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MH SET 2020: 27 December, Paper II, Electronic Science

  • Date: 27 December 2020
  • Paper code: JUN38220
  • Series: A
  • Language: Bilingual
  • 32 pages
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Test Booklet Code & Serial No.
                                                                                                                     A
                                                ELECTRONIC SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator                                                                 Seat No.
1. (Signature) .........................................                                                   (In figures as in Admit Card)
      (Name) ................................................                     Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) .........................................                                                    (In words)

      (Name) ................................................                       OMR Sheet No.
JUN - 38220                                                                                          (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours]                                                                                [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 32                                                    Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
                      Instructions for the Candidates
1.         Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided             1.
           on the top of this page.
2.         This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question
           will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory.     2.
3.         At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
           will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are           3.
           requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as
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           Example : where (C) is the correct response.

                              A        B                 D                                           (C)
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JUN - 38220/II—A




2
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JUN - 38220/II—A
                             Electronic Science
                                     Paper II
Time Allowed : 120 Minutes]                          [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This Paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question
       carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1.   Which of the following is not a semiconductor ?

     (A) Galium Arsenide                       (B) Indium

     (C) Germanium                             (D) Silicon

2.   In the case of N-type semiconductor the energy required to detach fifth electron

     from the donor atom is :

     (A) 0.01 eV                               (B) 0.05 eV

     (C) 0.25 eV                               (D) 0.70 eV

3.   P-side of a semiconductor diode is applied a potential of 0.5 V whereas the

     N-side is applied a potential of –1.0 V. The diode shall :

     (A) Conduct partially                     (B) Not conduct

     (C) Conduct                               (D) Breakdown

4.   A semiconductor is irradiated with light such that carriers are uniformly generated

     throughout its volume. The semiconductor is N-type with ND = 1019/cm3. If

     the excess electron concentration in the steady state is              15/cm2 and if
                                                                  n = 10

     p = 10 µs C minority carrier life time, then what is the generation rate due to
     irradiation ?

     (A) 1020 e-h pairs/cm3/s                  (B) 1014 e-h pairs/cm3/s

     (C) 1010 e-h pairs/cm3/s                  (D) 108 e-h pairs/cm2/s

                                           3                                     [P.T.O.
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5.   Compared to BJT, a JFET has :

     (A) Lower input impedance
     (B) Higher voltage gain
     (C) Higher input impedance and high voltage gain
     (D) Higher input impedance and low voltage gain
6.   In a MOSFET devices, the N-channel type is better than the P-channel type
     in the following respect :
     (A) It has better noise immunity          (B) It is faster
     (C) It is TTL compatible                  (D) It has drive capability
7.   Hydrofluoric acid is preferred in wet etching. Which of the following is/are correct
     for Hydrofluoric acid (HF) ?
     (1) HF does not attack SiO2
     (2) HF attacks SiO2
     (3) HF affects silicon substrate underneath
     (4) HF does not affect silicon substrate underneath
     (A) 1 and 2                               (B) 2 and 3
     (C) 2 and 4                               (D) 1 and 3
8.   In the case of degenerate P-type material which of the following is/are
     correct ?
     (1) Acceptor concentration is very high
     (2) Donor concentration is very high
     (3) The Fermi level lies in the valence band
     (4) The Fermi level lies in the conduction band
     (A) 1 only                                (B) 2 only
     (C) 2 and 4                               (D) 1 and 3

                                           4
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9.   Which solution is used when the silicon water undergoes chemical-mechanical

     polishing ?

     (A) a slurry of very fine SiO2 particles in basic KOH solution

     (B) a slurry of very fine SiO2 particles in a basic NaOH solution

     (C) a slurry of very fine SiO2 solution only

     (D) in a NaOH solution only

10. Match List I with List II :

         List I                                  List II

     (a) Si + O2                           (1)   Wet oxidation

     (b) Si + 2H2O                         (2)   Operates for only few seconds at

                                                 high temperatures

     (c) Ion implantation                  (3)   Dry oxidation

     (d) Rapid thermal processing          (4)   Projected range

     Codes :

         (a)   (b)   (c)   (d)

     (A) (3)   (1)   (2)   (4)

     (B) (1)   (3)   (4)   (2)

     (C) (3)   (1)   (4)   (2)

     (D) (1)   (2)   (4)   (3)

                                       5                                   [P.T.O.
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11. The RC circuit shown in the following figure, is :




    (A) a low pass filter                      (B) a high pass filter

    (C) a band pass filter                     (D) a band reject filter

12. If the transfer function of the following network is

                                 Vo ( s)     1   ,
                                 Vi ( s)   2 SCR




    then the value the Load Resistor RL is :

    (A) R/4                                    (B) R/2

    (C) R                                      (D) 2R

                                           6
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13. Superposition theorem is essentially based on the concept of :

    (A) Duality                              (B) Linearity

    (C) Reciprocity                          (D) Non-linearity

14. A source of angular frequency 1 radian/second has a source impedance consisting

    of 1    resistance in series with 1 H inductance. The load that will obtain the

    max power transfer is :

    (A) 1     resistance

    (B) 1     resistance in parallel with 1 H inductance

    (C) 1     resistance in series with 1 F capacitor

    (D) 1     resistance in parallel with 1 F capacitor

15. A DC voltage source is connected across a series RLC circuit. Under steady

    state conditions, the applied DC voltage drops entirely across the :

    (A) C only                               (B) L only

    (C) R only                               (D) R and L combinations

16. Consider a DC voltage source VS connected to a series RC circuit. When the

    steady state reaches, the ratio of the energy stored in the capacitor to the total

    energy supplied by the voltage source is equal to :

    (A) 0.322                                (B) 0.632

    (C) 0.500                                (D) 1.000

                                         7                                     [P.T.O.
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17. Convolution of :

                              x(n)   (1, 2, 1) and h(n)   {1, 2, 1}

    will be :

    (A) {1, 4, 4, 1, –1}                         (B) {1, 1, 4, 4, –1}

    (C) {1, –1, 1, 4, 4}                         (D) {4, 4, 1, 1}

18. z-transform of x(n – n0) is :

    (A) z – n0 X (2)                             (B)   z n0 X (2)

    (C) X ( z 20)                                (D)   z n . X(2)

19. Image impedances of port 1 and port 2 of symmetrical two-port network

    is :

    (A) Zero                                     (B) Infinite

    (C) Equal                                    (D) Not equal

20. Laplace transform of parabolic function is :

    (A) 2/s                                      (B) 1/s2

    (C) 1/s3                                     (D) 2/s3

21. Which of the following does not adopt any feedback ?

    (A) Phase shift oscillator

    (B) UJT relaxation oscillator

    (C) Wein-Bridge oscillator

    (D) Colpit’s oscillator

                                             8
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22. Estimate VGS in the following circuit :




    (A) 1.5 V                                 (B) 4.9 V
    (C) 3.5 V                                 (D) 2.9 V
23. In LM 317 minimum value of voltage required between its input and output
    for proper functioning is :
    (A) 3 V                                   (B) 1 V
    (C) 5 V                                   (D) 10 V
24. Gain bandwidth product of an amplifier after inclusion of negative feedback :
    (A) Decreases                             (B) Increases
    (C) Remains constant                      (D) Becomes zero
25. Bridge rectifier is an alternative to :
    (A) Full wave rectifier                   (B) Half wave rectifier
    (C) Voltage regulator                     (D)   -section filter
26. Which of the following holds good for a phase locked loop ?
    (A) Lock range < capture range
    (B) Lock range > capture range
    (C) VCO frequency > input frequency during lock
    (D) VCO input voltage is zero during lock

                                        9                                       [P.T.O.
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27. Which of the following can be used as a substitute for analog to digital
    conversion ?

    (A) Frequency to voltage convertor      (B) Astable multivibrator

    (C) Voltage to frequency convertor      (D) Voltage regulator

28. Starting from AC mains towards load, identify the correct sequence of building
    block of a regulated power supply :

    (A) Rectifier, Regulator, Filter, Transformer

    (B) Transformer, Filter, Regulator, Rectifier

    (C) Transformer, Rectifier, Filter, Regulator

    (D) Regulator, Transformer, Rectifier, Filter

29. Match the pairs between List I and List II :

         List I                                   List II

    (a) Negative feedback                   (1)   Comparator with controlled

                                                  hysteresis

    (b) Bipolar junction transistor         (2)   Increased stability

    (c) Operational amplifier               (3)   Current controlled current

                                                  amplifier

    (d) Schmitt Trigger                     (4)   High open loop gain

    Codes :

         (a)   (b)   (c)   (d)

    (A) (2)    (3)   (1)   (4)

    (B) (3)    (1)   (2)   (4)

    (C) (2)    (3)   (4)   (1)

    (D) (1)    (2)   (3)   (4)
                                       10
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30. Assertion (A) :

    Current gain of a Darlington pair is much higher compared to that of individual
    transistor.

    Reason (R) :

    Input impedance is high due to negative feedback.

    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

    (C) (A) is true but (R) is false

    (D) (A) is false and (R) is true

31. A demultiplexer is called a data distributor because :

    (A) The input is distributed to one of the outputs

    (B) One of the inputs is selected for the output

    (C) The output is distributed to one of the inputs

    (D) The output is buffered

32. A 4-bit synchronous counter uses flip-flops with propagation delay of 15 ns.
    The maximum possible time required for change of state will be ......................
    and that in case of asynchronous counter will be :

    (A) 45 ns and 60 ns                        (B) 60 ns and 15 ns

    (C) 15 ns and 60 ns                        (D) 30 ns and 15 ns

33. The state diagram for a JKFF consists of :

    (A) One state                              (B) Two states

    (C) Three states                           (D) Four states

                                          11                                     [P.T.O.
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34. The following HDL statement will implement :

    assign Y = (A & & S)    (B & & S).

    (A) 4-bit Encoder                         (B) 4-bit Decoder

    (C) 2 : 1 Multiplexer                     (D) 1 : 2 DEMUX

35. The minimum number of bits of ADC required to monitor the temperature in

    the range 0 – 100ºC with resolution of 1ºC and the corresponding output at
    25ºC will be :

    (A) 8-bits and 0100 0000                  (B) 6-bits and 110 000

    (C) 12-bits and 0000 1010 1111            (D) 10-bits and 10001 01000

36. An amount of memory required to store a 256 gray shade monochrome image
    with 512 × 512 resolution will be :

    (A) 256 K bytes                           (B) 512 K bytes

    (C) 1 M bytes                             (D) 64 K bytes

37. In a data transmission system, the set of possible symbols is :

    {lower-case alphabet}   {upper-case alphabet}      {space, comma, full stop, end
    of transmission}

    Where     denotes the union of two sets. How many bits of information will

    be required for the symbols ? And how much time will be required to transmit

    “Department of Electronic Sciences” at 9600 baud ?

    (A) 7-bits and 33 ms                      (B) 6-bits and 40 ms

    (C) 7-bits and 40 ms                      (D) 8-bits and 30 ms

                                         12
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38. In terms of increasing speeds the ADCs can be listed as :

    (A) Successive approximation, dual slope, flash

    (B) Dual slope, successive approximation, flash

    (C) Dual slope, flash, successive approximation

    (D) Flash, dual slope, successive approximation

39. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes

    given below it :

        List I                                   List II

    (a) SRAM                               (1)   Floating gate MOSFET

    (b) DRAM                               (2)   Flip-Flop

    (c) Flash Memory                       (3)   Magnetic

    (d) Hard Disk                          (4)   MOSFET

    Codes :

        (a)   (b)   (c)   (d)

    (A) (1)   (2)   (3)   (4)

    (B) (2)   (4)   (3)   (1)

    (C) (2)   (4)   (1)   (3)

    (D) (4)   (1)   (2)   (3)

                                      13                                [P.T.O.
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40. Assertion (A) :

    Multiplexer can be used as a configurable logic block.

    Reason (R) :

    Multiplexer acts a Boolean processor.

    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

    (C) (A) is true but (R) is false

    (D) (A) is false and (R) is true

41. The maximum and the minimum size of a segment in 8086 is :

    (A) 64 K, 16 bytes                      (B) 32 K, 256 bytes

    (C) 16 K, 16 bytes                      (D) 64 K, 256 bytes

42. 8051 has 8 bit data bus, but it can generate 16 bit addresses using :

    (A) IO/M                                (B) ALE

    (C) R/W                                 (D)   EA
43. Which of the following represents indexed addressing ?

    (A) MOVC A, @ + DPTR                    (B) AJMP addr.

    (C) SET B 07H                           (D) MOV A, 47H

44. The alternate function of 8051 port 2 is :

    (A) Input/output data (D0 – D7)

    (B) Sending higher order address (A8 – A15)

    (C) Sending lower order address (A0 – A7)

    (D) Serial input/output

                                       14
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45. Bus arbitration, Bus Request and Bus Grant are terms used in :

     (A) Serial communication                   (B) Memory map design

     (C) Direct memory access                   (D) Address/Data Multiplexing

46. The timer 0 of 8051 with 1 MHz clock can generate maximum delay of ..................
     with resolution ................ .

     (A) 64 ms, 1 µs                            (B) 64 µs, 1 ms

     (C) 32 µs, 100 ms                          (D) 256 ms, 1 µs

47. When two BCD numbers are added, the answer is a non-BCD number. To convert
     it in BCD form the instruction used is :

     (A) SUBB A, # data                         (B) XCH A, Rn

     (C) ADD A, Rn                              (D) DA A

48. Arrange the sequence of 8086 interrupts as per the priority assigned, from lowest
     to highest :

     (1) Single step

     (2) INTR

     (3) NMI

     (4) Divide error, Int n , INTO

     (A) (2)    (3)    (4)   (1)

     (B) (1)    (2)    (3)   (4)

     (C) (3)    (2)    (1)   (4)

     (D) (1)    (3)    (2)   (4)

                                           15                                    [P.T.O.
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49. Match List I with List II :

              List I                                List II

        (Instruction)                         (Addressing Mode)

    (a) DJNZ, R3, 100p                        (1)   Implied

    (b) ADD R4                                (2)   Direct

    (c) LCALL 2020                            (3)   Register

    (d) SWAP                                  (4)   Relative

    Codes :

        (a)   (b)   (c)   (d)

    (A) (4)   (2)   (3)   (1)

    (B) (4)   (3)   (2)   (1)

    (C) (4)   (1)   (2)   (3)

    (D) (3)   (4)   (1)   (2)

50. Assertion (A) :

    High data rate can be handled by reducing the interrupt overheads.

    Reason (R) :

    DMA is fast data transfer process.

    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

    (C) (A) is true but (R) is false

    (D) (A) is false but (R) is true

                                         16
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51. ................... cannot be fabricated on an IC.

      (A) Transistors                             (B) Diodes

      (C) Resistors                               (D) Large inductors and transformers




52.




      Gate oxide layer consists of :

      (A) SiO2 layer, overlaid with a few layers of an oxynitrided oxide

      (B) Only SiO2 layer

      (C) SiO2 layer with polysilicon layer

      (D) SiO2 layer and stack of epitaxial layer of polysilicon

53. X-ray diffraction patterns are used for studying crystal structure of solids

      because :

      (A) X-rays have high energy and hence they can penetrate through solids

      (B) X-rays are electromagnetic radiation, therefore they do not interact with

          matter

      (C) X-ray wavelengths are comparable to inter-atomic distance

      (D) High frequency of X-rays allows quick analysis

                                             17                                 [P.T.O.
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54. In the CMOS stick diagrams the n and p transistors are separated by :

    (A) Thick black line                    (B) Dotted blue line

    (C) Thick yellow line                   (D) Dotted brown line

55. For CMOS circuits which of the following is true ?

    (A) There is low power consumption during high speed switching

    (B) There is high power consumption in static condition

    (C) There is negligible power consumption during dynamic condition

    (D) The dynamic power consumption increases with increasing frequency of
        operation

56. Which equation is correct for a digital gate with symbols carrying usual
    meaning ?

    (A) VNL = V1L(Max) + V0L(Max)           (B) VNH = V0H(Min) + V1H(Min)

    (C) VNL = V0H(Min) – V1H(Min)           (D) VNH = V0H(Min) – V1H(Min)

57. Assertion (A) :

    Shallow Trench Isolation (STI) prevents electrical current leakage between
    adjacent semiconductor devices.

    Reason (R) :

    STI process involves etching a pattern of trenches in silicon and filling them
    with insulating SiO2.

    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation
        of (A)

    (C) (A) is true but (R) is false

    (D) (A) and (R) both are false
                                       18
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58. Match List I with List II :

        List I                                     List II

    (a) ion implantation                     (1)   interconnect between devices

    (b) etching                              (2)   insulating dielectric layer

    (c) oxidation                            (3)   removal of unwanted material

    (d) metallization                        (4)   low temperature impurity insertion

    Codes :

        (a)   (b)   (c)   (d)

    (A) (1)   (2)   (3)   (4)

    (B) (4)   (3)   (2)   (1)

    (C) (4)   (2)   (1)   (3)

    (D) (2)   (3)   (4)   (1)

59. ‘Register Transfer Level’ means :

    (A) A structure that deals with only behavioural constructs

    (B) A structure that combines both behavioural and data flow constructs and

        can be acceptable by logic synthesis tools

    (C) A structure that deals with only data flow constructs

    (D) A structure that defines transfer of register from one region to the other

                                        19                                       [P.T.O.
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60. IIR filters are :

     (A) Recursive where present output depends on present and past inputs and
           output samples only

     (B) Non-recursive where present output depends on present and past input
           samples only

     (C) Recursive where present output depends on present and past input samples
           only

     (D) Non-recursive where present output depends on present and past inputs
           and output samples only

61. ECG is recorded with the help of :

     (A) Non-contact probes                    (B) Surface metal electrodes

     (C) Penetrating metal electrodes          (D) Optical electrodes

62. The stub length on single stub matching cancels :

     (A) Susceptance                           (B) Permeability

     (C) Conductance                           (D) Inductance

63. The principle mode of propagation in co-axial line is ................. mode.

     (A) TE                                    (B) TM

     (C) TEM                                   (D) TE 11

64. The distance around one cycle of Smith chart is :

     (A)                                       (B)   /4

     (C)    /2                                 (D)   /8

                                          20
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65. The value of directivity of isotropic antenna is :

    (A) 1                                   (B) 0

    (C)                                     (D) 0.5

66. A transmission line has a VSWR of 2, the reflection coefficient is equal to :

    (A) 1/3                                 (B) 0

    (C) 1/4                                 (D) 1/2

67. In a microwave system, wave guides has the advantage of :

    (A) Positive phase shift

    (B) High power handing capability and low loss

    (C) Thin dielectric substrate

    (D) Coupling with co-axial wave guides

68. Arrange the following S-parameters of E-plane in increasing order of value :

    (a) S12                                 (b)   S13

    (c) S23                                 (d) S33

    (A) (d), (c), (a), (b)

    (B) (d), (a), (b), (c)

    (C) (a), (d), (c), (b)

    (D) (c), (d), (a), (b)

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69. Match the following List I and List II :

                                      List I

    (a) Directivity (D)

    (b) Antenna Efficiency (n)

    (c) Fraunhofer Region (R)

    (d) The effective area of an antenna (Ae)

                                      List II
            2
                G
    (1)                                      (2)    2D2 /
           4

                                                   Max Radiation Intensity

           Radiated Power                          of Single Antenna
    (3)   Total Input Power                  (4)   Radiation Intensity of an
                                                   Isotropic Antenna

    Codes :
          (a)       (b)   (c)   (d)
    (A) (2)         (3)   (4)   (1)
    (B) (1)         (2)   (4)   (3)
    (C) (4)         (3)   (2)   (1)
    (D) (2)         (3)   (1)   (4)
70. Delay line cancellor in RADAR :
    (A) Improves SNR
    (B) Rejects stationary clutter at zero frequency
    (C) Corresponds to amplifier echo

    (D) Is frequency domain filter

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71. Protocol used to link devices in IOT is :

    (A) TCP/IP                                 (B) I 2 C

    (C) SPI                                    (D) UDP

72. Cyclic redundancy check and hamming code works on data of ................. and
    ............ respectively.

    (A) 8-bit size, any size                   (B) fixed size, any size

    (C) any size, fixed size                   (D) 2-bit size, any size

73. In source coding theorem if, discrete memoryless source of entropy H(S) and
    average code-word length L , the source coding theorem has ............... following
    relation.

    (A) L       H(S)                           (B)   L     H(S)

    (C) L       log H(S)                       (D)   L     log H(S)

74. Cloud computing corresponds to :

    (A) Analysis of metrological data

    (B) Agglomeration of computing and storage resources

    (C) Localised high performance computing

    (D) Mobile data management

75. In the vestigial sideband amplitude modulation (AM-VSB), the transmitted signal
    has a bandwidth of ..............., where B is bandwidth of original analog signal.

    (A) B –                                    (B) B +

    (C) B ±                                    (D) B ± 2

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76. Differential pulse coded modulation exploits the ................. between samples to

     ............... encoding rate.

     (A) autocorrelation, decrease              (B) correlation, increase

     (C) autocorrelation, increase              (D) correlation, decrease

77. The size of IPv6 address is :

     (A) 32 bit                                 (B) 64 bit

     (C) 128 bit                                (D) 256 bit

78. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using codes given

     below :

          List I                                      List II

     (a) Error signal                           (1)   Modulated signal

     (b) Control signal                         (2)   Phase detector

     (c) Output signal                          (3)   Loop filter

     (d) Input signal                           (4)   Voltage controlled oscillator

     Codes :

          (a)   (b)    (c)   (d)

     (A) (2)    (4)    (3)   (1)

     (B) (4)    (3)    (1)   (2)

     (C) (2)    (3)    (4)   (1)

     (D) (4)    (1)    (3)   (2)

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79. The main difference between Amplitude modulation and Frequency modulation
    is that :
    (a) Carrier frequency is higher than base band frequency
    (b) Frequency modulation has limited bandwidth
    (c) Frequency modulation has unlimited bandwidth
    (d) Intermediate frequency stage is found in frequency demodulator circuit
    (A) (a) and (c)                         (B) (c) and (d)
    (C) (b) and (d)                         (D) (c) only
80. A spectrum analyser is an instrument used for :
    (A) Visualising time variation of a waveform
    (B) Identifying dominant frequencies and harmonics
    (C) Introducing noise floor
    (D) Determination of impedance of an element
81. When checking a good SCR with an ohmmeter it will :
    (A) Show low resistance with positive on anode and negative on cathode and
        high resistance when reversed
    (B) Show low resistance in both directions
    (C) Show high resistance in both directions
    (D) Show high resistance with positive on anode and negative on cathode, and
        low resistance when reversed
82. UJT is often used in power controlling circuits because of :
    (A) Excellent triggering properties
    (B) High power dissipation
    (C) Large breakdown voltage
    (D) Capable of supplying high current for triggering

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83. Weight of SMPS based 12 volts adopters much lower as compared to conventional
    adopter because SMPS uses :

    (A) Ferrite transformers                 (B) Power MOSFETS

    (C) Rectifiers in the first stage        (D) High frequency step-down

84. The advantage of on-line UPS over off-line UPS is that :

    (A) Give true sine wave

    (B) There is no phase change of output during mains failure

    (C) They can provide high power and long duration

    (D) Efficiency of conversion is very high

85. Match the following for on-state resistance for the device in milliohms :

        Set I                                      Set II

    (a) Diode                                (1)   0.25

    (b) BJT                                  (2)   0.16

    (c) SCR                                  (3)   3.5

    (d) Triac                                (4)   4.0

    Codes :

        (a)   (b)   (c)   (d)

    (A) (2)   (4)   (1)   (3)

    (B) (3)   (4)   (1)   (2)

    (C) (4)   (2)   (3)   (1)

    (D) (1)   (2)   (4)   (3)

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Directions 86 to 89 :




    The shifting of the operating wavelength to the 1.3 µm range has another
    important advantage. The corresponding loss is much smaller. Fig. above shows
    the loss spectrum for a typical optical fibre and as can be seen the losses at
     0 ~ 1.3 µm are ~ 1 dB/km which is smaller by a factor of about 3 when compared
    with losses at 0 ~ 0.8 µm. Optical communication systems around 1981 used
    graded index multimode fibres with 1.3 µm sources; typical sources used were
    InGaAsP/InP LEDs (      0    25 nm) and laser diodes (      0     2 nm) with Ge
    APDs as detectors. The losses in the fibres were ~ 1 dB/km. These systems
    are usually said to belong to second generation optical communication systems.
    In a typical operating system the repeater spacing was 30 km and the bit rate
    was ~ 45 Mbit/s. Thus, in comparison to first generation systems, the repeater
    spacing was increased by a factor of about 2.5 which was primarily due to the
    decrease in pulse dispersion as well as in the losses in optical fibres.

    As shown above by operating at 1.3 µm wavelength, material dispersion has
    become extremely small and therefore the information-carrying capacity is limited
    by intermodal dispersion. This intermodal dispersion can be totally eliminated
    by using single mode fibres where only one guided mode is possible.

    This will be discussed in the following section.

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86. Emission wavelength of InGaAsP/InP device is :

    (A) 25 nm                                (B) 2 nm

    (C) 1.3 µm                               (D) 0.8 µm

87. Importance of 1.3 µm range in optical communication arises to the fact that
    the :

    (A) attenuation is lowest

    (B) bandwidth is highest

    (C) components are easily available

    (D) impurities have no effect in transmission

88. The primary reason for shifting characteristic of optical fiber at
    1550 nm to 1300 nm is :

    (A) to increase mechanical strength of fiber for 1300 nm operation

    (B) to obtain low attenuation at 1300 nm

    (C) to make use high quality laser diodes

    (D) to reduce the disportion problems at 1300 nm

89. Intramodal dispersion is not a limiting factor in the following spectral region
    for a silica fiber :

    (A) 0.85 µm                              (B) 0.13 µm

    (C) 0.14 µm                              (D) 0.15 µm

90. The size of functional elements in MEMS is of the order of :

    (A) 1×106 m                              (B) 1×10–3 m

    (C) 1×10–6 m                             (D) 1×10–9 m

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91. Force exerted by magnetic field in Hall effect transducer is :

    (A) Lorentz force                       (B) Hall effect
    (C) Magnetic force                      (D) Electric force
92. The bridge balance equation can be written in :
    (A) Impedance form                      (B) Resistance form
    (C) Conductance form                    (D) Admittance form
93. Following is the most accurate temperature transducer :
    (A) Thermistor                          (B) Thermocouple
    (C) Radiation thermometer               (D) Bimetal strips
94. Lissajous figure corresponding to phase difference of 3 /4 is :



    (A)                                     (B)




    (C)                                     (D)


95. The best suited flow-meter to handle corrosive liquids is :
    (A) Displacement flow-meter             (B) Piston type flow-meter
    (C) Turbine flow-meter                  (D) Magnetic flow-meter
96. Characteristic equation in a control system is a relation formed by :
    (A) Equating to zero the denominator of transfer function
    (B) Equating to zero the numerator of transfer function
    (C) Equating numerator to denominator of transfer function

    (D) Equation both numerator and denominator to zero of the transfer function

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97. The frequency that would occur for two complex poles if the damping were

    equal to zero is called :

    (A) Forced damping frequency          (B) Critical damping frequency

    (C) Natural frequency                 (D) Conditional frequency

98. For the following ladder network :




    its block diagram is :



    (A)




    (B)




    (C)




    (D)



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99. The transfer function of the following differentiating circuit is :




             R2 (R1Cs + 1)                             R1 (R 2Cs + 1)
    (A) –         R1                         (B)   –
                                                             R2

           R1R 2 (Cs + 1)                          R 2 (R1Cs – 1)
    (C)          R1                          (D)         R1

100. Assertion (A) :

    Many of the linear control system transfer functions do not have poles or zeroes

    in the right half s-plane.

    Reason (R) :

    These are called minimum phase transfer functions.

    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation

          of (A)

    (C) (A) is true, (R) is false

    (D) (A) is false, (R) is true

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ROUGH WORK




    32
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Source: Savitribai Phule Pune University. Question paper published by Savitribai Phule Pune University.