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MH SET 2023: 26 March, Paper II, Law

  • Date: 26 March 2023
  • Paper code: MAR-60223
  • Series: A
  • Language: Bilingual
  • 24 pages
MH SET 2023 question paper, 26 March 2023, Paper II, Law, page 1 of 24
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Test Booklet Code & Serial No.
                                                                                                                      A
                                                                           LAW
Signature and Name of Invigilator                                                         Seat No.
1. (Signature) .........................................                                                    (In figures as in Admit Card)
      (Name) ................................................                     Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) .........................................                                               (In words)

      (Name) ................................................                 OMR Sheet No.

MAR - 60223                                                                                                 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours]                                                                                 [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24                                                     Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
                      Instructions for the Candidates
1.         Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided              1.
           on the top of this page.
2.         This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question
           will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory.      2.
3.         At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
           will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are            3.
           requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as
           follows :
           (i)      To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
                    paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept                (i)
                    a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
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           (iii)    After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
                                                                                            (iii)
                    should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4.         Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
           (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on         4.                      (A), (B), (C)   (D)
           the correct response against each item.
           Example : where (C) is the correct response.

                              A        B                 D                                            (C)
5.         Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR                                       A        B              D
           Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place
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6.         Read instructions given inside carefully.
7.         Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.                     6.
8.         If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put                 7.
           any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
                                                                                    8.
           allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
           identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
           means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9.         You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
           end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with           9.
           you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
           to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
           conclusion of examination.
                                                                                    10.
10.        Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
                                                                                    11.
11.        Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.
12.        There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.                      12.
MH SET 2023 question paper, 26 March 2023, Paper II, Law, page 2 of 24
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MAR - 60223/II—A




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MH SET 2023 question paper, 26 March 2023, Paper II, Law, page 3 of 24
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MAR - 60223/II—A
                                             Law
                                          Paper II
Time Allowed : 120 Minutes]                          [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This Paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question
       carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1.   Who has described an ‘internal                   5.   Who has analysed concept of rights
     morality’ of law ?
                                                           in terms of jural correlatives and
     (A) Lon Fuller
                                                           jural opposites ?
     (B) John Finnis
     (C) John Rawls                                        (A) Salmond
     (D) H.L.A. Hart                                       (B) Dicey
2.   According to ..............., legal system
                                                           (C) Hohfeld
     is a ‘closed logical system.’
     (A) Bentham                                           (D) Holmes
     (B) H.L.A. Hart                                  6.   According to ..................., ‘actual
     (C) Austin                                            justice cannot be achieved except
     (D) Kelsen                                            within a sovereign state.’
3.   According to ........., law as combining,
     sovereign and inviolable volition.                    (A) Thomas Hobbes

     (A) Salmond                                           (B) John Rawls
     (B) Stammler                                          (C) Thomas Nagel
     (C) Pound
                                                           (D) Julius Stone
     (D) Hobbes
4.   Legal system arises from the                     7.   Which of the following is not a
     combination of primary and                            theory of corporate personality ?
     secondary rules. The statement was
     given by :                                            (A) Fiction theory
     (A) Bentham                                           (B) Realistic theory
     (B) Hart
                                                           (C) Purpose theory
     (C) Austin
                                                           (D) Interest theory
     (D) Kelsen

                                                  3                                         [P.T.O.
MH SET 2023 question paper, 26 March 2023, Paper II, Law, page 4 of 24
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MAR - 60223/II—A

8.   Ownership of goodwill of a business       12. Article 246 A under the Constitution
     is :                                          of India, came to be inserted to
                                                   provide special provision with
     (A) Limited ownership
                                                   respect to :
     (B) Corporeal ownership
                                                   (A) Customs and duty
     (C) Incorporeal ownership
                                                   (B) Customs and Sales Tax
     (D) Beneficial ownership                      (C) Goods and Services Tax
9.   In Roscoe Pound’s scheme of                   (D) Income Tax and Sales Tax
     Interests, ‘Individual interest’
                                               13. By virtue of Article 122 and Article
     involves :                                    212, the Speaker’s decision cannot be
     (A) Personality                               questioned on any ground except :
     (B) Domestic relations                        (A) Where it involves question of
                                                       discipline
     (C) Interest of subtances
                                                   (B) Where      it involves         an
     (D) All the above
                                                       interpretation    of          the
10. The book titled ‘An Introduction to                Constitution
    the Principles of Morals and
                                                   (C) Where it involves breach of
    Legislation’ authored by :                         privilege
     (A) J. Bentham                                (D) Where it involves regarding
     (B) J. Austin                                     expunged part of the proceedings
     (C) J. Raz                                14. The President may refer any dispute
                                                   excluded from the court’s jurisdiction
     (D) J. Finnis
                                                   under Article 131 to the Supreme
11. The 97th Amendment Act, 2011                   Court for :
    added a new Directive principle                (A) Advisory opinion under Article
    Article 43-B in Part IV, of the                    143
    Constitution of India relating to :
                                                   (B) Review under Article 137
     (A) Educational Institutions
                                                   (C) Transfer the case under Article
     (B) Industrial Corporations                       139
     (C) Co-operative Societies                    (D) Additional Jurisdiction under
     (D) Trust                                         Article 138

                                           4
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15. Under Article 355, the obligation of         17. In which of the following case the
    the centre to protect a State arises
    under which of the following                      Supreme Court held that the
    situation ?                                       Election Commissioners do not hold
    (A) War, external aggression and                  the same position as does the Chief
         failure of State machinery
                                                      Election Commissioner ?
    (B) External aggression, internal
         disturbance and when the State               (A) Ashok Sadarangani Vs. Union
         Government cannot be carried                      of India
         on in accordance with the
         Constitution                                 (B) T.N. Seshan Vs. Union of India
    (C) When the State Government                     (C) P. Jaya Vs. Union of India
         cannot be carried on in
         accordance with the Constitution             (D) B.S. Vadera Vs. Union of India
         War and Domestic Violence
                                                 18. According to ............ Administrative
    (D) Domestic Violence, War and
         failure of State machinery                   Law is the law relating to the
16. No Act of Parliament concerning the               Administration. It determines the
    following matters, shall apply to the             organisation, power and duties of
    State of Nagaland unless the
    Legislative Assembly of Nagaland                  administrative authorities.
    by a resolution so decides :                      (A) Sir Ivor Jennings
    (i)   Religious or social practice of
          Nagas                                       (B) Kenneth Culp Davis

    (ii) Naga customary law and                       (C) Griffith and Street
         procedures
                                                      (D) A.V. Dicey
    (iii) Administration of civil and
          criminal justice involving             19. In which of the following cases the
          decisions according to Naga                 Supreme Court applied the ‘‘real
          customary law
                                                      likelihood of bias’’ test ?
    (iv) Ownership and transfer of land
         and its resources                            (A) S.R. Bommai Vs. Union of India
    (A) Only (i) is true and others are               (B) Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of
         false
                                                           India
    (B) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are true
    (C) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true            (C) Re Delhi Laws Act case
    (D) All are true                                  (D) A.K. Kraipak Vs. Union of India

                                             5                                       [P.T.O.
MH SET 2023 question paper, 26 March 2023, Paper II, Law, page 6 of 24
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MAR - 60223/II—A

20. Which landmark English case out             23. When the other states have no
    of the following laid down the tests
                                                    reasonable assurance of stability
    to be met for the exercise of
    administrative discretion ?                     about the new state, they grant

    (A) Mogul SS Co. Ltd. Vs. McGregor              which type of recognition ?
        Gow                                         (A) De Jure recognition
    (B) Associated Provincial Pictures
                                                    (B) Implied recognition
        Ltd. Vs. Wednesbury Corpn.
    (C) Carltena Ltd. Vs. Commissioners             (C) De facto recognition
        of Works
                                                    (D) Express recognition
    (D) Cave Vs. Mountain
                                                24. The convention on the status of
21. ‘Whatever has received the common
    consent of civilised nations and that           Refugees, 1951 covers those persons
    to which we have assented along                 who have become refugees as a
    with other nations in general may
                                                    result of events occurring before :
    be called international law.’ Who has
    given this definition ?                         (A) 1st January, 1951
    (A) J.L. Brierly                                (B) 1st March, 1951
    (B) Lord Alverstone
                                                    (C) 1st January, 1941
    (C) Oppenheim
                                                    (D) 1st March, 1941
    (D) J.G. Starke
22. In which of the following cases the         25. The asylum granted by a state
    Permanent Court of International                outside its territory in its embassy
    Justice referred to the general
                                                    or public vessels is known as :
    principle of subrogation ?
    (A) Lotus case                                  (A) Territorial asylum

    (B) Mavrommatis Palestine Con-                  (B) International asylum
        cessions case
                                                    (C) Local asylum
    (C) Chorzow Factory case
                                                    (D) Extra territorial asylum
    (D) U.K. Vs. Albania

                                            6
MH SET 2023 question paper, 26 March 2023, Paper II, Law, page 7 of 24
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26. Which of the following is not the           30. Which of the following set the
    principle of UNO under Article 2 of             standards in International law for
    UN Charter ?                                    humanitarian treatment of the
    (A) Sovereign equality of States                victims of war ?
    (B) Peaceful     settlement        of           (A) Geneva Convention
        international disputes
                                                    (B) Vienna Convention
    (C) Non use of force
                                                    (C) Paris Convention
    (D) Intervention in matters which
        are within domestic jurisdiction            (D) Hague Convention
        of any state                            31. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
27. The severance of diplomatic                     and with the help of codes given
    relations, revocation of diplomatic             below it point out the correct
    privileges or withdrawal of fiscal or           explanation.
    tariff concessions amount to :                  Assertion (A) : Criminal liability
    (A) Reprisals                                   can be attracted only when it is
    (B) Blockade                                    established that the goods have been
    (C) Retorsion                                   dishonestly misappropriated and not
                                                    otherwise.
    (D) Intervention
28. The World Trade Organisation is the             Reason (R) : Wheat was entrusted
    successor to which multilateral                 by the Government to the firm. It
    treaty ?                                        was dishonestly misappropriated
    (A) Marrkesh Agreement                          and all the four partners were
                                                    prosecuted for criminal breach of
    (B) Doha Declaration
                                                    trust under Section 409 IPC.
    (C) General Agreement on Tariffs
        and Trade                                   Codes :

    (D) Uruguay Round                               (A) Both (A) and (R) are individually
                                                        true and (R) is the correct
29. Who is the founder of the
                                                        explanation of (A)
    International Committee of the Red
    Cross ?                                         (B) Both (A) and (R) are individually
    (A) Alfred Nobel                                    true and (R) is not the correct
                                                        explanation of (A)
    (B) Henry Dunant
    (C) Roosevelt                                   (C) (A) is true but (R) is false

    (D) Aungsan Suu Ki                              (D) (A) is false but (R) is true

                                            7                                    [P.T.O.
MH SET 2023 question paper, 26 March 2023, Paper II, Law, page 8 of 24
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32. Match List I with List II and select        33. Under criminal conspiracy :
    the correct answer using the codes               (A) Mere agreement is made an
    given below it :                                     offence even if no overt act is
                                                         done to carry out the agreement
                 List I
                                                     (B) Mere agreement is not made an
    (a) A person does anything with                      offence unless an overt act is
        the intention of causing                         done to carry out that
        wrongful gain to one person or                   agreement
        wrongful loss to another person.             (C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
    (b) A person does the thing with                 (D) None of the above
        intent to defraud but not               34. ‘A’ a snake-charmer while showing
        otherwise.                                  his play claims to cure the snake bite.
    (c) A person cause an effect by                 The deceased got himself a snake
                                                    bite believing an assurance of the
        means which, at the time of
                                                    snake-charmer. The snake-charmer
        employing those means, he
                                                    could not cure the deceased. The
        knew to be likely to be cause it.           snake-charmer is liable for :
    (d) A person does an act with                    (A) Murder
        specific intent.                             (B) Culpable    homicide          not
                 List II                                 amounting to murder
                                                     (C) Causing death by negligent act
    (i)   Fraudulently
                                                     (D) No offence
    (ii) Dishonestly
                                                35. ‘A’ makes an attempt to steal some
    (iii) Intentionally                             jewels by breaking open a box, and
    (iv) Voluntarily                                finds after so opening the box, that
                                                    there is no jewel in it.
    Codes :
                                                     (A) ‘A’ has not committed any
           (a)    (b)      (c)     (d)                   offence
    (A)    (i)    (ii)     (iii)   (iv)              (B) ‘A’ is guilty of offence of theft
                                                     (C) ‘A’ is guilty for attempt to
    (B)   (iv)   (iii)     (ii)    (i)
                                                         commit theft
    (C)   (ii)    (i)      (iv)    (iii)             (D) ‘A’ is guilty for conspiracy to
    (D)    (i)    (ii)     (iii)   (iv)                  commit theft

                                            8
MH SET 2023 question paper, 26 March 2023, Paper II, Law, page 9 of 24
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36. Section 304A of IPC implies :                    39. The offence of defamation against
                                                         the established Government is
     (A) Absence of intention
                                                         known as :
     (B) Absence of knowledge                            (A) Waging      war     against     the
     (C) Absence of intention as well as                     Government of India

          knowledge                                      (B) Defamation

     (D) Presence of intention but                       (C) Sedition

          absence of knowledge                           (D) Conspiracy
                                                     40. Reduction of the amount of sentence
37. Which of the following sections of
                                                         without changing its character is
     IPC deals with ‘Voyeurism’ ?
                                                         known as :
     (A) 354-A                                           (A) Commutation
     (B) 354-B                                           (B) Remission

     (C) 354-C                                           (C) Reprieve

     (D) 354-D                                           (D) Respite
                                                     41. The definition :
38. In ..............., the English Court held
                                                         ‘‘tortious liability arising from breach
     that, the man who has connection
                                                         of duty primarily fixed by law. This
     with a child, relying on her consent,
                                                         duty is towards persons generally
     does it at his peril if she is below                and its breach is redressible by an
     the statutable age.                                 action for unliquidated damages.’’

     (A) R. Vs. Mrs. Tolson                              Who has given this definition ?
                                                         (A) Sir Henry Pollock
     (B) R. Vs. Bishop
                                                         (B) Winfield
     (C) R. Vs. Prince
                                                         (C) Sir John Salmond
     (D) R. Vs. Wheat and Stocks
                                                         (D) Lord Autkin

                                                 9                                       [P.T.O.
MH SET 2023 question paper, 26 March 2023, Paper II, Law, page 10 of 24
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MAR - 60223/II—A
                                               43. Which one of the following cases is
42. Match the pair - Maxim and its
                                                   not related with ‘‘contributory
    meaning :                                      negligence’’ ?
                                                    (A) Butlerfield Vs. Forrester (1809)
    (a) Exturpi causa non orotur actio
                                                        11 East 60

    (b) Vis Major                                   (B) Davies Vs. Mann, (1882) 10
                                                        M&W 546
    (c) Novus actus interveniens                    (C) Rural transport service Vs.
                                                        Bezlum Bibi AIR 1980 Cal 165
    (d) Res ipsa loquitur
                                                    (D) Beared Vs. London General
                                                        Omnibus Co. (1900)2 Q B 530
    (i)   Remoteness of consequences
                                               44. When a person having knowledge
                                                   that he is entitled to enforce a right,
    (ii) From an immoral cause no
                                                   but still neglects to enforce the same
          action arise                             for a length of time, then the other
                                                   party may infer that such right has
    (iii) Act of God                               been waived and abandoned.
                                                    This is called as :
    (iv) Unreasonable presumption
                                                    (A) Compounding
    (v) Things speaks for itself                    (B) Release
                                                    (C) Accord and satisfication
    Choose the correct option :                     (D) Acquiescence
                                               45. One of the following interests is not
           (a)    (b)     (c)     (d)
                                                   protected by the law of torts :
    (A)    (ii)   (i)     (iv)    (iii)             (A) Loss arising out of defamation
                                                    (B) Loss due to physical danger
    (B)    (v)    (ii)    (iii)   (iv)
                                                    (C) Loss of civil right to enjoy the
                                                        property peacefully
    (C)    (ii)   (iii)   (i)     (v)
                                                    (D) Loss arising out of commercial
    (D)   (iii)   (iv)    (i)     (ii)                  profit due to anti-trade
                                                        competition

                                          10
MH SET 2023 question paper, 26 March 2023, Paper II, Law, page 11 of 24
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46. Mr. Stalin, a snake-charmer, was                 47. Which   one    of    the   following
    exhibiting his talents to a group of
                                                        statements can’t be considered as an
    people by claiming himself a person
                                                        example of ‘unfair trade practice’ ?
    with superpower to entertain the
    snakes. The crowd gathered around                   (A) representing that the goods has
    him to watch his show. During the
                                                            sponsorship, approval, per-
    show one of the snakes escaped and
                                                            formance, characteristics, uses
    bit a child who had to be hospitalised
    for 5 days medical treatment. The                       or benefits which such goods do

    child survived and his parents                          not have
    instituted suit against Mr. Stalin.
                                                        (B) making      a      false   and/or
    Which of the following statements
                                                            misleading        statement    or
    is correct in the light of above facts ?
                                                            representation concerning the
    (A) The parents can’t file a suit as
         the snake was non-poisonous                        need for, or the usefulness of

         and it does not sustain any                        any goods
         harm to child
                                                        (C) labelling the product with
    (B) The suit will be dismissed as the
                                                            confusing        combination   of
         child was voluntarily watching
         the show and Mr. Stalin raise                      deceptively similar trademark

         a plea of ‘Volenti non fit injuria’’           (D) giving to the public any
    (C) Mr. Stalin is liable to compensate                  warranty or guarantee of the
         the child’s family for his careless
                                                            performance or length of life of
         act
                                                            a product or any goods that is
    (D) Mr. Stalin is not liable as it is
                                                            not based on proper test
         act of God

                                                11                                     [P.T.O.
MH SET 2023 question paper, 26 March 2023, Paper II, Law, page 12 of 24
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MAR - 60223/II—A

48. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason              50. Match the following lists :
    (R) and give the correct answer with
    the help of codes given below it :                               List I

    Assertion (A) : Master is held                     (a) District Consumer Protection
    liable for the act of his servant done                   Council
    during the course of employment.
                                                       (b) State Consumer Protection
    Reason (R) : He who does an act
    through another is deemed in law                         Council
    to do it himself.                                  (c) Central Consumer Protection
    Codes :                                                  Council
    (A) (A) is correct and (R) is valid                (d) Act not in derrogation of any
        reason for (A)
                                                             law
    (B) (A) is correct but (R) is not valid
        reason for (A)                                               List II

    (C) (A) is incorrect and (R) is also               (i)   Section 3
        not valid
                                                       (ii) Section 4
    (D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is a valid
                                                       (iii) Section 7
        justification in eye of law
49. Generally tortious liability has an                (iv) Section 8A
    element of fault to support it. In
                                                       (v) Section 6
    which of the following Acts recently
    a provision has been added in India,               Select the correct option :
    which provides for meeting claims
                                                              (a)      (b)        (c)   (d)
    arising both on the basis of fault
    principle and no fault principle ?                 (A)   (iv)      (iii)     (ii)   (i)
    (A) Factories Act
                                                       (B)   (iv)      (iii)     (ii)   (v)
    (B) Employees Compensation Act
                                                       (C)   (iii)     (iv)      (ii)   (i)
    (C) Public Liability Insurance Act
    (D) The Motor Vehicles Act                         (D)    (ii)     (iii)     (iv)   (v)

                                              12
MH SET 2023 question paper, 26 March 2023, Paper II, Law, page 13 of 24
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51. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R)          53. The principle that even where the
    and with the help of codes given               contract contains an exemption
    below it, point out the correct                clause, still the party claiming
    explanation.                                   exemption cannot escape the
                                                   liability where he is guilty of
    Assertion (A) : In order to convert
                                                   fundamental breach of the contract
    a proposal into a promise, the
                                                   refers to :
    acceptance must be absolute and
    qualified.                                     (A) e-contract

    Reason (R) : It must be expressed              (B) quasi contract

    in some usual and reasonable                   (C) standard form of contract
    manner, unless the proposal                    (D) all the above
    prescribes the manner in which it          54. A finder of lost goods can sell the
    is to be accepted.                             goods :
    Codes :                                        (A) Where the expenses incurred
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and                  exceeds 2/3 of its value
         (R) is good explanation of (A)            (B) Where      the     goods   are   of
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but                  perishable nature
         (R) is not good explanation               (C) Either (A) or (B)
         of (A)
                                                   (D) Both (A) and (B)
    (C) (A) is true but (R) is false           55. A sale in market overt is an
    (D) (A) is false but (R) is true               exception of :
52. A frustrated contract is :                     (A) Doctrine of CAVEAT EMPTOR
    (A) enforceable                                (B) NEMO         DAT    QUID    NON

    (B) void                                           HABET
                                                   (C) Risk prima facie passes with
    (C) voidable
                                                       property
    (D) valid
                                                   (D) Right to stoppage in transit

                                          13                                      [P.T.O.
MH SET 2023 question paper, 26 March 2023, Paper II, Law, page 14 of 24
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MAR - 60223/II—A

56. The personal liability of a partner            59. In which of the following cases
    in limited liability partnership                   directors were described as agents
    arises in :                                        of the company ?
    (A) Where a partner continues even                 (A) Ferguson Vs. Wilson
        the   minimum         number     of
                                                       (B) Lee Vs. Lee’s Air Farming Ltd.
        partners falls below two to six
                                                       (C) York and North Midland
        months
                                                           Railway Co. Vs. Hudson
    (B) Immediately after the number
        falls below two                                (D) Percival Vs. Wright

    (C) Either (A) or (B)                          60. How much amount does a company
                                                       have to spend in every financial
    (D) Both (A) and (B)
                                                       year on CSR activities ?
57. The word ‘negotiation’ was defined
                                                       (A) At least 2% of the average net
    in the NI Act, 1881 under Section :
                                                           profits made three immediately
    (A) 12
                                                           preceding financial years
    (B) 13
                                                       (B) At least 5% of the average net
    (C) 14
                                                           profits made during three
    (D) 15                                                 immediately preceding financial
58. The equity shares issued by a                          years
    company       to   its   directors   or            (C) At least 3% of the average net
    employees for making available                         profits made during three
    intellectual property rights or for                    immediately preceding financial
    know-how are known as :
                                                           years
    (A) Bonus shares
                                                       (D) At least 10% of the average net
    (B) Demat shares                                       profits made during three
    (C) Sweat equity shares                                immediately preceding financial

    (D) Special equity shares                              years

                                              14
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61. Read the statements and choose the           63. Match the following and select the
    correct answer from the following :
                                                     correct answer using the codes given
    (I)   The uncodified Hindu Law does
                                                     below :
          not apply to the illegitimate
          children of a Hindu father by                             List I
          a Christian mother who are
          brought up as Hindus                                     (Cases)

    (II) The illegitimate children of a              (a) Dastane Vs. Dastane
         Buddhist father and a Hindu
         mother brought up as a                      (b) Gita Hariharan Vs. RBI
         member of the tribe to which
                                                     (c)   Sarla Mudgal Vs. UOI
         she belongs is treated as a
         Hindu                                       (d) Bai Tahira Vs. Ali Hussain
    (III) A follower of Brahmo Samaj is                            List II
          considered as a Hindu.
    (A) Statement (I) is incorrect and                             (Issues)
        (II), (III) are correct                      (i)   Effect of conversion on marriage
    (B) (I), (II), (III) are correct
                                                     (ii) Guardianship
    (C) (I), (II), (III) are incorrect
    (D) (I), (II) are incorrect and (III)            (iii) Maintenance
        is correct
                                                     (iv) Divorce
62. Which one of the following was not
    introduced into Hindu Marriage Act               Codes :
    by amendment in 1976 as the
                                                            (a)     (b)        (c)    (d)
    ground for divorce ?
    (A) Cruelty and desertion                        (A)    (i)     (ii)      (iii)   (iv)

    (B) Single act of adultery                       (B)    (i)     (iii)     (iv)    (ii)
    (C) discretionary power to the court
                                                     (C)   (iv)     (ii)       (i)    (iii)
        to grant an alternative relief
    (D) Renunciation of world                        (D)   (iii)     (i)      (ii)    (iv)

                                            15                                               [P.T.O.
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64. Who among the following is not              66. The children of void marriages are
                                                    awarded the right of maintenance
    considered     to   have   written
                                                    and succession, irrespective of
    Dharmashastra ?                                 whether the parties had obtained a
    (A) Brihaspati                                  decree of nullity. This right is given
                                                    as per :
    (B) Katyayana
                                                    (A) 2002 amendment to Sec. 21 of
    (C) Narad                                           the Hindu Marriage Act, 1956

    (D) Medhatithi                                  (B) 2005 amendment granting
                                                        coparcenary rights
65. Which one of the landmark cases
                                                    (C) 1976 amendment to Section 16
    decided by the Supreme Court of                     of the Hindu Marriage Act,
    India highlighted the fact that                     1956

    Indian children of tender age are               (D) 1994 amendment granting right
                                                        in the property
    under the guise of adoption exposed
                                                67. Ms. A, an unmarried Hindu woman
    to long journey, risk to their lives
                                                    adopts a Hindu minor girl. After few
    and such children during the course             years she marries. The husband is
    of   time    become   beggars    or             unwilling to accept her daughter.
    prostitutes for want of proper care.            Ms. B the real sister of Ms. A now
                                                    adopts that daughter who is still a
    (A) Baburao Marutrao Mane Vs.                   minor. The adoption by Ms. B is :
         Ramchandra Balasaheb Mane                  (A) Valid
    (B) Narinderjit Kaur Vs. Union of               (B) Invalid

         India                                      (C) Voidable at the option of the
                                                        daughter on her attaining
    (C) Laxmikant Pandey Vs. Union of
                                                        majority
         India
                                                    (D) Permissible by the order of the
    (D) Sita Bai Vs. Ramchandra                         court

                                           16
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68. As per Muslim law, a woman is                71. Environmental pollutant means :
    entitled to custody (hizanat) of her
    female child until :                             (A) Any substance in solid form

    (A) the child attains 7 years of age                    injurious to environment

    (B) the child attains puberty                    (B) Any solid, liquid or gaseous
    (C) the child attains 18 years of age                   substances present in such
    (D) the child attains 21 years of age                   concentration as may be or tend
69. In which of the following cases, the                    to be injurious to environment
    Supreme Court upheld the principle
    that the marriage between a Muslim               (C) Any liquid substance hazardous
    and an idolator or fireworshipper                       to environment only
    woman is neither a valid nor a void
    marriage but is merely an irregular              (D) Any gaseous substance only
    marriage :                                              which     is   injurious    to
    (A) Mohammad      Salim          Vs.                    environment
        Shamsuddin and others
                                                 72. Which of the following is an
    (B) Shamin Ara Vs. State of U.P.
                                                     international agreement aimed at
    (C) Imam Bandi Vs. Mutsaddi
                                                     sharing the benefits arising from the
    (D) Daniel Latifi Vs. U.O.I.
                                                     utilisation of genetic resources in
70. Hadith as a source of Muslim Law
    means and includes :                             fair     and   equitable     way   by

    (A) Commands         of     prophet              appropriate access to genetic
        Muhammad                                     resources and appropriate transfer
    (B) Assertions       of     prophet              of relevant technologies ?
        Muhammad
                                                     (A) Nagoya protocol
    (C) Commands, assertions of the
        actions of prophet Muhammad                  (B) Kyoto protocol
    (D) Commands, assertions, the                    (C) Rio protocol
        actions of prophet Muhammad
        and concensus of Muslim Jurists              (D) Cartagena protocol

                                            17                                      [P.T.O.
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73. In which case the Hon’ble Supreme          75. What is jurisdiction of National
                                                   Green Tribunal ?
    Court observed that economic
                                                   (A) Over all civil cases where a
    scientific benefits have to be                     substantial question relating to
                                                       environment is involved and
    balanced with that of minor
                                                       such question arises out of the
    radiological detriments on the                     implementation        of    the
                                                       enactments specified in
    touchstone of our national policy ?
                                                       Schedule I
    (A) G. Sundarrajan Vs. Union of                (B) Over all civil and criminal cases
        India (2013)                                   where substantial question
                                                       relating to environment has
    (B) M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India                  arisen

        (2016)                                     (C) Over all criminal cases
                                                       involving the question relating
    (C) Vaamika Island Vs. Union of                    to environmental pollution

        India (2013)                               (D) Over every case relating to
                                                       environment
    (D) Union of India Vs. T.S. Poona          76. The League of Nations was
        Wala (2015)                                established in the year :
                                                   (A) 1917
74. Hazardous and other wastes Rules
                                                   (B) 1929
    2016 are introduced to cover which
                                                   (C) 1919
    of the following international                 (D) 1918
    convention ?                               77. Which of the following was
                                                   designated as the Decade of Disabled
    (A) Basel Convention                           Persons by UN General Assembly ?

    (B) Rio Convention                             (A) 1983-1992
                                                   (B) 1993-2002
    (C) Paris Convention
                                                   (C) 1973-1982
    (D) Kyoto Convention                           (D) 1963-1972

                                          18
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78. What was the theme of the 50th             81. The term ‘‘National Treatment’’
    anniversary of the adoption of the             provides that :
    Universal Declaration of Human                 (A) The member nation shall accord
    Rights ?                                           to the nationals of the other

    (A) Human Rights for progress                      members treatment no less
                                                       favourable than that it accords
    (B) All human rights for all
                                                       to its own nationals with
    (C) Universal brotherhood
                                                       regards to the protection of IPR
    (D) Unite together for human rights
                                                   (B) The member nation shall accord
79. Which of the following cases is                    to their nationals the legitimate
    considered as a blow to Civil                      treatment as prescribed by
    Liberties in India ?                               TRIPS agreement and agreed

    (A) Asiad workers case                             upon by the member nations
                                                       signatories to it
    (B) ADM Jabalpur case
                                                   (C) The nationals of the member
    (C) Golaknath case
                                                       nations are entitled for the
    (D) A.K. Gopalan case                              protection of their IPR the
80. In which of the following cases did                treatment which prescribed
    the   National   Human      Rights                 under    the     Paris    Berne
    Commission file a petition in the                  Conventions and rectified by
    Supreme Court of India ?                           TRIPS agreement

    (A) Bhopal Gas Tragedy case                    (D) No members are allowed to
                                                       provide the different treatment
    (B) Best Bakery case
                                                       to other member nations and
    (C) 1984 Riots case
                                                       must give National treatment as
    (D) Oleum Gas leak case                            given by WIPO

                                          19                                    [P.T.O.
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82. The creation comes from the effort
                                                  85. With   respect     to   ‘Post-Grant
    and creativity of its author therefore
    an author has a natural right over               Opposition’, which of the following
    the production of their intellectual
    labour.                                          is not correct statement ?
    The above statement represents
    which one of the theories of IPR ?               (A) The Post-Grant Opposition can
     (A) The Utilitarian theory of IPR
                                                         be filed by any person after the
     (B) The Natural Right theory of
         IPR                                             grant of patent but before the
     (C) The Ethic and Reward theory
         of IPR                                          expiry of period of one year from
     (D) The Personhood theory of IPR                    the date of publication of grant
83. Which one of the following treaty
    provides a unified procedure for                     of the patent
    filing patent applications to protect
    inventions in each of its contracting            (B) The provision for filing Post-
    states ?
                                                         Grant Opposition has been
     (A) WTO
     (B) PTC                                             given u/s 25(2) of the Patents
     (C) PCT
                                                         Act, 1970
     (D) WPPT
84. A famous author ‘‘M’’ had written a              (C) The Post-Grant Opposition can
    book ‘‘Taken Together the
    Nationalism’’ in 1911. The author                    be filed by any interested person
    died in 1941.
                                                         on the identical grounds as
     When the copyright with respect to
     the book comes to an end and it falls               given for pre-grant opposition
     in public domain ?
     (A) 31/12/2001                                  (D) The Post-Grant Opposition can
     (B) 31/12/1951
                                                         be filed by any person during
     (C) 31/12/2011
     (D) 31/12/1991                                      the valid term of patent

                                             20
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86. Which one of the following is not the        87. For claiming protection under the
    grounds for refusal to register the              Geographical indications of Goods
                                                     Act, 1999 which one of the following
    trademarks u/s 11 of the
                                                     condition is not applicable ?
    Trademarks Act, 1999 ?
                                                     (A) The indications shall identify
    (A) If the trademark is, because of                   such goods as agricultural
        its identity with an earlier                      goods, natural goods or
        trademark and similarity of                       manufactured        goods    as
        goods or services covered by the                  originating or manufactured in
                                                          the territory
        trademark, there exists a
                                                     (B) The quality, reputation or other
        likelihood of confusion on the
                                                          charactristics of such goods is
        part of public                                    essentially attributable to its
    (B) If the trademark is, because of                   geographical origin
        its similarity to an earlier                 (C) Such goods are manufactured
        trademark and similarity of                       goods one of the activities of
                                                          either the production or of
        goods or services covered by the
                                                          processing or preparation takes
        trademark, there exists a                         place in such territory
        likelihood of confusion on the               (D) Such goods or product has a
        part of public                                    unique quality which is
    (C) If the trademark is, to the                       associated with as recognised
                                                          with the specific character of
        extend that, its use in India is
                                                          region class or community of
        liable to be prevented by virtue                  given territory
        of any law in particular that law
                                                 88. Which one of the following
        of passing off protecting an                 institutions is not having the part
        unregistered trademark used in               of collaborative project on
        the course of trade, or by virtue            Traditional Knowledge Digital
        of Law of Copyright                          Library (TKDL)
                                                          http://www.tkdt.res.in/
    (D) If the trademark is to the
                                                     (A) Council of Scientific and
        extend that its use in India is
                                                          Industrial Research (CSIR)
        liable to cause serious prejudice
                                                     (B) Ministry of Science and
        to public policy, may hamper                      Technology
        the economic policy of
                                                     (C) Department of AYUSH
        government or cause serious
                                                     (D) Ministry of Human Resource
        prejudice to public sentiment                     Development
                                            21                                    [P.T.O.
MH SET 2023 question paper, 26 March 2023, Paper II, Law, page 22 of 24
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89. In the context of S. 38(1) of the IT          91. ‘Cartel’ as defined under the Section.
    Act, 2000 dealing with revocation of              2(C) of the Competition Act may
    Digital signature certificate, which              take place between :
    one of the following is not the ground             (A) Producers and consumers
    for revocation ?
                                                       (B) Indian consumers and foreign
     (A) A Certifying Authority may                        consumers
         revoke the Digital Signature
                                                       (C) Workers of same sector situated
         Certificate if the subscriber or
                                                           in different states
         any other person authorised by
         him makes a request to that                   (D) Service providers among them-
         effect                                            selves
     (B) A Certifying Authority may               92. The coverage under ‘‘third party
         revoke the Digital Signature                 insurance’’ is not available to :
         Certificate upon the death of the             (A) Victims
         subscriber
                                                       (B) Wife of the deceased victim
     (C) A Certifying Authority may
                                                       (C) Damage to the vehicle
         revoke the Digital Signature
         Certificate if subscriber is                  (D) Any person who sustained an
         punished by the competent                         injury arising out of an accident
         court in India                                    involving motor vehicle
     (D) A Certifying Authority may               93. Which of the following is not a
         revoke the Digital Signature                 Federal Constitution ?
         Certificate upon the dissolution              (A) United Kingdom
         of the firm or winding up of the
                                                       (B) United States of America
         company where the subscriber
         is a firm or a company                        (C) Canada

90. Which of the following provisions of               (D) Australia
    the Information Technology Act,               94. The United States Presidential
    2000 deals with the ‘‘Cyber                       System is based on the doctrine of :
    Terrorism’’ ?                                      (A) Cabinet system
     (A) Section 66 B                                  (B) Fusion of Legislature and
     (B) Section 66 C                                      Executive
     (C) Section 66 D                                  (C) Collective responsibility
     (D) Section 66 E                                  (D) Separation of powers
                                             22
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95. The      Federal    scheme      in   the          98. Article V of the United States
                                                          Constitution provides for .............. of
    Constitution of India is adopted
                                                          the Constitution.
    from :
                                                           (A) Amendment
    (A) Australia                                          (B) Ratification

    (B) Government of India Act 1935                       (C) Constitutional status
                                                           (D) States
    (C) Government of India Act 1919
                                                      99. First Constitutional Amendment
    (D) Canada                                            Act, 1951 brought additional 3 new
                                                          grounds of restriction upon the
96. Independence of Judiciary is
                                                          freedom of speech in India.
    guaranteed in UK by the .............                  (A) Friendly relations with Foreign
    (A) Crown Proceeding Act 1947                              States, Public order and
                                                               Incitement to an offence
    (B) Country Courts Act, 1984                           (B) Decency, contempt of court and
    (C) Constitutional Reform Act 2005                         defamation
                                                           (C) Morality, defamation and
    (D) Justice of the Peace Act 1979
                                                               Public order
97. In    America,       the    power      of              (D) Contempt of court, the security
    constitutional review is with the ........                 of the state and defamation
                                                      100. Right to Information in India
    and it is authorised to declare any
                                                           includes the right to :
    act of legislature or executive
                                                           (A) inspection of work, documents,
    unconstitutional.                                          records

    (A) Congress                                           (B) taking notes, extracts or
                                                               certified copies of documents or
    (B) Senate                                                 records

    (C) Representative of People                           (C) taking certified samples of
                                                               material
    (D) Judicial Court
                                                           (D) All the above

                                                 23                                          [P.T.O.
MH SET 2023 question paper, 26 March 2023, Paper II, Law, page 24 of 24
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ROUGH WORK




    24
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Source: Savitribai Phule Pune University. Question paper published by Savitribai Phule Pune University.