KEAM 2025: KEAM B.Pharm entrance (Physics and Chemistry), session 3
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FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 16/2025/OL
Exam:KEAM 2025 BPHARM-3
Date of Test: 29-04-2025
A solution is prepared by adding 4 g of a substance to 46 g of ethanol. What is the mass
1. percentage of the solute?
A ) 8%
B ) 10%
C ) 4%
D ) 6%
E ) 12%
Correct Answer : Option A
2. The order of energy of orbital in the same subshell is
A) E (Na) > E (Li) > E (K)
B) E (Li) > E (Na) > E (K)
C) E (K) > E (Na) > E (Li)
D) E (Li) > E (K) > E (Na)
E) E (Na) > E (K) > E (Li)
Correct Answer : Option B
Which of the following is correct about the stability of half filled and completely filled
subshells?
(i) Relatively small shielding (ii) Larger coulombic repulsion energy
3.
(iii) Smaller exchange energy (iv) Smaller coulombic repulsion energy
(v) Larger exchange energy
A ) (i), (ii) and (iii)
B ) (i), (iii) and (v)
C ) (i), (iv) and (v)
D ) (ii), (iii) and (v)
E ) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Correct Answer : Option C
4. The correct order of ionization enthalpy is
A) C<B<O<N
B) B<O<C<N
C) N<C<O<B
D) B<C<O<N
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E) C<B<O<N
Correct Answer : Option D
5. The increasing order of atomic radii is
A) C<N<O<F
B) F<O<C<N
C) O<F<N<C
D) F<N<O<C
E) F<O<N<C
Correct Answer : Option E
6. Which of the following molecule has expanded octet?
A) BCl
B ) NO
C ) NO
D ) SF
E ) BeH
Correct Answer : Option D
7. Which of the following molecule has 3 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs of electrons?
A) NH
B ) SO
C ) ClF
D ) SF
E) H O
Correct Answer : Option C
8. Which of the following is an extensive property?
A) Molar volume
B ) Internal energy
C ) Temperature
D ) Density
E ) Pressure
Correct Answer : Option B
Which of the following molecule has the highest standard enthalphy change of fusion (
9.
Δ H ) (in kJ mol ) ?
A) H O
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B) CO
C) C H
D ) CCl
E ) NaCl
Correct Answer : Option E
At equilibrium, the concentration of N = 5×10 M, O = 2.8×10 M and NO = 1.4×10
M in a sealed vessel at 800 K. What is the value of Kc for the reaction at same
10. temperature?
N ( ) + O ⇌ 2NO
A) 0.41
B ) 0.14
C ) 0.18
D ) 0.5
E ) 0.28
Correct Answer : Option B
∘
11. Cu( ) + 2Ag( ) ⇌ Cu( ) + 2Ag( ) ( E = 0.295 V, 2.303 RT/F = 0.059 V)
A) 10
B ) 10
C ) 10
D ) 10
E ) 10
Correct Answer:-Question Cancelled
Which of the following compound is used to cover the surface of the metallic object to
12. prevent corrosion?
A ) Phenol
B ) Benzene
C ) Acetone
D ) Bisphenol
E ) Nitrophenol
Correct Answer : Option D
13. Which of the following gas has the lowest solubility in water at 298 K?
A) Argon
B ) Carbon dioxide
C ) Formaldehyde
D ) Methane
E ) Vinyl chloride
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Correct Answer : Option A
In a reaction, 3A → Products, the concentration of ‘A’ decreases from 0.6 mol L to 0.3
14.
mol L in 20 minutes. What is the rate of the reaction during this interval?
A) 0.05 mol L min
B ) 0.005 mol L min
C ) 0.03 mol L min
D ) 0.6 mol L min
E ) 0.003 mol L min
Correct Answer : Option B
The following data were obtained for the reaction , 2NO( ) + O ( ) → 2N O( ) at
different concentrations,
15.
The rate law of this reaction is
A ) Rate = k[NO][O ]
B) Rate = k[NO][O ]
C) Rate = k[NO] [O ]
D) Rate = k[NO] [O ]
E) Rate = k[NO] [O ]
Correct Answer : Option D
Which of the following transition element has both bcc and ccp structures at normal
16. temperature?
A) Titanium
B ) Vanadium
C ) Silver
D ) Chromium
E ) Manganese
Correct Answer : Option E
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17. The most common oxidation states of chromium are
A) +2 and +7
B ) +2 and +3
C ) +1 and +6
D ) +3 and +6
E ) +2 and +4
Correct Answer : Option D
18. What is the magnetic moment of divalent ion with three unpaired electrons?
A) 2.84 BM
B ) 5.92 BM
C ) 3.87 BM
D ) 4.90 BM
E ) 1.73 BM
Correct Answer : Option C
19. The bond angle of Cr-O-Cr bond in dichromate ion is
A) 90°
B ) 126°
C ) 109°
D ) 60°
E ) 120°
Correct Answer : Option B
20. Which of the following transition metal oxide is used in dry battery cells?
A ) ZnO
B ) TiO
C) V O
D ) NiO
E ) MnO
Correct Answer : Option E
21. The first and second ionization enthalpies of lanthanoids are comparable with the element
A) Chromium
B ) Calcium
C ) Germanium
D ) Cesium
E ) Cadmium
Correct Answer : Option B
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22. The percentage of Cr(III) in Ruby is
A) 0.5 to 1 %
B ) 1 to 2 %
C ) 0.1 to 0.4 %
D ) 2 to 3 %
E ) 0.1 to 0.3 %
Correct Answer : Option A
23. Which of the following is an outer orbital complex?
A ) [Co(NH ) ]
B) [Mn(CN) ]
C) [Co(C O ) ]
D) [MnCl ]
E) [Fe(CN) ]
Correct Answer : Option D
24. What is the colour of the complex [Ni(en) ] in water?
A) Pale blue
B ) Purple
C ) Violet
D ) Green
E ) Orange
Correct Answer : Option C
25. Hardness of water is estimated by titration with
A) DMG
B ) cupron
C ) α-nitroso-β-napthol
D ) Na EDTA
E) ethylenediamine
Correct Answer : Option D
26. The formula of Ammonium phosphomolybdate is
A ) (NH ) PO .12MoO
B) (NH ) .12MoO
C) (NH ) PO .12MoO
D) (NH ) PO .12MoO
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E) (NH ) PO .2MoO
Correct Answer : Option A
On complete combustion of 0.96 g of an organic compound gives 0.88 g of carbon dioxide
27. and 0.1 g of water. What is the percentage composition of carbon in the compound?
A) 22%
B ) 18%
C ) 16%
D ) 20%
E ) 25%
Correct Answer : Option E
Which of the following sodium salt of carboxylic acid is used for the preparation of n-
28. hexane by Kolbe’s electrolytic method?
A) CH CH COONa
B ) CH COONa
C ) HCOONa
D ) CH CH CH CH COONa
E ) CH CH CH COONa
Correct Answer : Option E
29. Which of the following oxidizing agent is used for the iodination of methane?
A ) HI
B ) KMnO
C ) K Cr O
D ) HIO
E ) K CrO
Correct Answer : Option D
30. The product obtained on ozonolysis of 3-Ethylpen-2-ene are
A) Methanal and 3-Hexanone
B ) Pentanal and Propanone
C ) Ethanal and Pentan-3-one
D ) Ethanal and 3-Hexanone
E ) Ethanal and Butanone
Correct Answer : Option C
31. The temperature and pressure required for reforming benzene from n-hexane is
A) 473K, 10-20 atm
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B) 773K, 10-20 atm
C ) 523K, 100 atm
D ) 973K , 1-2 atm
E ) 573K, 10-20 atm
Correct Answer : Option B
Methyl fluoride is prepared by heating methyl bromide in the presence of AgF. This
32. reaction is known as
A) Swarts reaction
B ) Finkelstein reaction
C ) Sandmeyer’s reaction
D ) Wurtz reaction
E ) Kolbe’s reaction
Correct Answer : Option A
Benzene diazonium chloride on treatment with reagent ‘X’ gives iodobenzene. The regeant
33. ‘X’ is
A) Cu I
B ) AgI
C) I
D ) HI
E ) KI
Correct Answer : Option E
34. Which of the following is not a chiral molecule?
A) 2-Chlorobutane
B ) 2,3-Dihydroxy propanal
C ) 2-Bromo propionic acid
D ) Butan-2-ol
E ) 2-Bromo-2-methoxypropane
Correct Answer : Option E
The product obtained on the reaction of propanone with CH MgBr followed by hydrolysis
35. is
A) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
B ) Butan-1-ol
C ) Butan-2-ol
D ) 2-Methylpropan-1-ol
E ) 2-Methylpropane
Correct Answer : Option A
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36. The reagent used for the conversion of carboxylic acids to primary alcohols is
A ) PCC
B ) LiAlH / H O
C ) NaNO / HCl
D ) Pd / H
E ) Pt / H
Correct Answer : Option B
The order of acidity of the following compounds is
37. (i) o-Nitrophenol (ii) Phenol (iii) o-Cresol (iv) Ethanol
A ) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv)
B ) (iii) < (i) < (ii) < (iv)
C ) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv)
D ) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i)
E ) (iii) < (ii) < (i) < (iv)
Correct Answer : Option D
When benzene is treated with carbon monoxide and hydrogen chloride in the presence of
38. anhydrous aluminium chloride, benzaldehyde is formed. The reaction is known as
A) Etard reaction
B ) Stephen reaction
C ) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction
D ) Gatterman-Koch reaction
E ) Aldol reaction.
Correct Answer : Option D
39. When C H CHO reacts with the mixture of HNO and H SO at 273-283K gives
A ) o- Nitrobenzaldehyde
B ) m-Nitrobenzaldehyde
C ) p-Nitrobenzaldehyde
D) Toluene
E ) Nitrobenzene
Correct Answer : Option B
Match the following
Compound use
40.
(a) Benzaldehyde (i) food preservative
(b) Methanoic acid (ii) nylon 6,6
(c) Sodium benzoate (iii) perfumary
(d) Hexanedioic acid (iv) Electroplating industry
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A) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
B ) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
C ) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(iv)
D ) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
E ) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
Correct Answer : Option E
The number of moles of alkyl halides required to convert primary amine into quaternary
41. ammonium salt is
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Correct Answer : Option C
The order of boiling point of the following amines is
42.
(i) Butan-1-amine (ii) N-Ethylethanamine (iii) N,N-Dimethylethanamine
A ) (i)> (iii) > (ii)
B ) (i) > (ii) > (iii)
C ) (iii) > (ii)> (i)
D ) (iii) > (i) > (ii)
E ) (ii) > (i) >(iii)
Correct Answer : Option B
An aromatic compound (X) of molecular formula, C H Cl, on ammonolysis gives
43. Y(Molecular formula, C H N) . The compound ‘Y’ reacts with two moles of CH Cl gives
N, N-Dimethylphenylmethanamine. The compounds ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are
A ) Benzylchloride and Aniline
B ) Chlorobenzene and Aniline
C ) Benzylchloride and Benzylamine
D ) Chlorobenzene and Benzylamine
E ) Benzoylchloride and Benzylamine.
Correct Answer : Option C
44. Oxidation of gluconic acid with nitric acid gives
A) n-hexane
B ) fructose
C ) glucose
D ) glyceraldehyde
E ) saccharic acid
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Correct Answer : Option E
45. The carbohydrates are stored in animal body as
A) cellulose
B ) starch
C ) glycogen
D ) amylopectin
E ) amylase
Correct Answer : Option C
46. The dimensions of are (B- Magnetic induction, E-electric field intensity)
A) M L T
B) M L T
C) M L T
D) M L T
E) M L T
Correct Answer : Option D
A hockey player hits a ball with an impulse of 15 Ns. If time of hit is 0.2 s, the average
47. force exerted by the player on the ball is
A) 75 N
B ) 50 N
C ) 15 N
D ) 20 N
E ) 25 N
Correct Answer : Option A
→ ^ ^ ^ m, then the
48. If the position of the particle as a function of time t is r = 8tı + 3t ȷ + 3k
acceleration of the particle is (in ms )
A) 6
B) 3
C) 8
D) 4
E) 5
Correct Answer : Option A
The force acting on the particle of 0.2 kg mass whose displacement is described by the
49. equation x = 3t + 7t m is
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A) 1.0 N
B ) 3.2 N
C ) 6.4 N
D ) 8.6 N
E ) 2.8 N
Correct Answer : Option E
A bullet of 10 g mass is fired at a speed of 50 ms by a gun of 2 kg mass. The recoil
50.
speed of the gun (in ms ) is
A ) 0.3
B ) 0.25
C ) 0.5
D ) 0.75
E ) 1.25
Correct Answer : Option B
51. The work done to lift a 60 kg mass to a height of 5 m from the ground is (g = 10 ms )
A) 3000 J
B ) 750 J
C ) 1250 J
D ) 6000 J
E ) 4500 J
Correct Answer : Option A
52. Energy equivalent of mass 0.5 kg is
A ) 9 × 10 J
B ) 3 × 10 J
C ) 2.5 × 10 J
D ) 6 × 10 J
E ) 4.5 × 10 J
Correct Answer : Option E
Three particles of equal mass lie at distances of 1 cm , 2 cm and 3 cm from the origin.
53. The distance of their centre of mass from the origin is
A) 2 cm
B ) 1 cm
C ) 2.5 cm
D ) 3 cm
E) 6 cm
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Correct Answer : Option A
54. Angular momentum of a particle will not be zero, if the
A) angle between position vector and linear momentum is 0⁰
B ) particle is at the origin
C ) angle between position vector and linear momentum is 90⁰
D ) linear momentum vanishes
E ) angle between position vector and linear momentum is 180⁰
Correct Answer : Option C
55. An astronaut experiences weightlessness in space satellite because
A) the gravitational force is small at that location
B ) both the astronaut and the satellite are in free fall towards earth
C ) of the small gravity in the horizontal direction
D ) of the small gravity in the vertical direction
E ) of the gravitational pull of the moon
Correct Answer : Option B
For smaller deformations, stress is directly proportional to the strain for any material. Then
56. the constant of proportionality is called as its
A) modulus of elasticity
B ) Poisson’s ratio
C ) compressibility
D ) coefficient of deformation
E ) mechanical strength
Correct Answer : Option A
57. Which one of the following principles helps to explain the flow of blood in artery?
A) Magnus effect
B ) Boyle’s law
C ) Pascal’s law
D ) Bernoulli’s principle
E ) Archimedes’ principle
Correct Answer : Option D
An ideal Carnot engine has an efficiency of 40%. The ratio of the temperature of the sink to
58. that of the source is
A) 0.4
B ) 0.6
C ) 0.5
D ) 0.2
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E) 0.3
Correct Answer : Option B
If Q1 and Q2 are respectively, the heat supplied and expelled by a system at a constant
59. temperature, then the work done by the system is
A) Q −Q
B) Q +Q
C)
D)
E)
Correct Answer : Option A
60. For the oscillations of a spring with spring constant k, the false statement is
A) Stiff springs have high value of k
B ) Soft springs have small value of k
C ) The spring constant is independent of the elastic properties of the spring
D ) For smaller oscillations the spring executes simple harmonic motion
E ) The period of oscillations of the spring depends upon the value of k
Correct Answer : Option C
If the amplitude of the wave y = 3sin(3x − 5t) + Acos(3x − 5t
61. ) m is 5 m, the value of A is
A) 3m
B) 2m
C) 1m
D) 5m
E) 4m
Correct Answer : Option E
62. In dielectrics, polarization is the dipole moment per unit
A) area
B ) lectric field
C ) volume
D ) length
E ) charge
Correct Answer : Option C
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The energy density of the electric field 2 Vm in a capacitor C is ( ε ∘ is the permittivity
63.
of free space)
A) 3ε∘
∘
B)
C) 4 ε∘
∘
D)
E) 2ε∘
Correct Answer : Option E
A carbon resistor has a tolerance of 20%. As per the colour codes of resistors, the last
64. band in that resistor is
A) silver
B ) absent
C ) red
D ) gold
E ) blue
Correct Answer : Option B
When a current of 2 A flows through a wire for 2.5 s, the amount of heat liberated is 20
65. J.The resistance of the wire is
A) 4Ω
B) 3Ω
C) 1Ω
D) 2Ω
E) 5Ω
Correct Answer : Option D
The magnetic moment of an electron revolving in an orbit of 0.5 m radius with a velocity
66.
of 8 × 10 ms is(in Am )
A) 3.2 × 10
B ) 0.4 × 10
C ) 6.4 × 10
D ) 1.6 × 10
E ) 0.8 × 10
Correct Answer : Option A
If an electron moves with a velocity v in a magnetic field B, the magnetic force on the
67. electron is maximum when the angle between v and B is
A) 30⁰
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B) 180⁰
C ) 60⁰
D ) 90⁰
E ) 0⁰
Correct Answer : Option D
The flux linked with a coil at any instant is given by ϕ = 5t − 25t − 150 (in SI unit).
68. The emf induced in the coil at t = 2s is
A) +5 V
B ) +3 V
C ) -1 V
D ) -5 V
E ) -3 V
Correct Answer : Option A
If the frequency of an electromagnetic wave is 2 MHz, then the time period of oscillation of
69. the accelerated charge is
A) 2.5 × 10 s
B ) 1 × 10 s
C ) 5 × 10 s
D ) 6 × 10 s
E ) 2 × 10 s
Correct Answer : Option C
70. The eye defect astigmatism can be corrected by using a
A) convex lens
B ) spherical lens
C ) plano-convex lens
D ) concave lens
E ) cylindrical lens
Correct Answer : Option E
71. The intensity of a polarized light can be controlled by a second polarizer from
A) 100% to 0%
B ) 50% to 0%
C ) 25% to 0%
D ) 10% to 0%
E ) 75% to 0%
Correct Answer : Option B
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If a particle is moving with a momentum of 2 × 10 h kgms then the de Broglie
72.
wavelength associated with it (in angstrom) is (where h is Planck’s constant)
A ) 1.5
B ) 2.5
C ) 1.0
D ) 0.5
E ) 0.75
Correct Answer : Option D
73. The angular momentum of the electron revolving in 2 orbit is
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Correct Answer : Option A
74. In the nuclear process, Na → Ne + e + X , then X is
A) neutrino
B ) anti-neutrino
C ) electron
D ) positron
E ) neutron
Correct Answer : Option A
In a semiconductor crystal, the total number of electrons in the outer shell is 4N. At
75. absolute zero, the number of energy states of valence and conduction band are
respectively
A ) 0 and 4N
B ) 4N and 4N
C ) 4N and 0
D ) 8N and 0
E ) 0 and 8N
Correct Answer : Option B
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Source: Commissioner for Entrance Examinations. Question paper published by Commissioner for Entrance Examinations.