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MH SET 2020: 27 December, Paper II, Law

  • Date: 27 December 2020
  • Paper code: JUN60220
  • Series: A
  • Language: Bilingual
  • 24 pages
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Test Booklet Code & Serial No.
                                                                                                                     A
                                                                           LAW
Signature and Name of Invigilator                                                                 Seat No.
1. (Signature) .........................................                                                   (In figures as in Admit Card)
      (Name) ................................................                     Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) .........................................                                                    (In words)

      (Name) ................................................                       OMR Sheet No.
JUN - 60220                                                                                          (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours]                                                                                [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24                                                    Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
                      Instructions for the Candidates
1.         Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided             1.
           on the top of this page.
2.         This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question
           will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory.     2.
3.         At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
           will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are           3.
           requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as
           follows :
           (i)      To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
                    paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept               (i)
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                                                                                           (iii)
                    should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4.         Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
           (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on        4.                      (A), (B), (C)    (D)
           the correct response against each item.
           Example : where (C) is the correct response.

                              A        B                 D                                           (C)
5.         Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR                                      A         B              D
           Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place
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           any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
                                                                                   8.
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           means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9.         You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
           end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with          9.
           you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
           to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
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                                                                                   10.
10.        Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
                                                                                   11.
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12.        There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.                     12.
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JUN - 60220/II—A




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JUN - 60220/II—A
                                        Law
                                      Paper II
Time Allowed : 120 Minutes]                          [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This Paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question
       carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1.   Who propounded ‘Minimum content             3.   Who propounded the theory of Pain
                                                      and Pleasure ?
     theory of natural law’ ?
                                                      (A) Jeremy Bentham
     (A) H. L. A. Hart
                                                      (B) Austin
     (B) Lon Fuller                                   (C) Kant

     (C) John Finnis                                  (D) Finnis

                                                 4.   Which book is not authored by Julius
     (D) Julius Stone
                                                      Stone ?
2.   According to Hugo Grotius, the                   (A) Human Law and Human
     purpose/s of social contract :                       Justice

                                                      (B) Legal System and Lawyer’s
     (A) Internally for the justification
                                                          Reasonings
         of the absolute duty of obedience
                                                      (C) Social Dimensions of Law and
         of the people to the government                  Justice

     (B) Internationally to create a basis            (D) Law in the Making

         for legally binding and stable          5.   The jural opposite of ‘Power’ is :

                                                      (A) Disability
         relations among the states
                                                      (B) Liability
     (C) Both (A) and (B)
                                                      (C) Privilege
     (D) None of the above                            (D) Immunity

                                             3                                     [P.T.O.
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JUN - 60220/II—A

6.   ............... sees Nagel’s claim about       10. Hans Kelsen regards law as :
     states as ‘a piece of empirical
                                                        (A) Natural science
     political sociology’.
     (A) Julius                                         (B) Positive science
     (B) Thomas Hobbes                                  (C) Normative science
     (C) Cohen                                          (D) Physical science
     (D) Rawls
                                                    11. Which of the following rights is
7.   The status of legal person is
                                                        guaranteed only to the citizens ?
     determined by :
     (A) Natural law                                    (A) Right to life and personal liberty

     (B) Legislation                                    (B) Right to equality
     (C) Precedent                                      (C) Right to freedom of speech and
     (D) Custom                                              expression
8.   Which is not an essential of                       (D) Right to freedom of religion
     ownership ?
                                                    12. The President shall be elected by the
     (A) The owner has a right to possess
         the thing which he owns                        members of an electoral college
     (B) The owner has the right to use                 consisting of ................ .
         and enjoy the thing owned                      (A) The elected members of both
     (C) The owner has the right to                          Houses of Parliament
         consume, destroy or alienate the
         thing                                          (B) The elected members of the
     (D) Ownership is determinate in                         Legislative Assemblies of the
         duration                                            States
9.   ‘The task of social engineering is to              (C) The elected members of both
     build as efficient structure of the
                                                             Houses of Parliament and the
     society as possible with minimum
     friction and waste’, said by :                          elected       members         of   the

     (A) Prof. H.L.A. Hart                                   Legislative Assemblies of the

     (B) Karl Marx                                           States

     (C) Roscoe Pound                                   (D) The elected members of the Lok
     (D) Lon Fuller                                          Sabha

                                                4
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13. Article 254(2) provides that where          16. Article 371(2) enables the President
    a state law with respect to a matter
    in the Concurrent List contains any             to lay special responsibility on the
    provision repugnant to the                      Governor of which states for the
    provisions of a previous central law,           development of certain areas of that
    with respect to that matter :
                                                    states ?
    (A) The state law will prevail
        without the assent of the                   (A) Nagaland and Mizoram
        President
                                                    (B) Maharashtra and Gujrat
    (B) The state law prevails if having
        been    reserved     for     the            (C) Maharashtra and Andhra
        consideration of President and
                                                         Pradesh
        has received his assent
    (C) The state law will not prevail              (D) Sikkim and Karnataka
    (D) Both the laws will not prevail          17. The present Election Commission of
14. Which of the following writs can be             India consists of :
    issued by the High Court to restrain
    a tribunal from acting under an                 (A) Chief Election Commissioner
    unconstitutional law ?                               only
    (A) Writ of Prohibition
                                                    (B) Chief Election Commissioner
    (B) Writ of Habeas Corpus
    (C) Writ of Certiorari                               and two Election Commissioners
    (D) Writ of Mandamus                            (C) Chief Election Commissioner
15. Prior to the 44th Amendment,                         and one Election Commissioner
    Article 352(1) provided that the
    President     could    make    a                (D) Three Election Commissioners
    proclamation declaring Emergency
                                                18. Sir Ivor Jennings’ definition of
    on the ground of :
                                                    ‘Administrative Law’ does not
    (A) War, External Aggression or
        Internal Disturbance                        emphasis on ............... .
    (B) War, External Aggression or                 (A) Administrative power
        Armed Rebellion
    (C) External Aggression, Armed                  (B) Administrative procedure
        Rebellion, Internal Disturbance             (C) Administrative organisation
    (D) War, Armed Rebellion, External
        Aggression                                  (D) Administrative duties

                                            5                                       [P.T.O.
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19. A. K. Kraipak V. Union of India is              22. Which one of the following is not
    a case related to :                                 the essential attribute custom as a
    (A) Tortious liability of state                     source of international law ?

    (B) Delegated legislature                           (A) Antiquity

    (C) Abuse of Discretion                             (B) Continuity

    (D) Rule against bias                               (C) Consistency

20. A law which gives uncanalised                       (D) Maneuverability
    power/discretion to an authority to             23. When in the opinion of the
    refuse licence to carry a normal                    recognizing state, the state or
    trade on its subjective consideration,              government to be recognized
    without provision for review by                     formally fulfils the requirements of
    the superior authority is to be held                statehood it grants which type of
    as .................... .                           recognition ?
    (A) Reasonable restriction                          (A) De facto recognition
    (B) Unreasonable restriction                        (B) De jure recognition
    (C) Constitutional                                  (C) Conditional recognition
    (D) Non-arbitrary power                             (D) Ad hoc recognition
21. Who said that the supreme will of               24. The international movement of
    the state by consenting to be bound                 people into a destination country
    by customary or conventional rules                  where they were not natives or
    of    international         law,   places           citizens or where they do not possess
    limitation on sovereignty ?                         citizenship is known as ............... .
    (A) Anzilotti                                       (A) Immigration
    (B) Hegel                                           (B) Refuge
    (C) Jellinik                                        (C) Internal displacement
    (D) Bynkershoek                                     (D) Migration
                                                6
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25. In which landmark case the                       28. Who was the first Director General
    International Court of Justice dealt                 of World Trade Organization ?
    with extra-territorial or diplomatic
    asylum ?                                             (A) Mike Moore
     (A) Caroline Case                                   (B) Roberto Azvedo
     (B) Luther V. Sagor
                                                         (C) Pascal Lamy
     (C) Haya de la Torre Case
     (D) Abu Salem Case                                  (D) Peter Sutherland

26. The advisory opinion of ICJ may be               29. What are the persons who are
    sought by whom ?
                                                         uprooted from their home country
     (A) The General Assembly and
                                                         and find themselves seeking asylum
         Security Council only
     (B) The General Assembly, Security                  and protection in another country
         Council, other organs of UNO                    called ?
         and specialized agencies or
         other members of the United                     (A) Prisoners of war
         Nations family if authorised by                 (B) Refugees
         the General Assembly
     (C) The specialised agencies only                   (C) Aliens

     (D) The Security Council and                        (D) Offenders
         specialised agencies only
                                                     30. Which one of the following is a major
27. A forcible or dictatorial interference
    by a state in the affairs of another                 challenge     in   enforcement     of
    state calculated to impose certain                   International humanitarian law ?
    conduct or consequences on that
    other state is known as ................ .           (A) Consent of parties involved

     (A) Retorsion                                       (B) Internal armed conflict
     (B) Reprisal
                                                         (C) Non-cooperation of states
     (C) Blockade
                                                         (D) All of the above
     (D) Intervention
                                                 7                                     [P.T.O.
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31. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R)             32. Match List I with List II and select

    and with the help of codes given                  the correct answer using the codes

    below     point     out   the   correct           given below it :

    explanation.                                                       List I

    Assertion (A) : In murder both the                (a) Mens rea

    elements of intention and knowledge               (b) Motive
    are required to be proved the                     (c) Law presumes innocence
    intention      to   injure   and   the            (d) Knowledge of the act to be
    knowledge about the consequences                       unlawful
    of injury relating to a particular                               List II
    victim.
                                                      (1) Always not necessary
    Reason (R) : The word ‘knowledge’
                                                      (2) Condition precedent for any
    imparts ascertaining and not merely                    offence
    probability.
                                                      (3) Relevant         and        to   impute
    Codes :                                                intention

    (A) Both (A) and (R) are individually             (4) Until crime is proved beyond
        true and (R) is the correct                        doubt
        explanation of (A)                            Codes :

    (B) Both (A) and (R) are individually                  (a)   (b)     (c)    (d)
        true and (R) is not the correct               (A) (2)    (1)     (4)    (3)
        explanation of (A)                            (B) (1)    (2)     (3)    (4)
    (C) (A) is true but (R) is false                  (C) (2)    (1)     (4)    (3)
    (D) (A) is false but (R) is true                  (D) (1)    (2)     (4)    (3)
                                              8
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33. Which one of the following will              36. ‘A’ beat his wife. She fell down and
    amount to criminal conspiracy ?                  became unconscious. Believing her
     (A) Two or more persons agreed to               to be dead and to save himself from
         commit a criminal act in                    being arrested for murder, ‘A’
         furtherance of their common                  hanged her to the fan with rope.
         intention                                    Postmortem report disclosed her
     (B) Intention of each of the accused             death from hanging. ‘A’ is liable
         persons is known to the rest of              for :
         them and is shared                           (A) Murder
     (C) Unity of criminal behaviour
                                                      (B) Culpable homicide
         actuated by common consent
                                                      (C) Causing death by negligence
     (D) Agreement to commit an
         offence even if no overt act is              (D) Grievous hurt
         done to carry out the agreement         37. ‘Z’ dies in possession of furniture and
34. If a criminal act is done by several             money. His servant ‘A’, before the
    persons in furtherance of common                 money comes into the possession of
    intention of all, each of such persons           any person entitled to such
    is liable for :                                  possession, dishonestly misappro-
     (A) Abetment to commit such an                  priates the same causing.
         offence                                      (A) An aggravated form of
     (B) Conspiracy to commit such an                     misappropriation as per section
         offence                                          404 of IPC
     (C) The part of the act done by him              (B) A type of possession by some
     (D) As if whole of the act is done                   process as per section 405 of
         by him alone                                     IPC
35. Which of the following offences is                (C) No offence because the property
    punishable at preparation stage ?                     in question was entrusted to ‘A’
     (A) Murder                                           before the death of ‘Z’
     (B) Theft                                        (D) No offence because the property
     (C) Cheating                                         in question was possessed by
     (D) Dacoity                                          some casualty

                                             9                                      [P.T.O.
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38. Which of the following Sections of
                                                    42. “Tort is a civil wrong for which the
    IPC deals with ‘stalking’ ?
                                                        remedy is a common law action for
    (A) Section 354-A
    (B) Section 354-B                                   unliquidated damages and which is
    (C) Section 354-C                                   not the exclusive breach of contract
    (D) Section 354-D
                                                        or breach of trust or merely
39. Awarding a lesser punishment on
    special grounds is known as .......... .            equitable obligation.”
    (A) Reprieve
                                                        The above definition is given by :
    (B) Respite
    (C) Remission                                       (A) Winfield

    (D) Commutation                                     (B) Sir Frederick Pollock
40. The term ‘Victim’ has defined
    under :                                             (C) John Salmond

    (A) Section 2 (wa) Cr.P.C.
                                                        (D) Lord Atkin
    (B) Section 2 (wb) Cr.P.C.
    (C) Section 2 (xa) Cr.P.C.                      43. “There is no Law of Tort, but there

    (D) Section 2 (za) Cr.P.C.                          is a Law of Torts.”
41. “Tort is an infringement of a right
                                                        Which legal thinker propounded this
    in rem of a private individual, giving
    a right of compensation at the suit                 view ?
    of injured party.”
                                                        (A) Granville Williams
    This definition has been given by :
    (A) Sir John Salmond                                (B) Sir John Salmond
    (B) Winfield
                                                        (C) Winfield
    (C) Fraser
    (D) Sir Frederick Pollock                           (D) Sir Frederick Pollock

                                               10
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44. Match the pairs :                             45. Match the pairs :
                                                                        List I
                    List I
                                                      (a) Damnum sine injuria
    (a) Mutual        agreement    to   do
                                                      (b) Strict liability
        something in satisfaction of the
                                                      (c)   Injuria sine damnum
        cause of action
                                                      (d) Inevitable accident
    (b) Actual payment of the sum
                                                                    List II
        agreed upon
                                                      (1) Ashby V. White
    (c) Surrending the right of action                (2) Gloucester Grammar School
        against the wrong doer                              Case

    (d) Neglect to enforce the right to               (3) Stanley V. Powell Case

        take action for a length of time              (4) Donghue V. Stevenson
                                                      (5) Ryland V. Fletcher Case
                 List II
                                                      Choose the correct option :
    (1) Acquiescence
                                                            (a)   (b)     (c)    (d)
    (2) Release
                                                      (A) (3)     (1)     (2)    (5)
    (3) Accord
                                                      (B) (2)     (5)     (4)    (1)
    (4) Satisfaction                                  (C) (2)     (5)     (1)    (3)

    Choose the correct option :                       (D) (2)     (3)     (1)    (5)

        (a)   (b)     (c)    (d)                  46. Which one of the following cases
                                                      discusses “Negligence” ?
    (A) (4)   (2)     (1)    (3)
                                                      (A) Ryland V. Fletcher
    (B) (3)   (4)     (2)    (1)
                                                      (B) Donghue V. Stevenson
    (C) (3)   (2)     (4)    (1)                      (C) Ashby V. White
    (D) (1)   (4)     (2)    (3)                      (D) Vaugan V. Menlov 1837

                                             11                                        [P.T.O.
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47. On April fool’s day, the local               48. ‘X’ erected a building overhanging
                                                     the land of another.
    newspaper published the news                     Which of the following statements
    regarding the murder of Prime                    is correct ?
                                                     (A) “X” is liable for the nuisance as
    Minister of Democratic of Industan,                   he disturbs the enjoyment of
                                                          land to another
    para-materia to India. The people                (B) “X” is liable for the negligence
    found Prime Minister alive on the                     as he has not taken prior
                                                          permission before erection
    television on the same day. Hence,               (C) “X” is liable for the act of trespass
                                                     (D) “X” is not liable for anything as
    Democratic Janta Dal (DJD) a party
                                                          erected building is hardly
    of Prime Minister instituted suit                     created any legal damage to
                                                          another
    against the owner and editor and             49. The state constructed a reservoir for
    editor of such local newspaper.                  the supply of drinking water for the
                                                     village. The overflow channel from
    In the light of above facts, which of            reservoir was partially constructed
                                                     and then was left incomplete. Due
    the following statements stands                  to rain, the water overflowed and
                                                     plaintiff’s land and crops were
    correct ?
                                                     damaged.
    (A) DJD will win the case as the                 In the light of above facts, if the
                                                     plaintiff brings suit against state,
        newspaper intended to cause it               consider the following statements :
                                                     (1) The state can raise the plea of
        emotional distress                                sovereign immunity
                                                     (2) The state can raise the plea of
    (B) DJD will lose due to absence of                   act of God, as overflow of water
        locus standi                                      is natural phenomenon
                                                     (3) The state can raise the plea of
    (C) DJD will lose unless they can                     inevitable accident
                                                     (4) The state can’t raise any plea
        show that the Prime Minister                      as in the given fact, negligence
        is alive                                          is apparent
                                                     In the light of above, choose the
    (D) DJD will lose unless it prove                correct option from the following :
                                                     (A) Only (1) is correct
        malice behind the publication of             (B) Only (2) is correct
                                                     (C) (1), (2) and (3) are correct
        news item
                                                     (D) Only (4) is correct
                                            12
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50. The maximum period of limitation                52. Which of the following statements
    to file a complaint before the                      is true as to Minor’s Contract under
    Consumer Dispute Redressal                          the Contract Act, 1872 ?
    Agencies :
                                                        (A) It can be enforced after he
    (A) Within six months from the
                                                            attains majority
        date of incidence
    (B) Within two years from the date                  (B) Minor       is    liable   to   pay
        of cause of action                                  compensation after he attains

    (C) Within three years from the                         majority
        date of incidence                               (C) It cannot be validated even
    (D) No limitation period prescribed                     after he attains majority
        to file a complaint at National                 (D) Minor is liable to repay the
        Consumer Dispute Redressal
                                                            amount under the contract to
        Agencies
                                                            the opposite party.
51. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
                                                    53. No one can enrich at the expense
    and with the help of the codes
    given below point out the correct                   of the other signifies.
    explanation.                                        (A) Damages
    Assertion (A) : An article displayed                (B) Penalty
    at the window of shop is only on
                                                        (C) Quasicontract
    invitation to make an offer.
    Reason (R) : The person pick the                    (D) Compensation
    article and tender at shopkeeper to             54. Which of the following is not a
    purchase is an offer based on the                   ground for the termination of an
    price tag.                                          agency ?
    Codes :                                             (A) Revocation and Renounciations
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
                                                        (B) Death or unsound mind
        (R) is a good explanation of (A)
                                                        (C) Agent’s interest coupled with
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
        (R) is not a good explanation of (A)                subject-matter of agency

    (C) (A) is true but (R) is false                    (D) Agent adjudicated           as an
    (D) (A) is false but (R) is true                        insolvent

                                               13                                       [P.T.O.
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55. The term ‘Unpaid Seller’ has been            59. Which of the following powers is to
    defined in which section of the Sale             be exercised by resolution at board
    of Goods Act, 1930 ?
                                                     meetings ?
    (A) Section 44
                                                     (A) to make calls, to authorise buy
    (B) Section 45
                                                         back of shares and sale of
    (C) Section 46
                                                         undertakings of the company
    (D) Section 47
                                                     (B) to diversify the business of the
56. The maximum number of partners
    in limited liability partnership is :                company,        to     approve
    (A) 10                                               amalgamation, merger and

    (B) 20                                               reconstruction and to issue

    (C) 30                                               securities including debentures

    (D) No limit                                     (C) to give time for repayment of
57. The term ‘Allonge’ under Negotiable                  debt from a director, to make
    Act, 1881 means :                                    calls and to authorise buy back
    (A) a piece of paper attached to the                 of shares
        negotiable instrument for the
                                                     (D) to borrow money, to sell
        purpose of further negotiation
                                                         undertaking of the company
    (B) a paper attached with negotiable
                                                         and to invest compensation
        instrument when it was with
        full negotiations                                money in otherwise
    (C) Both (A) and (B)                         60. The activities to be undertaken by
    (D) Either (A) or (B)                            corporate social responsibility
58. A prospectus which does not include              committee of a company are
    complete particulars of the quantum              specified in which Schedule of
    or price of the securities is known              Companies Act, 2013 ?
    as ................ .
                                                     (A) Schedule V
    (A) Red herring prospectus
    (B) Shelf prospectus                             (B) Schedule III
    (C) Abridged prospectus                          (C) Schedule VI
    (D) Deemed prospectus                            (D) Schedule VII

                                            14
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61. Match the following and select the          62. ‘A’ bequeaths a legacy “to Thomas,
                                                    the second son of my brother John”.
    correct answer using the codes given            The testator has an only brother
    below it :                                      John, whose first son is named
                                                    Thomas and whose second son is
                    List I                          named William. The person who gets
                                                    a property under the bequeath is :
    (a) Remedy for deprivation of                   (A) William
        custody of a child                          (B) Thomas
    (b) Removal of a testamentary                   (C) The testator himself
                                                    (D) No one
        guardian
                                                63. Consider the following statements
    (c) Appointment of a guardian ad-               and give the correct answer :
        litem                                       (I) Every petition under Hindu
                                                          Marriage Act, 1955 must state
    (d) Apostacy                                          that there is no collusion
                                                          between the petitioner and the
                 List II                                  other party to the marriage.
    (1) Insolvency of the guardian                  (II) The statements contained in
                                                          every petition under the said
    (2) Application under sec.-97, 98 of                  Act shall be verified in the
                                                          manner required by law for
        Criminal Procedure Code 1973                      verification of plaints.
    (3) Disability of a guardian                    (III) Every proceeding under this Act
                                                          shall be conducted in camera.
    (4) Order 32 of Civil Procedure                 Codes :
        Code                                        (A) Content in statement I is
                                                          mandatory and II, III are
    Codes :                                               optional
        (a)   (b)     (c)    (d)                    (B) Contents in all statements I, II,
                                                          III are mandatory
    (A) (1)   (3)     (4)    (2)                    (C) Contents in statement I are
                                                          optional and II, III are
    (B) (2)   (1)     (3)    (4)
                                                          mandatory
    (C) (4)   (2)     (1)    (3)                    (D) Contents in statements I, III
                                                          are optional and II are
    (D) (2)   (1)     (4)    (3)                          mandatory
                                           15                                     [P.T.O.
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64. Which of the following is not              66. Which one of the following is an
   considered to be the power of a                 approved form of marriage among
                                                   Hindus under uncodified law ?
   marriage officer under Special
                                                   (A) Asura
   Marriage Act ?
                                                   (B) Gandharva
   (A) Discovery and Inspection
                                                   (C) Prajapatya
   (B) Issuing    commissions       for            (D) Paishacha
       examination of witnesses
                                               67. Which one of the following is an
   (C) Maintain        the    marriage             authoritative text for Dayabhaga
       dissolution book                            school ?
                                                   (A) Vyavahara Mayukha
   (D) Register marriages solemnized
                                                   (B) Vivada Tandava
       under this Act
                                                   (C) Dattaka Chandrika
65. A, a Hindu male during his
                                                   (D) Nirnay Sindhu
   bachelorhood adopts a son P. After
                                               68. Which of the following is not a valid
   some period, he marries B. He did
                                                   talaq/divorce as per Muslim Law of
   not have any son from B, and hence              present time ?
   adopts another son Q.                           (A) Talaq initiated by wife under
   Which    one   of    the   following                the power delegated to her by
                                                       her husband
   statements is correct ?
                                                   (B) Talaq initiated by wife with an
   (A) P’s adoption is valid, Q’s
                                                       offer to relinquish her claim of
       adoption is invalid                             dower and offer accepted by
   (B) Adoption of both P and Q are                    husband

       valid                                       (C) Talaq initiated by husband, by
                                                       pronunciating three times in
   (C) Adoption of P is invalid and
                                                       one seating
       adoption of Q is valid
                                                   (D) Talaq effected by Mutual
   (D) Adoption of both P and Q is                     Consent of the husband and
       invalid                                         wife
                                          16
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69. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason            71. What are the causes of land
    (R) and with the help of codes given
    below, point out correct explanation.            pollution ?
    Assertion (A) : A marriage                       (A) Rising population and mining
    between a man and a descendant or
    ascendant of his wife is void under              (B) Industrialisation, unplanned
    Muslim Law.
                                                         mining, rising population and
    Reason (R) : There is absolute bar
    on marriage between the relations                    urbanisation
    of affinity.
                                                     (C) Industrialisation          and
    Codes :
                                                         unplanned mining
    (A) (A) is correct, (R) is false
    (B) (A) is false, (R) is true                    (D) Only      urbanisation     and
    (C) Both (A) and (R) are true but
                                                         industrialisation
        (R) is not a correct explanation
        of (A)                                   72. Which international convention
    (D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
                                                     recognised that wild animals are an
        (R) is the correct explanation
        of (A)                                       irreparable part of the earth’s
70. Which of the following is not a valid            natural system and it is an
    defence available to wife in a suit
    for restitution of conjugal rights ?             obligation of mankind to ensure that

    (A) It is unsafe for her to live with            this legacy is conserved for future
        her husband because of his
                                                     generations ?
        cruelty
    (B) The husband grossly neglects                 (A) Bonn Convention
        the performance of the marital
        obligations                                  (B) Ramsar Convention

    (C) The marriage is irregular                    (C) Rome Convention
    (D) The husband is living with his
        parents                                      (D) Nairobi Convention

                                            17                                    [P.T.O.
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73. In which of the following cases the          75. According to Section 20 of National
    Hon'ble Supreme Court declared                   Green Tribunal Act, 2010 the
    that intergenerational equity and                National Green Tribunal has to
    sustainable development have come                apply which principles ?
    to be firmly embedded in our
                                                     (A) Polluter pays principle and
    constitutional jurisprudence as an
                                                         intergenerational       equity
    integral part of the fundamental
                                                         principle only
    rights conferred by Article 21 of the
                                                     (B) Only polluter pays principle and
    Constitution ?
                                                         public trust doctrine
    (A) Samaj Parivartana Samudaya
        Vs. State of Karnataka (2013)                (C) Principle    of   sustainable

    (B) T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad                      development, the precautionary

        Vs. Union of India (2012)                        principle and the polluter pays

                                                         principle
    (C) Subhash Kumar Vs. State of
        Bihar                                        (D) Intergenerational equity and

    (D) Susetha Vs. State of TN (2006)                   precautionary principle only

74. When were the plastic waste                  76. The modern conception of human

    management rules introduced by                   rights developed in the aftermath of

    MOEF notification ?                              the :

    (A) 2016                                         (A) First World War

    (B) 2015                                         (B) Second World War

    (C) 2018                                         (C) Gulf War
    (D) 2017                                         (D) World War
                                            18
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77. Which year was designated by               80. The National Human Rights
    the General Assembly as the                    Commission can enquire, Suo Motu
    International Year of Disabled                 or on a petition presented to it by
    Persons ?                                      a victim or any person on his behalf,
    (A) 1980                                       into a complaint of :
    (B) 1981                                       (A) Violation of human rights or
    (C) 1982                                            abetment thereof
    (D) 1983                                       (B) Negligence in the prevention of
78. The International Bill of Human                     violation of human right by a
    Rights consists of :                                public servant
    (A) The Universal Declaration of
                                                   (C) Both (A) and (B)
        Human Rights
                                                   (D) Violation by non-state sector
    (B) The International Covenant on
                                               81. Which one of the following doctrines
        Economic, Social and Cultural
        Rights                                     prevailing in most of the legal
                                                   systems that allows a court to hold
    (C) The International Covenant on
        Civil and Political Rights                 a   party    liable     for   patent
                                                   infringement even though the
    (D) All of the above
                                                   infringing device or process does not
79. The World Assembly on Ageing at
                                                   fall within the literal scope of a
    Vienna to focus world attention on
                                                   patent claim, but nevertheless is
    the problems of the elderly and the
    aged was held in the year :                    equivalent to the claimed.

    (A) 1982                                       (A) Doctrine of Literal Conflict

    (B) 1993                                       (B) Doctrine of Deceptive Similarity

    (C) 1966                                       (C) Doctrine of Equivalents
    (D) 1972                                       (D) Doctrine of Colourable Deception

                                          19                                     [P.T.O.
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82. The developing of the personality is         84. Which one of the following is not an
                                                     exception given under S/52 of the
    inherent to the property right. The
                                                     Copyright Act, 1957 which allows
    IPR permit and protect the                       the use of copyrighted material as
    developing of the personality which              “fair deal” ?

    extends to the material things.                  (A) The commercial use of copy-
                                                          righted material
    The above statement represents
                                                     (B) The academic use of copy-
    which one of the theory of IPR ?                      righted material

    (A) The Utilitarian Theory of IPR                (C) The use of copyrighted material
                                                          for research purpose
    (B) The Natural Right Theory of
                                                     (D) The use of copyrighted material
          IPR                                             for private use

    (C) The Ethics and Reward Theory             85. Which one of the committee had
                                                     examined the question of revision of
          of IPR
                                                     patent law and advised the
    (D) The Personhood Theory of IPR                 government in 1959 to retain the
                                                     patent system in India, however
83. Which one of the following was not
                                                     recommended major changes in the
    the    subject   matter    of   Paris            law which formed the basis of the
    Convention 1883 for the protection               introduction of the Patents Bill,
                                                     1965 ?
    of industrial property ?
                                                     (A) Dr.    Bakshi       Tek   Chand
    (A) Copyright                                         Committee

    (B) Patents                                      (B) Justice N. Rajgopala Ayyangar
                                                          Committee
    (C) Trademarks
                                                     (C) Wolfenden Committee
    (D) Utility models                               (D) Justice M.C. Chhagla Committee
                                            20
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86. While determining the cases of               88. It has been observed that India has
    deceptive similarity in contesting               been traditionally one of the soft
    claim of trademarks, the court while             target of biopiracy. Which among
    deciding the issue of “identity”,                the following is the reason for it ?
    “similarity”, “Like to cause                     (A) Because India was the colony
    confusion” from the perspective of                   under British Government and
    which one of the following fictitious                therefore open to Bio-piracy for
    characters ?                                         European Nation
    (A) An average man of ordinary                   (B) Because     India    has    large
        intelligence with imperfect                       amount of Biodiversity
         recollection
                                                     (C) Because Government of India
    (B) The person ordinarily skilled in                 has Liberal approach for its
        Art                                              resources and therefore it is easy
    (C) Lay observer                                     to carry away the Bio-diversified
    (D) A reasonable and prudence                         material
        man                                          (D) Because National Bio-diversity
87. Which of the following has been                      authority is not effectively
    awarded protection under the                         established in India to control
    Geographical Indications of Goods                     the Bio-piracy
    Act, 1999 ?                                  89. What is the maximum penalty for
    (1) Dharwad Petha                                damage to computer, computer
                                                     system, unauthorised access,
    (2) Darjeeling Tea
                                                     download of data, infecting with
    (3) Kadaknath Chicken
                                                     virus, denial of access etc. as per
    (4) Gondwana Dhokra                              S-43 of the Information Technology
    Choose the correct option :                      Act, 2000 ?
    (A) (1), (2) and (4)                             (A) 2 lakhs
    (B) (1), (2) and (3)                             (B) 50 lakhs
    (C) (2), (3) and (4)                             (C) 1 crore
    (D) (2) and (4)                                  (D) 5 crores
                                            21                                      [P.T.O.
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90. In order to safeguard the secure use         92. An insurer is absolved from the
                                                     liability under section 149 (2) (a) of
    of the electronic medium and for
                                                     the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988 if :
    promotion of e-governance and
                                                      (A) Motor vehicle developed a fault
    e-commerce, which of the following                    while it was in use
    authority has been empowered to                   (B) The driver was skilled and
    prescribe the modes or methods                        possessed valid licence
    for encryption u/s 84A of the                     (C) No part committed any breach
    Information Technology Act, 2000 ?                    of condition of contract of
                                                          insurance
    (A) The controller of certifying
                                                      (D) The owner was aware that the
         authority
                                                          driver has fake driving licence
    (B) The      adjudicating    officer                  and still he permitted the driver
         appointed      by      Central                   to drive the vehicle

         Government                              93. In Canada, Federation is primarily
                                                     contained in the ................ .
    (C) The Ministry of Information
                                                      (A) Constitution Act, 1982
         and Technology in consultation
                                                      (B) Canadian Charter of Rights and
         with Department of Telecomm-                     Freedoms
         unication                                    (C) British North America Act,
    (D) Central Government                                1867
                                                      (D) Crown Proceeding Act
91. ‘A firm having market power
                                                 94. The Presidential system is a form
    substantial      enough     to   act
                                                     of Government in which :
    independent of the competitive forces
                                                      (A) Ministers are collectively
    that prevail in the relevant market.’                 responsible to the legislature
    What does this statement refer to ?               (B) President is indirectly elected
    (A) Cartel                                        (C) Total executive responsibility is
                                                          assigned to the President as an
    (B) Dominant position
                                                          individual
    (C) Market equilibrium                            (D) Head of the State is merely a
    (D) Predominant nature of activity                    constitutional head

                                            22
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95. The term ‘Separation of Powers’ is           98. The first 10 amendments to the
    ascribed to political philosopher :               United States Constitution passed

    (A) A. V. Dicey                                   are known collectively as :
                                                      (A) Voting Rights
    (B) Beron de Montesquieu
                                                      (B) Women Rights
    (C) Lord Denning
                                                      (C) Bill of Rights
    (D) Voltaire
                                                      (D) Abolition of Slavery
96. Dicey enumerated the doctrine of
                                                 99. Which of the following statements
    ................ which involved three
                                                      is not true about the appointment
    distinct proportions or kindred
                                                      of members of Lokpal ?
    conceptions.
                                                      (A) Total number of members shall
    (A) Separation of powers
                                                           not exceed right
    (B) State action
                                                      (B) Out of total at least fifty percent
    (C) Rule of law                                        shall be Non-Judicial Members
    (D) Political question                            (C) Members shall not be a person
97. 24th Constitutional Amendment                          who has been removed or
    Act, 1971 inserted Art, 13(4) in the                   dismissed from the service of the
    Indian Constitution to overrule the                    Union or a State
    view taken by the Supreme Court                   (D) Members shall not be of less
    of India in the case of :                              than 45 years of age
    (A) Sajjan Singh Vs. State of                100. ................. was the first country to
        Rajasthan                                     adopt the institution of Ombudsman

    (B) Keshavand Bharati Vs. Union                   in 1809.

        of India                                      (A) Finland

    (C) Minerva Mills Vs. Union of                    (B) Sweden
        India                                         (C) Denmark

    (D) Golak Nath Vs. State of Punjab                (D) Norway

                                            23                                          [P.T.O.
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ROUGH WORK




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Source: Savitribai Phule Pune University. Question paper published by Savitribai Phule Pune University.