D] Their percentage elongation is
less than the brittle materials
[A] In boundary lubrication, lubricant
is present only at the boundary 52. Decreasing grain size in a
polycrystalline material
[B] In boundary lubrication, there
[A] increases yield strength and
is no lubricant
corrosion resistance
[C] In hydrodynamic lubrication, [B] decreases yield strength and
lubricant is supplied under corrosion resistance
pressure [C] increases yield strength but
decreases corrosion resistance
[D] In hydrostatic lubrication,
lubricant is supplied under [D] decreases yield strength but
pressure increases corrosion resistance
Mechanical Engineering /8- A 9 [ P.T.O.
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53. Normalizing process of heat 56. In a rolling process, the state of
treatment improves stress of the material undergoing
deformation is
[A] hardness
[A] pure shear
[B] strength
[B] pure compression
[C] machinability [C] compression and shear
[D] both strength and machin- [D] tension and shear
ability
57. In the hole and shaft pair designation
54. Find the correct match between of 40 H7/d9, the numbers 7 and 9
List—I (processes) and List—II indicate
(products) : [A] basic size
List—I List—II [B] ease of assembly
( Processes ) ( Products ) [C] accuracy of manufacture
(a) Die-casting 1. Turbine blades [D] tolerance grade
(b) Investment 2. Cast iron pipes
casting 58. Limit gauges are used to
(c) Centrifugal 3. Carburetor body
[A] measure flatness of the
casting
component
(d) Drop forging 4. Turbine rotors
[B] measure exact size of the
5. Connecting rods
component
[A] (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-5
[C] check if the component dimen-
[B] (a)-2, (b)-1, (c)-5, (d)-4 sion lies within permissible
limits
[C] (a)-1, (b)-3, (c)-4, (d)-2
[D] measure surface roughness of
[D] (a)-3, (b)-1, (c)-5, (d)-2 the component
55. The primary purpose of sprue in 59. Which of the following statements
casting mould is to is true ?
[A] A sine bar cannot measure
[A] act as a reservoir
unknown angles
[B] feed the casting at a rate [B] The longer the sine bar, the
consistent with the rate of better the accuracy
solidification
[C] The shorter the sine bar, the
[C] help feed the casting until all better the accuracy
solidifications take place
[D] Accuracy of a sine bar does not
[D] Feed molten metal from the depend on an ambient
pouring basin to the gate temperature
Mechanical Engineering /8- A 10
Text of page 11
60. Cutting tools are provided with 64. In Abrasive Water Jet (AWJ)
large positive rake angle mainly for machining, kerf taper and surface
roughness of machined work-
[A] better heat dissipation
piece are expected to decrease
[B] reducing the magnitude of continuously with increase in
cutting force
[C] increasing the strength of [A] abrasive mass flow rate
cutting edge
[D] avoiding rubbing action with [B] water pressure
the finished surfaces
[C] stand-off distance
61. A milling cutter having 12 teeth is
rotating at 150 r.p.m. If the feed per
tooth is 0·1 mm, the speed in mm [D] traverse rate
per minute is
[A] 120
65. For a completely submerged body
[B] 150 with centre of the gravity G and
[C] 170 centre of the buoyancy B, the
condition of stability is found when
[D] 180
62. Tool life in the case of a grinding [A] G and B are coincident
wheel is the time
[A] taken between two successive [B] G is located below B
wheel dressings
[B] taken for a wear of 1 mm on its [C] G is located above B
diameter
[D] G and B are locationally
[C] taken between two successive
independent
regrinds of the wheel
[D] taken for the wheel to be
balanced
66. The stream function in a two-
63. In Electro-Discharge Machining dimensional flow field is given by
(EDM), if the thermal conductivity ψ = x 2 − y 2 . At point (2, 2) the
of tools is high and the specific magnitude of the velocity will be
heat of workpiece is low, then the
tool wear rate and material
[A] 2 2
removal rate are expected to be
respectively
[B] 4 2
[A] low and high
[B] high and low [C] 4
[C] low and low
[D] high and high [D] 8
Mechanical Engineering /8- A 11 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 12
67. Which is the correct option of the 70. The emissive power of a black body
following statements about steady is P. If its absolute temperature is
incompressible forced vortex flow? doubled, the emissive power becomes
P. Velocity is directly proportional [A] 16P
to the radius from the centre
of the vortex. [B] 8P
Q. Vorticity is zero at all the [C] 4P
points in the flow.
R. Shear stress is zero at all the [D] 2P
points in the flow.
S. Total mechanical energy per
71. For the same inlet and outlet
unit mass is constant in the
temperatures of hot and cold
entire flow field.
fluids, the Log Mean Temperature
[A] P and Q
Difference (LMTD) is
[B] Q and R
[C] P and S [A] greater for parallel flow heat
exchanger than counterflow
[D] Q and S
heat exchanger
68. The predominant forces acting on [B] greater for counterflow heat
an element of fluids in the exchanger than parallel flow
boundary layer over a flat plate in heat exchanger
a uniform parallel stream are [C] dependent on the properties of
[A] viscous and inertial forces the fluids
[B] viscous and pressure forces [D] the same for both parallel
[C] inertial and pressure forces flow and counterflow heat
[D] viscous and body forces exchangers
69. The temperature variation under 72. Which one of the following
steady heat conduction across a configurations has the highest fin
composite slab of two materials effectiveness?
with thermal conductivities k1 and
[A] Thin, widely spaced fins
k2 is shown in the figure. Which one
of the following statements holds? [B] Thick, widely spaced fins
[C] Thick, closely spaced fins
[D] Thin, closely spaced fins
73. The COP of a Carnot heat pump
operating between 27 °C and 77 °C is
[A] 1·42
[A] k1 < k2
[B] k1 = k2 [B] 6
[C] k1 > k2 [C] 7
[D] k1 = 0 [D] 9
Mechanical Engineering /8- A 12
Text of page 13
74. A heat reservoir at 800 K is 78. Round the clock cooling of an apart-
brought into contact with the ment having a load of 300 MJ/day
ambient at 200 K for a short time. requires an air-conditioning plant
During this period 12000 kJ of of capacity about
heat is lost by the heat reservoir.
[A] 1 ton
The total loss in availability due to
this process is [B] 2 tons
[A] 3000 kJ
[C] 5 tons
[B] 6000 kJ
[C] 9000 kJ [D] 10 tons
[D] 15000 kJ
79. An oil separator in a refrigeration
75. In the Rankine cycle, when system is located
superheated steam is used
[A] just before the compressor
[A] steam dryness after expansion
increases [B] just after the condenser
[B] steam consumption increases
[C] between the compressor and
[C] thermal efficiency decreases
the condenser
[D] steam dryness after compression
increases [D] between the evaporator and
the expansion valve
76. Clearance volume of a
reciprocating compressor is 100 ml 80. Factor of safety is the ratio of
and the volume of the cylinder at
bottom dead centre is 1·0 litre. The [A] working stress and ultimate
clearance ratio of the compressor is strength
[A] 1/11 [B] yield strength and endurance
[B] 1/10 strength
[C] 1/9
[C] ultimate strength and yield
[D] 1/1·1 strength
77. A steam of moist air (mass flow [D] yield strength and working
rate = 10·1 kg/s) with humidity stress
ratio of 0·01 kg/kg dry air mixes
with a second stream of
81. Determine torque transmitted on
superheated water vapour flowing
the pinion shaft if torque
at 0·1 kg/s. Assuming proper and
transmitted on gear shaft is 20 Nm.
uniform mixing with no
Consider the gear ratio = 4.
condensation, the humidity ratio of
the final stream (in kg/kg dry air) is [A] 8 Nm
[A] 0·01
[B] 5 Nm
[B] 0·02
[C] 0·03 [C] 80 Nm
[D] 0·04 [D] 16 Nm
Mechanical Engineering /8- A 13 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 14
82. If the radius of a wire stretched by 86. The fatigue life of a part can be
a load is doubled, then its Young’s improved by
modulus will
[A] electroplating
[A] be doubled [B] polishing
[B] be halved [C] coating
[C] be one-fourth [D] shot peening
[D] remain unaffected
87. The binding material used in
cemented carbide cutting tool is
83. Which of the following materials is
[A] graphite
most elastic?
[B] tungsten
[A] Rubber
[C] nickel
[B] Plastic
[D] cobalt
[C] Brass
88. In EDM, the tool is made up of
[D] Steel
[A] copper
84. A boiler shell of 200 cm diameter [B] HSS
and plate thickness of 1·5 cm is [C] cast iron
subjected to an internal pressure
of 1·5 MN/m2, then the hoop stress [D] plain carbon steel
will be
89. A steel bar of 40 mm × 40 mm
[A] 30 MN/m2 square cross-section is subjected
[B] 50 MN/m2 to an axial compressive load of
200 kN. If the length of the bar is 2 m
[C] 100 MN/m2 and E = 200 GPa, the contraction
of the bar will be
[D] 200 MN/m2
[A] 2·70 mm
85. Stress concentration is caused [B] 1·25 mm
due to [C] 4·05 mm
[A] variation in properties of [D] 5·40 mm
material from point to point in
a member 90. Machinability of steel is improved
[B] pitting at points or areas at by the addition of
which loads on a member are [A] sulphur
applied
[B] silicon
[C] abrupt change of section [C] phosphorous
[D] All of the above [D] All of the above
Mechanical Engineering /8- A 14
Text of page 15
91. For a ductile material, toughness 96. Anisotropy in rolled components is
is a measure of caused by
[A] resistance to scratching [A] change in dimension
[B] ability to absorb energy up to [B] scale formation
fracture [C] closure of defects
[C] ability to absorb energy till [D] grain orientation
elastic limit
[D] resistance to indentation 97. A uniformly distributed load of
20 kN/m acts on a simply
92. The process of reheating the supported beam of rectangular
cross-section of width 20 mm and
martensitic steel to reduce its
depth 60 mm. What is the
brittleness without any significant
loss in its hardness is maximum bending stress acting on
the beam of 5 m?
[A] normalizing
[A] 5030 MPa
[B] annealing
[B] 6600 MPa
[C] quenching [C] 5208 MPa
[D] tempering [D] Insufficient data
93. Centrifugally casted products have 98. The horse power transmitted by a
[A] large grain structure with belt is dependent upon
high porosity [A] the tension on tight and slack
[B] fine grain structure with high sides of the belt
density [B] the speed of pulley
[C] fine grain structure with low [C] the radius of pulley
density [D] All of the above
[D] segregation of slug towards
the outer skin of the casting 99. The correct sequence of elements
of 18-4-1 HSS tool is
94. Disposable patterns are made up of [A] W, Cr, V
[A] wood [B] Mo, Cr, V
[B] rubber [C] Cr, Ni, C
[C] metal [D] Cu, Zn, Sn
[D] polystyrene
100. The function of flux in submerged
arc welding is
95. Negative allowance is provided on
the pattern to take care of the [A] to completely cover the welded
zone
[A] distortion allowance
[B] to prevent oxidation of joint
[B] draft allowance
[C] to prevent spattering of molten
[C] machining allowance metal
[D] shake allowance [D] All of the above
Mechanical Engineering /8- A 15 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 16
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
HHH
Mechanical Engineering /8- A 16 LLL22/8—795×4
Text of page 1
Final Answer Key - Mechanical Engineering
Held on 11.06.2022
Series 'A'
Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans
1 A 26 A 51 C 76 C
2 C 27 D 52 A 77 B
3 A 28 D 53 C 78 A
4 C 29 D 54 A 79 C
5 D 30 B 55 D 80 D
6 C 31 A 56 C 81 B
7 D 32 D 57 D 82 D
8 D 33 A 58 C 83 D
9 B 34 A 59 B 84 C
10 B 35 X 60 B 85 D
11 B 36 B 61 D 86 D
12 A 37 D 62 A 87 D
13 A 38 B 63 A 88 A
14 D 39 C 64 B 89 B
15 C 40 A 65 B 90 X
16 A 41 C 66 B 91 B
17 B 42 B 67 C 92 D
18 D 43 D 68 A 93 B
19 D 44 A 69 C 94 D
20 B 45 A 70 A 95 D
21 B 46 A 71 B 96 D
22 C 47 B 72 D 97 C
23 X 48 D 73 C 98 D
24 D 49 B 74 C 99 A
25 B 50 A 75 A 100 D
Text of page 2
Final Answer Key - Mechanical Engineering
Held on 11.06.2022
Series 'B'
Q No. Ans Q No. Ans Q No. Ans Q No. Ans
1 C 26 A 51 D 76 B
2 A 27 D 52 B 77 A
3 C 28 A 53 A 78 C
4 B 29 C 54 D 79 A
5 A 30 A 55 D 80 C
6 C 31 C 56 D 81 A
7 D 32 D 57 B 82 D
8 B 33 C 58 A 83 C
9 D 34 D 59 D 84 D
10 D 35 D 60 A 85 C
11 C 36 B 61 A 86 B
12 D 37 B 62 X 87 B
13 D 38 B 63 B 88 D
14 D 39 A 64 D 89 A
15 A 40 A 65 B 90 A
16 B 41 D 66 C 91 B
17 X 42 C 67 A 92 B
18 B 43 A 68 C 93 B
19 D 44 B 69 B 94 C
20 B 45 D 70 D 95 A
21 D 46 D 71 A 96 C
22 D 47 B 72 A 97 A
23 D 48 B 73 A 98 B
24 C 49 C 74 B 99 D
25 D 50 X 75 D 100 C
Text of page 3
Final Answer Key - Mechanical Engineering
Held on 11.06.2022
Series 'C'
Q No. Ans Q No. Ans Q No. Ans Q No. Ans
1 C 26 A 51 A 76 D
2 A 27 C 52 C 77 D
3 D 28 D 53 D 78 B
4 C 29 B 54 C 79 A
5 D 30 D 55 D 80 D
6 C 31 D 56 D 81 A
7 B 32 C 57 B 82 A
8 B 33 D 58 B 83 X
9 D 34 D 59 B 84 B
10 A 35 D 60 A 85 D
11 A 36 A 61 A 86 B
12 B 37 B 62 D 87 C
13 B 38 X 63 C 88 A
14 B 39 B 64 A 89 C
15 C 40 D 65 B 90 B
16 A 41 B 66 D 91 D
17 C 42 D 67 D 92 A
18 A 43 D 68 B 93 A
19 B 44 D 69 B 94 A
20 D 45 C 70 C 95 B
21 C 46 D 71 X 96 D
22 C 47 A 72 D 97 B
23 A 48 D 73 B 98 A
24 C 49 A 74 A 99 C
25 B 50 C 75 D 100 A
Text of page 4
Final Answer Key - Mechanical Engineering
Held on 11.06.2022
Series 'D'
Q No. Ans Q No. Ans Q No. Ans Q No. Ans
1 A 26 B 51 X 76 C
2 C 27 B 52 B 77 A
3 B 28 C 53 D 78 B
4 D 29 A 54 B 79 D
5 A 30 C 55 D 80 D
6 A 31 A 56 D 81 B
7 A 32 B 57 D 82 B
8 B 33 D 58 C 83 C
9 D 34 C 59 D 84 X
10 B 35 C 60 A 85 D
11 A 36 A 61 D 86 B
12 C 37 C 62 A 87 A
13 A 38 B 63 C 88 D
14 C 39 A 64 A 89 D
15 A 40 C 65 C 90 D
16 D 41 D 66 D 91 B
17 C 42 B 67 C 92 A
18 D 43 D 68 D 93 D
19 C 44 D 69 D 94 A
20 B 45 C 70 B 95 A
21 B 46 D 71 B 96 X
22 D 47 D 72 B 97 B
23 A 48 D 73 A 98 D
24 A 49 A 74 A 99 B
25 B 50 B 75 D 100 CPage 1 of 16
Source: Haryana Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Haryana Public Service Commission.