HPSC Polytechnic Lecturer 2022: Lecturer (Technical Education) Screening Test, Pharmacy (Advt. No. 11/2021)
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Question Booklet No.
QUESTION BOOKLET
PHARMACY
Booklet Series
A
Roll No.
(Enter your Roll number in the above space)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 100
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Pharmacy/17-A
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1. The simplest phenols are liquids or 5. If 5·6 g KOH is dissolved in
low-melting solids and have high distilled water and the volume is
boiling points due to made up to 100 ml with distilled
[A] covalent linkage water, we get a
[B] hydrogen bonding [A] 0·1 N solution
[C] glycosidic bonding [B] 1 N solution
[D] electrophilic linkage [C] 0·01 N solution
2. IR spectra of a sample shows [D] 0·01 M solution
absorption frequencies at 1740 cm–1
and 3600 cm–1. This indicates the 6. Which of the following is the
presence of increasing order of elution of
[A] an amide and carboxylic acid solvents?
in the sample respectively
[A] Toluene < Cyclohexane <
[B] a carbonyl group and phenolic Acetone < Acetonitrile
OH in the sample respectively
[B] Cyclohexane < Acetone <
[C] an amide and substituted Toluene < Acetonitrile
benzene in the sample
respectively [C] Cyclohexane < Acetonitrile <
Toluene < Acetone
[D] an anhydride and carboxylic
acid in the sample respectively [D] Cyclohexane < Toluene <
Acetone < Acetonitrile
3. The IUPAC name of paracetamol is
[A] N-(4-hydroxyacetyl) acetamide 7. How many aldohexoses are
[B] N-(4-phenyl) acetamide possible, if there are 4 chiral
centres in the compound?
[C] N-(4-hydroxyphenyl)
phenylacetamide [A] 4
[D] N-(4-hydroxyphenyl) acetamide [B] 8
4. Match the common developing [C] 16
reagents in TLC with their respective [D] 24
groups they are used to identify :
Developing reagent Group 8. How to prepare 0·1M solution of
(i) Iodine vapour P. Alkaloids HCl?
(ii) 1% ninhydrin Q. Organic bases [A] Dilute 85 ml of hydrochloric
(iii) 2,4-dinitrophenyl R. Amino acids acid to 1000 ml with water
hydrazine [B] Dilute 0·85 ml of hydrochloric
(iv) Dragendorff S. Aldehydes acid to 1000 ml with water
[A] (i)–P, (ii)–Q, (iii)–R, (iv)–S [C] Dilute 8·5 ml of hydrochloric
[B] (i)–Q, (ii)–R, (iii)–S, (iv)–P acid to 100 ml with water
[C] (i)–P, (ii)–R, (iii)–S, (iv)–Q [D] Dilute 8·5 ml of hydrochloric
[D] (i)–Q, (ii)–P, (iii)–R, (iv)–S acid to 1000 ml with water
Pharmacy/17-A 2
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9. KCl reacts with AgNO3 to form 12. Select a water-soluble synthetic
precipitates and conductance of polymer used commonly in
the solution remains same. This is pharmaceutics.
known as [A] Carrageenan
[A] conductometric titration [B] Chitosan
[B] oxidation-reduction reaction [C] Polyacrylamide
[D] Sodium starch glycolate
[C] precipitation conductometric
titration
13. Select the correct assertion from
[D] acid base titration the following.
[A] Hydrophilic colloids are stable
10. Read the following statements and reversible
regarding extraction methods :
[B] Hydrophobic colloids are stable
(i) Maceration is used for extraction and reversible
from hard and tough drugs
[C] Hydrophilic colloids show
(ii) Maceration is used for extraction strong Tyndall effect
from expensive drugs [D] Hydrophobic colloids show
weak Tyndall effect
(iii) Maceration is used for extraction
from gummy substances
14. Which of the following is not true
(iv) Percolation is used for extraction for dendrimers?
from hard and tough drugs
[A] Dendrimers are nano-sized
Which of the following statements molecules
are correct ?
[B] Dendrimers are radially
[A] Statements (i) and (ii) are incorrect symmetric molecules
[B] Statements (i) and (ii) are correct [C] Dendrimers are
heterogeneous
[C] Statements (iii) and (iv) are
[D] Dendrimers are hyperbranched
incorrect
molecules
[D] All Statements are correct
15. Different types of dissolution
apparatus are defined in the
11. Bloom strength is a measure of
United States Pharmacopeia (USP ).
cohesive strength and is used to
Which of the following is not
check the quality of
official in the USP ?
[A] lactose [A] Basket type
[B] gelatin [B] Flow-through cell
[C] agaropectin [C] Paddle over disc
[D] chitosan [D] Reciprocating column
Pharmacy/17-A 3 [ P.T.O.
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16. Which of the following categories 19. A sample of crude drug shows no
is correct according to reaction in Borntrager’s test and
Biopharmaceutics Classification pink colouration in modified
System (BCS)? Borntrager’s test. This shows the
presence of
[A] Class I :
High solubility, high permeability : [A] anthraquinone O-glycosides
generally moderately-absorbed [B] cardenolides
compounds
[C] bufadienolides
[B] Class II :
[D] anthraquinone C-glycosides
Low solubility, high permeability :
exhibits dissolution rate-limited
absorption 20. The given figure shows the DRC of
4 drugs (i.e. A, B, C, D ). Which
[C] Class III : drug is most potent?
Low solubility, low permeability :
very poor oral bioavailability
[D] Class IV :
High solubility, low permeability :
exhibits permeability-limited
absorption
17. Select the specific chemical test
for the phytoconstituents from the
following :
Specific chemical test Phytoconstituents
(i) Murexide test P. Rhein
(ii) Borntrager test Q. Glycyrrhizin
(iiii) Froth formation R. Atropine [A] Drug A is most potent and
most efficacious
(iv) Mayer’s test S. Caffeine
[B] Drug B is most potent and
[A] (i)–S, (ii)–P, (iii)–Q, (iv)–R least efficacious
[B] (i)–P, (ii)–Q, (iii)–R, (iv)–S [C] Drug C is most potent and
[C] (i)–R, (ii)–P, (iii)–Q, (iv)–S most efficacious
[D] (i)–S, (ii)–Q, (iii)–R, (iv)–P [D] Drug D is most potent and less
efficacious than A
18. If 0·8 ml of volatile oil is isolated
21. Which route for regular
from 50 g of fennel, this means yield
formulations cannot bypass the
of volatile oil is
first-pass effect?
[A] 1·6% v/w
[A] Sub-cutaneous
[B] 1·6% v/v [B] Oral
[C] 1·6% w/v [C] Sub-lingual
[D] 1·6% w/w [D] Buccal
Pharmacy/17-A 4
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22. If a person has had corona virus 26. Classification of bacteria on the
infection and has immunity, this is basis of shapes does not include
known as which of the following?
[A] natural immunity [A] Cyano
[B] naturally acquired active [B] Bacilli
immunity
[C] Cocci
[C] naturally acquired passive
immunity
[D] Spirilla
[D] artificially stimulated active
immunity
27. By which method can the following
be sterilized in a tissue culture
23. High plasma protein binding laboratory?
makes the drug to have
Lab component Sterilization method
[A] faster elimination
(i) Laboratory P. Dry heat
[B] prolonged action
(ii) Enzyme solution Q. Moist heat
[C] faster distribution
(iii) Growth media R. Micropore
[D] faster metabolism filtration
24. Which of the following enhances (iv) Glassware S. Fumigation
insulin secretion?
[A] (i)–P, (ii)–Q, (iii)–R, (iv)–S
[A] Glimepiride
[B] (i)–S, (ii)–R, (iii)–Q, (iv)–P
[B] Metformin
[C] (i)–Q, (ii)–S, (iii)–R, (iv)–P
[C] Acarbose
[D] (i)–S, (ii)–P, (iii)–R, (iv)–Q
[D] Bromocriptin
28. _____ is regarded as the ‘‘father’’ of
25. Which of the following is not a biotechnology.
GMO?
[A] Toshio Murashighe
[A] Dolly
[B] Golden Rice [B] Folke K Skoog
[C] BT Brinjal [C] Karole Ereky
[D] CT Corn [D] Gottlieb Haberlandt
Pharmacy/17-A 5 [ P.T.O.
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29. For in-vitro cultivation of 32. The sequence for pharmaco-
microorganisms, which of the vigilance may be summarized by
following is a micronutrient?
[A] detection of adverse event–
[A] Nitrogen separating signal from noise–
signal assessment–
[B] Carbon recommendation for action–
exchange of information
[C] Copper
[B] separating signal from noise–
[D] Phosphate detection of adverse event–
signal assessment–
recommendation for action–
30. Which of the following is correct in exchange of information
increasing order of reliability of
evidence? [C] detection of adverse event–
exchange of information–
[A] Case report < meta-analysis < separating signal from noise–
randomized clinical trial < signal assessment–
randomized double blind recommendation for action
clinical trial
[D] detection of adverse event–
[B] Case report < randomized recommendation for action–
clinical trial < randomized separating signal from noise–
double blind clinical trial < signal assessment– exchange of
meta-analysis information
[C] Randomized clinical trial <
case report < meta-analysis < 33. The Pharmacy Act was enacted in
randomized double blind
clinical trial [A] 1947
[D] Randomized clinical trial < [B] 1948
randomized double blind
clinical trial < case report <
[C] 1949
meta-analysis
[D] 1950
31. In the Drugs and Cosmetics Act
and Rules, which of the following
schedule contains requirement 34. The mean and mode of
and guidelines for clinical trials? 4,2,4,3,2,2,6,7 are
[A] Schedule U [A] 4 and 2 respectively
[B] Schedule X [B] 2 and 4 respectively
[C] Schedule W [C] 3·15 and 2 respectively
[D] Schedule Y [D] 3·75 and 2 respectively
Pharmacy/17-A 6
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35. The full form of CPCSEA is 39. Which of the following nucleophiles
[A] Committee for the Purpose of assists the deprotection of
Culture and Supervision of trimethylsilyl ethers?
Experiments on Animals [A] F –
[B] Committee for the Purpose of
Control and Study of [B] OH–
Experiments on Animals [C] NH2–
[C] Committee for the Purpose of
Control and Supervision of [D] SH–
Experiments on Animals
[D] Committee for the Purpose of 40. In oxidation-reduction titrations,
Control and Supervision of one mole of potassium dichromate
Ethical work on Animals is equivalent to Fe of
[A] 1 mole
36. The first edition of the Indian
Pharmacopoeia was published in [B] 2 moles
independent India in
[C] 4 moles
[A] 1947
[D] 6 moles
[B] 1948
[C] 1955
41. Presence of lipopolysaccharides in
[D] 1950 cell wall is a characteristic of
[A] fungi
37. Human plasma contains about
5 mEq/liter of calcium ions. How [B] algae
many milligrams of calcium chloride
[C] gram +ve bacteria
dihydrate, CaCl2·2H2O (molecular
weight 147 g/mole), are required to [D] gram –ve bacteria
prepare 100 ml of a solution equal
in Ca2+ to human plasma? 42. Two bacteria most useful in
[A] 29·4 genetic engineering are
[B] 73·5 [A] Rhizobium and Azotobacter
[C] 27·56
[B] Rhizobium and Diplococcus
[D] 36·75
[C] Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
38. Which of the following is true for [D] Escherichia and Agrobacterium
any (S)-enantiomer?
[A] It rotates plane-polarized light 43. Bilirubin is synthesized from
to the right
[B] It rotates plane-polarized light [A] lipids
to the left [B] bile
[C] It is a racemic form
[C] WBC
[D] It is the mirror image of the
corresponding (R)-enantiomer [D] RBC
Pharmacy/17-A 7 [ P.T.O.
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44. Maintaining the volume and 48. Identify the antiemetic agent which
composition of body fluids within a is related to neuroleptics.
narrow range is called
[A] Meclizine
[A] rehydration
[B] Prochlorperazine
[B] equilibrium
[C] Tropisetron
[C] homeostasis [D] Nabilone
[D] total body water
49. Which of the following drugs inhibits
peristalsis?
45. Which of the following is an
example of drug that directly [A] Loperamide
inhibits renin?
[B] Bisacodyl
[A] Enalapril
[C] Racecadotril
[B] Captopril [D] Sorbitol
[C] Aliskiren
50. Which of the following statements
[D] Losartan is true about carbamazepine?
[A] It can be used in the treatment
46. Which of the following CCBs has of bipolar disorder, trigeminal
most rapid onset of action after neuralgia and epilepsy
oral administration?
[B] Like phenytoin, it enhances
[A] Felodopine GABA activity at therapeutic
concentrations
[B] Verapamil
[C] It is an enzyme inhibitor
[C] Nifedipine [D] It can cause a mild, but
persistent leukopenia and this
[D] Diltiazem is an indication to stop
treatment
47. Which drug is an analog
prostaglandin E1? 51. TNF- responds primarily to which
of the following?
[A] Misoprostole
[A] Viral infection
[B] De-nol
[B] Gram –ve bacteria
[C] Sucralfate
[C] Gram +ve bacteria
[D] Dinoprostone [D] Tumor growth
Pharmacy/17-A 8
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52. Which of the following cells does/ 57. Lowering of which hormone causes
do not contain DNA? menstruation in menstrual cycle?
[A] An enucleated ovum [A] Estrogen
[B] Hair root [B] Thyroxin
[C] Mature RBCs [C] Progesterone
[D] A mature spermatozoa [D] Follicle stimulating hormone
53. Hemophilia-A occurs due to the 58. Change of state from a gas directly
absence of which clotting factor? to a solid is known as
[A] Factor VIII [A] fusion
[B] Factor VII [B] boiling
[C] Factor IX [C] sublimation
[D] Factor X [D] deposition
54. Most of the carbon dioxide 59. Triple point of water corresponds to
produced in the tissues is [A] 600 N/m2 pressure and 0·0075 °C
transported to the lungs as temperature
[A] carbonates [B] 610 N/m2 pressure and 0·0075 °C
temperature
[B] bicarbonates
[C] 605 N/m2 pressure and 0·0075 °C
[C] dissolved in the blood
temperature
[D] attached to haemoglobin
[D] 610 N/m2 pressure and 0·0070 °C
temperature
55. During tubular reabsorption
process, which ion is reabsorbed in 60. At critical temperature, the
exchange for sodium? surface tension of a liquid is
[A] Potassium [A] zero
[B] Chloride [B] one
[C] Calcium [C] negative
[D] Magnesium [D] maximum
56. A hormone secreted by kidney, 61. Increase in resistance to flow with
that stimulates bone marrow increase in rate of shear is
activity, is called referred to as
[A] renin [A] dilatancy
[B] aldosterone [B] rheopaxy
[C] somatomedin [C] thixotropy
[D] erythropoietin [D] antithixotropy
Pharmacy/17-A 9 [ P.T.O.
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62. What will be the percent 66. The correct sequence of solvents
elimination after 2 biological half- when arranged in increasing order
lives in first-order kinetics? of their polarity is
[A] 50% [A] hexane < chloroform < toluene
< ethyl acetate < methanol <
[B] 55% water
[B] toluene < hexane < ethyl
[C] 65%
acetate < chloroform < water <
methanol
[D] 75%
[C] hexane < toluene < chloroform
< ethyl acetate < methanol <
63. _____ makes an unabsorbable water
complex with tetracycline.
[D] toluene < hexane < chloroform
[A] Lactose < ethyl acetate < water <
methanol
[B] Dicalcium phosphate
[C] Starch 67. Biogenetic precursor for indole
alkaloids is
[D] Gelatine [A] tryptophan
[B] phenylalanine
64. The distinctive signs that identify
certain goods produced or provided [C] tyrosine
by a specific person or enterprise
are known as [D] glycine
[A] copyright 68. Which of the following oils is rich
in alcoholic compounds?
[B] patent
[A] Fennel oil
[C] geographical indications
[B] Chenopodium oil
[D] trademark
[C] Spearmint oil
[D] Coriander oil
65. Which of the following is not
an element of non-verbal
communication? 69. Phenylpropanoids are biosynthesized
through _____ pathway.
[A] Facial expression
[A] acetate-malonate
[B] Eye contact
[B] acetate-mevalonate
[C] Posture [C] polyketide
[D] A speech [D] shikimic acid
Pharmacy/17-A 10
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70. A substance is known as a 74. A patient suffering from vomiting
supercritical fluid when it is due to cancer chemotherapy can
get relief from
[A] above its critical point of
temperature and pressure [A] bromocriptine
[B] below its critical point of [B] cimetidine
temperature and pressure [C] ondansetron
[C] at its critical point of [D] loratadine
temperature and pressure
[D] at room temperature and 75. Thioridazine was withdrawn
atmospheric pressure worldwide as its use causes
[A] constipation
71. The phenomena in which a drug [B] disturbed sleep cycles
blocks the action of another drug
by occupying its receptors without [C] hormonal imbalance
activating them is known as [D] cardiac arrhythmias
[A] partial antagonism
76. Association, commissural and
[B] competitive antagonism projection tracts of axons are
[C] chemical antagonism found in
[A] cerebral grey matter
[D] non-competitive antagonism
[B] cerebral white matter
72. Which of the following classes of [C] basal ganglia
drugs are approved for
[D] epithalamus
symptomatic treatment of memory
disorders?
77. Groups of lymphatic nodules
[A] Calcium channel blockers present in the ileum region of
small intestine are known as
[B] COX inhibitors
[A] Brunner’s glands
[C] Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
[B] mucosa-associated lymphoid
[D] -blockers tissue
[C] Paneth cells
73. A person is to be given digoxin to
treat CHF. Which of the following [D] Peyer’s patches
conditions is to be critically
monitored before giving digoxin to 78. The pH of a buffer system can be
avoid digoxin toxicity? calculated with the
[A] Hypochloremia [A] Stokes equation
[B] Hyponatremia [B] Henderson-Hasselbalch
equation
[C] Hypocalcemia
[C] Michaelis-Menten equation
[D] Hypomagnesemia
[D] Young equation
Pharmacy/17-A 11 [ P.T.O.
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79. According to IP, a substance is 83. Which of the following statements
categorized as ‘sparing soluble’ if regarding HLB value of emulsifiers
its is incorrect?
[A] 40 parts are soluble in 100 [A] Emulsifiers with HLB value of
parts of the given solvent 1·5 to 3·7 have high water
dispersibility
[B] 20 parts are soluble in 100 parts
of the given solvent [B] Emulsifiers with HLB value of
1·5 to 3·7 have low water
[C] 30 parts are soluble in 100 parts dispersibility
of the given solvent
[C] Emulsifiers with HLB value of
[D] 50 parts are soluble in 100 parts 13 to 20 have high water
of the given solvent dispersibility
[D] Emulsifiers with HLB value of
80. Enteric coated tablets can be 9·5 to 10·3 form stable milky
coated with dispersions
[A] hydroxypropyl methyl cellulose
84. Reversible aggregation of droplets
[B] polyethylene glycol
of internal phase is known as
[C] cellulose acetate phthalate
[A] creaming
[D] carboxymethyl cellulose [B] coalescence
[C] flocculation
81. Dissolution rate of a tablet is
calculated with the help of [D] phase separation
[A] Stokes equation
85. Which of the following is a non-
[B] Michaelis-Menten equation ionic surfactant?
[C] Young equation [A] Polyoxyethylene sorbitan
monooleate
[D] Noyes-Whitney equation
[B] Dioctyl sulphosuccinate
82. Non-linear pharmacokinetics can [C] Sodium pareth sulphate
be due to
[D] Dioctadecyldimethyl
(i) Induction of enzymes ammonium bromide
(ii) Active secretion
86. Leakers test, clarity test, pyrogen
Which of the following is a correct test are the common quality
statement? control tests done for
[A] (i) is true and (ii) is false [A] solutions
[B] (i) is false and (ii) is true [B] parenteral products
[C] Both (i) and (ii) are true [C] suppositories
[D] Both (i) and (ii) are false [D] suspensions
Pharmacy/17-A 12
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87. Major symptoms of Ehlers-Danlos 90. Biological activity of 0·05 µf of
syndrome, which is due to cholecalciferol is equivalent to
abnormality in gene for procollagen
are [A] 1 IU of vitamin D
[A] stiff joints which restrict [B] 2 IU of vitamin D
movements and dark, non-
elastic skin that constricts [C] 3 IU of vitamin D
peripheral blood vessels
[D] 0·5 IU of vitamin D
[B] over-flexible joints which
easily get dislocated and
highly elastic skin that easily 91. Neurological manifestation of
get bruises pernicious anemia is due to
[A] taurine
[C] stiff joints and translucent
highly elastic skin
[B] tyrosine
[D] deformed bones and dark, non- [C] xantherunic acid
elastic skin
[D] phenylpyruvic acid
88. Phospholipids are important
constituents of cell membranes 92. Organic substance is salted out
because they have from its aqueous solution if
[A] both polar and non-polar [A] dielectric constant of solution
groups is less than that of pure water
[B] dielectric constant of solution
[B] fatty acids
is more than that of pure
water
[C] phosphoric acid
[C] dielectric constant of solution
[D] glycerol is equal to that of pure water
[D] None of the above
89. Rieske iron-sulphur proteins are
found in _____ of ETC.
93. Milk of magnesia is used as
[A] Complex I
[A] electrolyte
[B] Complex II [B] topical agent
[C] Complex III [C] astringent
[D] Complex IV [D] antacid
Pharmacy/17-A 13 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 14
94. A mixture is having the following 98. During the decarboxylation of
group of compounds. Which is the methylethylmalonic acid in the
correct order, if these compounds presence of brucine, the optically
are arranged in decreasing order of active 2-methylbutyric acid is
the adsorption tendency on a silica formed. The dextrorotatory
column? enantiomer is 10% less than the
levorotatory enantiomer. What is
(i) Acidic
the optical purity of the mixture?
(ii) Esters
[A] 10%
(iii) Carbonyl
[B] 90%
(iv) Alcoholic [C] 80%
(v) Hydrocarbons [D] 20%
[A] (i) > (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (v)
99. Match the classes and the alkaloids
[B] (iv) > (iii) > (i) > (v) > (ii)
given below :
[C] (v) > (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)
Class of Alkaloid Alkaloid
[D] (iii) > (v) > (ii) > (iv) > (i)
(i) Tropane P. Reserpine
(ii) Indole Q. Scopolamine
95. Lag phase, exponential phase,
declined growth phase and (iii) Quinoline R. Codeine
stationary phase are found in
(iv) Phenanthrene S. Cinchonine
[A] suspension culture
[A] (i)–R, (ii)–Q, (iii)–P, (iv)–S
[B] callus culture
[B] (i)–Q, (ii)–P, (iii)–S, (iv)–R
[C] protoplast culture
[C] (i)–S, (ii)–Q, (iii)–R, (iv)–P
[D] hairy root culture
[D] (i)–Q, (ii)–S, (iii)–R, (iv)–P
96. To visualize DNA in gel
electrophoresis _____ dye is used. 100. The following structure is the
basic nucleus of
[A] ethylene bromide
[B] methylene bromide
[C] ethidium bromide
[D] phosphorothioate
97. Good manufacturing practices for
AYUSH drugs are covered under
[A] Schedule M [A] flavone
[B] Schedule U [B] flavanone
[C] Schedule T [C] neoflavone
[D] Schedule Y [D] isoflavone
Pharmacy/17-A 14
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK Pharmacy/17-A 15 [ P.T.O.
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Pharmacy/17-A 16 LLL22/17—123×4
Text of page 1
Final Answer Key - Pharmacy
Held on 12.06.2022
Series 'A'
Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans
1 B 26 A 51 B 76 B
2 B 27 B 52 C 77 D
3 D 28 C 53 A 78 B
4 B 29 C 54 B 79 C
5 B 30 B 55 X 80 C
6 D 31 D 56 D 81 D
7 C 32 A 57 C 82 C
8 D 33 B 58 D 83 A
9 C 34 D 59 B 84 C
10 A 35 C 60 A 85 A
11 B 36 C 61 A 86 B
12 C 37 D 62 D 87 B
13 A 38 D 63 B 88 A
14 C 39 A 64 D 89 C
15 D 40 D 65 D 90 B
16 B 41 D 66 C 91 A
17 A 42 D 67 A 92 A
18 A 43 D 68 D 93 D
19 D 44 C 69 D 94 A
20 D 45 C 70 A 95 A
21 B 46 C 71 B 96 C
22 B 47 A 72 C 97 X
23 B 48 B 73 D 98 A
24 A 49 A 74 C 99 B
25 D 50 A 75 D 100 B
Text of page 2
Final Answer Key - Pharmacy
Held on 12.06.2022
Series 'B'
Q No. Ans Q No. Ans Q No. Ans Q No. Ans
1 A 26 D 51 B 76 D
2 C 27 C 52 D 77 B
3 A 28 A 53 C 78 A
4 B 29 B 54 C 79 A
5 B 30 C 55 D 80 D
6 A 31 A 56 D 81 B
7 C 32 C 57 A 82 D
8 B 33 D 58 D 83 D
9 A 34 B 59 D 84 C
10 A 35 A 60 D 85 A
11 D 36 A 61 D 86 D
12 A 37 D 62 C 87 D
13 A 38 D 63 C 88 A
14 C 39 B 64 C 89 B
15 X 40 B 65 A 90 C
16 A 41 B 66 B 91 D
17 B 42 A 67 A 92 C
18 B 43 D 68 A 93 D
19 B 44 A 69 B 94 B
20 B 45 B 70 C 95 D
21 D 46 C 71 A 96 B
22 B 47 C 72 B 97 C
23 B 48 B 73 X 98 C
24 D 49 D 74 D 99 D
25 C 50 A 75 C 100 C
Text of page 3
Final Answer Key - Pharmacy
Held on 12.06.2022
Series 'C'
Q No. Ans Q No. Ans Q No. Ans Q No. Ans
1 B 26 D 51 A 76 B
2 A 27 C 52 B 77 A
3 A 28 D 53 B 78 D
4 B 29 B 54 B 79 A
5 C 30 D 55 B 80 B
6 A 31 B 56 D 81 C
7 B 32 C 57 B 82 C
8 X 33 C 58 B 83 B
9 D 34 D 59 D 84 D
10 C 35 C 60 C 85 A
11 D 36 A 61 D 86 B
12 B 37 C 62 C 87 D
13 A 38 A 63 A 88 C
14 A 39 B 64 B 89 C
15 D 40 B 65 C 90 D
16 B 41 A 66 A 91 D
17 D 42 C 67 C 92 A
18 D 43 B 68 D 93 D
19 C 44 A 69 B 94 D
20 A 45 A 70 A 95 D
21 D 46 D 71 A 96 D
22 D 47 A 72 D 97 C
23 A 48 A 73 D 98 C
24 B 49 C 74 B 99 C
25 C 50 X 75 B 100 A
Text of page 4
Final Answer Key - Pharmacy
Held on 12.06.2022
Series 'D'
Q No. Ans Q No. Ans Q No. Ans Q No. Ans
1 D 26 C 51 D 76 A
2 D 27 C 52 A 77 A
3 B 28 C 53 B 78 C
4 B 29 A 54 C 79 X
5 B 30 B 55 D 80 A
6 A 31 A 56 C 81 B
7 D 32 A 57 D 82 B
8 A 33 B 58 B 83 B
9 B 34 C 59 D 84 B
10 C 35 A 60 B 85 D
11 C 36 B 61 C 86 B
12 B 37 X 62 C 87 B
13 D 38 D 63 D 88 D
14 A 39 C 64 C 89 C
15 B 40 D 65 A 90 D
16 D 41 B 66 C 91 C
17 C 42 A 67 A 92 A
18 C 43 A 68 B 93 B
19 D 44 D 69 B 94 C
20 D 45 B 70 A 95 A
21 A 46 D 71 C 96 C
22 D 47 D 72 B 97 D
23 D 48 C 73 A 98 B
24 D 49 A 74 A 99 A
25 D 50 D 75 D 100 APage 1 of 16
Source: Haryana Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Haryana Public Service Commission.