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MH SET 2025: 15 June, Paper II, Law

  • Date: 15 June 2025
  • Paper code: JUN-60225
  • Series: A
  • Language: Bilingual
  • 24 pages
MH SET 2025 question paper, 15 June 2025, Paper II, Law, page 1 of 24
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Test Booklet Code & Serial No.
                                                                                                                               A
                                                                             Paper-II
                                                                                   LAW
       Signature and Name of Invigilator                                                          Seat No.
       1. (Signature) .........................................                                                      (In figures as in Admit Card)
             (Name) ................................................                      Seat No. ..............................................................
       2. (Signature) .........................................                                                (In words)

             (Name) ................................................                  OMR Sheet No.
       JUN - 60225                                                                                                 (To be filled by the Candidate)
       Time Allowed : 2 Hours]                                                                                  [Maximum Marks : 200
       Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24                                                      Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
                              Instructions for the Candidates
       1.          Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided              1.
                   on the top of this page.
       2.          This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question
                   will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory.      2.
       3.          At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
                   will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
                   requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as             3.
                   follows :
                   (i)      To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the                    (i)
                            paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
                            a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
                   (ii)     Tally the number of pages and number of questions in                    (ii)
                            the booklet with the information printed on the cover
                            page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questions
                            or questions repeated or not in serial order or any
                            other discrepancy should not be accepted and correct
                            booklet should be obtained from the invigilator within
                            the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
                            Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be                     (iii)
                            given. The same may please be noted.
                   (iii)    After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
                            should be entered on this Test Booklet.                         4.                     (A), (B), (C)   (D)
       4.          Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
                   (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
                   the correct response against each item.
                   Example : where (B) is the correct response.                                              (B)

                                A                  C        D                                                        A              C       D
                   Following wrong methods should not be used as they are not                                                                 (Digitized)
                   recognised by scanning machine in digitized assessment.
                   Candidate using such method will be responsible for their loss.

CORRECT METHOD                          WRONG METHODS
                                                                           CORRECT METHOD                                WRONG METHODS
        C      D        A B C D        A B C D         A B C D      A B C D
                                                                                   C D                      A B C D      A B C D    A B C D      A B C D
       5.          Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
                   Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place            5.
                   other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
       6.          Read instructions given inside carefully.                                6.
       7.          Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.                     7.
       8.          If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put
                   any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space              8.
                   allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
                   identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
                   means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
       9.          You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
                   end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with           9.
                   you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
                   to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
                   conclusion of examination.                                               10.
       10.         Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
       11.         Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.                 11.
       12.         There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.                      12.
MH SET 2025 question paper, 15 June 2025, Paper II, Law, page 2 of 24
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JUN- 60225/II—A




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MH SET 2025 question paper, 15 June 2025, Paper II, Law, page 3 of 24
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JUN - 60225/II—A
                                      LAW
                                   Paper II
Time Allowed : 120 Minutes]                                [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question
        carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1.   The most fundamental philosophical        3.   Fiction theory is supported by :

     assumption of legal positivism is :            (A) Savigny


     (A) Law as it is & Law ought to be             (B) Ihering

                                                    (C) Hart
     (B) Custom

                                                    (D) Kelsen
     (C) Minimum Efficacy
                                               4.   Law    Commission      of   India
     (D) Morality
                                                    recommended that adultery shall
2.   ‘A law is a general rule of human              not be considered as a crime
     action, taking cognizance only of
                                                    therefore shall be deleted from
     external acts, enforced by a
                                                    IPC, 1860. This recommendation is
     determinate authority’. Who said
                                                    based on :
     this ?
                                                    (A) Shaw’s Case
     (A) Granville William

     (B) Justice A.N. Ray                           (B) Navtej Singh Johar Case

     (C) Holland                                    (C) Wolfenden Committee Report

     (D) Gray                                       (D) Harm Principle

                                           3
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5.   The word ‘possessio’ denotes :             8.   ‘Prescription may be defined as the
     (A) the absolute right to a thing               effect of lapse of time creating and
     (B) physical control over a thing               destroying rights; it is the operation
     (C) absolute justice                            of time as a vestitive fact’. This
     (D) hohfeldian philosophy of right              definition is given by :
6.   ‘Animus Possidendi’ means :
                                                     (A) Salmond
     (A) the intent to appropriate to
         oneself the exclusive use of the            (B) Holland
         thing possessed
                                                     (C) Locke
     (B) the right of possession is a
         conception clearly easy to                  (D) Paton
         understand but difficult to            9.   Match the following jural correlative :
         define with exactitude
                                                           List I                        List II
     (C) Corporal contact is not the
         physical element                            (a) Right              (i)          Liability

     (D) Owner loses physical contact                (b) Privilege         (ii)          Duty
         with the thing
                                                     (c) Power             (iii)         Disability
7.   The doctrine of mens rea as a
     running thread in the form of :                 (d) Immunity          (iv)          No Right

     (A) Intentionally alone                                (a)     (b)            (c)       (d)

     (B) Fraudulently alone                          (A)    (iii)   (i)            (iv)      (ii)

     (C) Dishonestly alone                           (B)    (ii)    (iv)           (i)       (iii)
     (D) Intentionally,      voluntarily,
                                                     (C)    (iv)    (ii)           (iii)     (i)
         knowingly,         fraudulently,
                                                     (D)    (i)     (ii)           (iii)     (iv)
         dishonestly and the like...

                                            4
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10. Who among the following divided the       12. Audit report relating to account of
                                                  Union shall be submitted by
    sources of law into formal sources            Comptroller and Auditor-General to :
    and material sources ?                        (A) President of India
                                                  (B) Prime Minister of India
    (A) Gray
                                                  (C) Union Finance Minister
    (B) Keton                                     (D) Parliament
                                              13. Which of the statement is incorrect
    (C) Allen
                                                  with regard to the law making
    (D) Salmond                                   power ?
                                                  (A) In case of inconsistency
11. Under which of the following cases                between the Central and State
                                                      law, the Central law will prevail
    the Preamble was held to be part
                                                  (B) In case a State law is
    of the Basic Structure of the
                                                      repugnant to the Central law in
    Constitution ?                                    a subject matter under List III
                                                      of Schedule VII, the State law
    (A) Berubari Union (1), re, AIR                   will prevail over the Central
                                                      law if it has received the assent
        1960 SC 845
                                                      of the President

    (B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State              (C) The Central Law will prevail
                                                      over the State law when the
        of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461                   subject matter is provided
                                                      under the List II of Schedule
    (C) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India,
                                                      VII.
        (1994) 3 SCC 1                            (D) The Parliament has power to
                                                      add, amend, vary or repeal the
    (D) State of U.P. v. Dina Nath                    State law enacted and has

        Shukla, AIR 1997 SC 1095                      received assent of the President.

                                          5
MH SET 2025 question paper, 15 June 2025, Paper II, Law, page 6 of 24
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14. In which of the following cases             16. For how many years from the
    Supreme Court of India laid down               commencement of the Constitution,
    the principle that Article 136 is not
                                                   the temporary power to Parliament
    a regular form of appeal at all ?
                                                   to make laws with respect to certain
    (A) Keshav Prasad Sharma v.
                                                   matters in State List as if they were
        Indian Oil Corporation, (2011)
        2 SCALE 2                                  matters in the Concurrent List were
                                                   provided ?
    (B) Dr Gulshan Prakash v. State of
        Haryana, AIR 2010 SC 288                   (A) Five years
    (C) Rajbala v. State of Haryana,
                                                   (B) Ten years
        AIR 2016 SC 33
                                                   (C) Fifteen years
    (D) State of Karnatka v. Union of
        India, AIR 1978 SC 68                      (D) Twenty years
15. Which of the alternatives may be
                                                17. When     the     Chief      Election
    adopted when a proclamation of
                                                   Commissioner takes leave, his
    emergency is laid before a House of
    Parliament ?                                   functions shall be taken over by which

    (I) approve the proclamation by                of the following authorities as decided
        passing a resolution                       in the case of T.N. Seshan v. Union

    (II) take no action                            of India, (1995) 4 SCC 611 ?

    (III) reject or disapprove of it               (A) Deputy Election Commissioner
    (IV) refer the matter to the Supreme           (B) The Delegatee of the Chief
         Court of India
                                                       Election Commissioner
    (A) (I) or (III) or (IV) only
                                                   (C) The next senior Election
    (B) (I) or (II) or (III) only
                                                       Commissioner
    (C) (II) or (III) or (IV) only
                                                   (D) The President of India
    (D) (I) or (II) or (IV) only

                                            6
MH SET 2025 question paper, 15 June 2025, Paper II, Law, page 7 of 24
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JUN - 60225/II—A

18. Which among the following, regard            19. Which     one   of   the    following

    must be had to be given for                      statements does not explain the
                                                     meaning of natural justice ?
    determining whether a power is an                (A) Natural justice is another name
    administrative power or a quasi-                     of common-sense justice
                                                     (B) Rules of natural justice are not
    judicial power ?
                                                         codified canons
    (I)    the nature of the power                   (C) Rules of natural justice are the
                                                         command of the sovereign
           conferred
                                                     (D) Rules of natural justice are
    (II)   the person or persons on whom                 ingrained into the conscience of
                                                         man
           it is conferred
                                                 20. Under which of the following
    (III) the framework of the law                   grounds can there be judicial review
                                                     of the quasi-judicial decisions ?
           conferring the power
                                                     (I)    Absence and         excess   of
    (IV) the consequences ensuing                           jurisdiction

           from the exercise of that power           (II)   Erroneous       exercise     of
                                                            jurisdiction on a point of law
    (V)    the manner in which that                         which is apparent on the face
                                                            of the record
           power is expected to be
                                                     (III) Contravention of the principles
           exercised
                                                           of natural justice

    (A) (I) and (V) only                             (IV) Appeal against the decision of
                                                          an administrative authority
    (B) (I), (II), (III) and (V) only                (A) (I), (II) and (IV)

    (C) (I), (II), (IV) and (V) only                 (B) (I), (II) and (III)
                                                     (C) (I), (III) and (IV)
    (D) (I), (II), (III), (IV) and (V)
                                                     (D) (II), (III) and (IV)

                                             7
MH SET 2025 question paper, 15 June 2025, Paper II, Law, page 8 of 24
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21. Who does not subscribe this view,              24. Domicile denotes the ......... of the
    ‘The International law is not a                    person ?
    proper law’ ?
                                                       (A) Birth
    (A) Hobbes
                                                       (B) Race
    (B) Austin
                                                       (C) Residence
    (C) Pufendorf
                                                       (D) Caste
    (D) Oppenheim
                                                   25. Who among of the following can be
22. According     to   Statute     of the
    International Court of Justice the                 extradited ?

    Custom is considered as ......... Source           (A) Political criminal
    of the international law ?
                                                       (B) Religious criminal
    (A) First
                                                       (C) Military criminal
    (B) Second
                                                       (D) An Accused Person
    (C) Third
                                                   26. Which of the following is not a part
    (D) Fourth
                                                       of the Principal Organs of the United
23. Which of the following is not a mode
                                                       Nations Organization ?
    of Recognition ?

    (A) Express & implied recognition                  (A) General Assembly

    (B) Conditional recognition                        (B) Security Council

    (C) Collective recognition                         (C) UNICEF

    (D) Independent recognition                        (D) International Court of Justice

                                               8
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27. Which of the following is not a          29. Who    convened      the    Hague


    Pacific Means of Settlement ?                Convention of 1899 ?


                                                 (A) Emperor Nicholas-II
    (A) Arbitration

                                                 (B) President Roosevelt
    (B) Negotiations

                                                 (C) Kaiser Wilhelm-II
    (C) Reprisal

                                                 (D) Albert Lebrun
    (D) Mediation

                                             30. When does the high contracting
28. In the year 1994, India signed the
                                                 parties have obligation to respect
    Dunkel Agreement constructed in
                                                 International Humanitarian Law ?
    .......... .
                                                 (A) During Peace Time

    (A) 8th Round-Uruguay
                                                 (B) During Armed Conflict

    (B) 4th Round-Geneva
                                                 (C) During Peace time as well as

    (C) 6th Round-Kennedy                            Armed conflict


    (D) 7th Round-Tokyo                          (D) During Emergency


                                         9
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31. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R)                 32. Which of the following comes under

    with the help of codes given below it                 the category, one who assists a felony
                                                          after his crime with a view to
    point out the correct explanation :
                                                          shielding from justice ?
    Assertion (A) :
                                                          (A) Principal in the first degree
    The difference between murder and
                                                          (B) Principal in the second degree
    culpable homicide not amounting to
                                                          (C) Accessory before the fact
    murder is a difference of degree of risk
                                                          (D) Accessory after the fact
    or probability and not its form :
                                                      33. The term ‘Victim’ has been defined
    Reason (R) :
                                                          under :
    The     degree       of    intention    or
                                                          (A) Section 2 (Wa) Cr.P.C
    knowledge determines the nature of
                                                          (B) Section 2 (Wb) Cr.P.C.
    the offence.
                                                          (C) Section 2 (Xa) Cr.P.C.
    Codes :
                                                          (D) Section 2 (Za) Cr.P.C.
    (A) Both       (A)        and   (R)    are
                                                      34. ‘A’ man inserts an object into the
          individually true and (R) is the
                                                          urethra of a woman without her
          correct explanation of (A)                      consent. ‘A’ is liable to punish for the

    (B) Both       (A)        and   (R)    are            offence of :

          individually true and (R) is not                (A) Rape

          the correct explanation of (A)                  (B) Unnatural offence

    (C) (A) is true but (R) is false                      (C) Outraging modesty of a woman

    (D) (A) is false but (R) is true                      (D) Attempt to commit rape


                                                 10
MH SET 2025 question paper, 15 June 2025, Paper II, Law, page 11 of 24
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35. Match List I with List II and select         36. Human trafficking is a form of :
    the correct answer using the codes
                                                      (A) Violent crime
    given below it :
                                                      (B) Blue Collar Crime
                   List-I
                                                      (C) Organised Crime
    (a) Wrongful loss or damage to the
                                                      (D) White Collar Crime
          public or to any person
                                                 37. ‘A’ meets ‘B’ on high roads, shows
    (b) Dominion over property
                                                      a pistol and demands B’s purse. ‘B’
    (c) Dishonest taking of property                  in consequence, surrenders his
                                                      purse. Here ‘A’ has committed :
    (d) Conversion of property
                                                      (A) Theft
                   List-II
                                                      (B) Extortion
    (i)   Criminal Breach of Trust
                                                      (C) Robbery
    (ii) Theft
                                                      (D) Dacoity
    (iii) Mischief
                                                 38. A criminal act in ............ consists of
    (iv) Criminal Misappropriation
                                                      the entire bundle of acts or
    Codes :                                           omissions, tied together with the

           (a)       (b)     (c)     (d)              chain of common intention that have
                                                      combined to constitute the offences.
    (A)    (i)       (iii)   (iv)    (ii)
                                                      (A) Section 34 of IPC
    (B)    (iv)      (ii)    (iii)   (i)
                                                      (B) Section 149 of IPC
    (C)    (iii)     (i)     (ii)    (iv)
                                                      (C) Section 141 of IPC
    (D)    (ii)      (iv)    (iii)   (i)
                                                      (D) Both (A) and (B)

                                            11
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39. The right of private defence is :            42. An obligation under sui generis is
                                                     a base for prevention of :
    (A) Defensive Right
                                                     (A) Unjust enrichment
    (B) Punitive Right                               (B) Obligation to sue

    (C) Retributive Right                            (C) Suit in general
                                                     (D) Obligation is general defence
    (D) Remedial Right
                                                 43. Mala feasance applies to :
40. Section 87 to 93 of Indian Penal code            (A) The omission of lawful act
    are based on the maxim :                         (B) Unlawful act which are
                                                         actionable per se and do not
    (A) Ignorentia juris non excusat                     require proof of intention or
                                                         motive
    (B) Volunti non fit injuria
                                                     (C) Unlawful act which are not
    (C) De minimus non curat lex                         actionable per se
                                                     (D) Lawful act with bonafide
    (D) Actus non facit reum nisi mens
                                                         intention
         sit rea.                                44. The court held that state was under
                                                     Constitutional liability to pay
41. Which of the following option is
                                                     compensation which also applies to
    incorrect ?                                      non citizen in the case of :
                                                     (A) Chairman Railway Board v.
    Damages are awarded for :
                                                         Chandrima Das
    (A) Libel suit                                   (B) D.K. Basu v. State of West
                                                         Bengal
    (B) Loss
                                                     (C) State of Rajasthan v. Vidyavati
    (C) Personal injury                              (D) Sebastian Hongray v. Union of
                                                         India.
    (D) Violation of code of conduct

                                            12
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45. Wagon mount test is related to :             48. Which of the following is/are
                                                     considered as consumer rights under
    (A) Claim and compensation
                                                     Consumer Protection Act of 1986 ?
    (B) Compensation                                 (1) Right to choose
    (C) Forcibility                                  (2) Right to be heard
    (D) Wages and Damages                            (3) Right to seek redressal

46. Damages which are awarded when                   (4) Right to return
    it is necessary to compensate the                Select the correct option :
    plantiff fairly for the injury he has            (A) All 1, 2, 3 and 4
    infact sustained are called as :                 (B) Only 1, 2 and 3
    (A) Contemptuous damages                         (C) Only 4

    (B) Nominal damages                              (D) Only 1, 3 and 4
                                                 49. In view of section 140 No fault
    (C) Ordinary damages
                                                     liability is to be invoked when :
    (D) Exemplary damages
                                                     (A) Death has been resulted from
47. Act of God, wrongful act of third                    an accident arising out of M.V.
    party, Plantiffs own default,                        Act 1988
    Artificial work maintained for the               (B) Death or Permanent disability
    common benefit of plantiff or                        has been resulted from an
    defendant, and when it is the                        accident arising out of M.V. Act
    consequences of an act done under                    1988
    the authority of statute are the                 (C) Permanent disability has been
    exception of :                                       resulted from an accident
    (A) Absolute liability                               arising out of a M.V. Act 1988
                                                     (D) When     neither    death   nor
    (B) Strict liability
                                                         permanent disability has been
    (C) Vicarious liability
                                                         resulted from an accident
    (D) Tort                                             arising out of M.V. Act 1988.

                                            13
MH SET 2025 question paper, 15 June 2025, Paper II, Law, page 14 of 24
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50. Under the Competition Act 2002,               53. A and B jointly owe Rs. 100 to C.
    Abuse of dominant position is                     A alone pays the amount to C and
    explained under :
                                                      B not knowing the fact pays Rs. 100
    (A) Section 4
                                                      again to C. Whether B can.
    (B) Section 5
                                                      (A) recover the amount U/s 71 of
    (C) Section 3
                                                          the Contract Act, 1872
    (D) Section 6

51. An obligation under contract which                (B) recover the amount U/s 72 of

    is under undue influence is a :                       the Contract Act, 1872

    (A) Valid contract
                                                      (C) Can’t recover the amount
    (B) Void contract
                                                      (D) Recover the amount U/s 70 of
    (C) Voidable contract
                                                          the Contract Act, 1872
    (D) Illegal contract
                                                  54. A Pledge by now owner is not valid
52. When cargo is sent by rail or
    steamer, loss caused by delayed                   is an universally accepted Principle
    delivery should be regarded as loss               of law but Section 178 of the Indian
    naturally arising in the course of the
                                                      Contract Act, 1872 makes it valid
    things was held in :
                                                      if it was made by :
    (A) Hadley V. Baxendale

    (B) Victoria laundry (Windsor) LTD                (A) factor
        V. Newman Industries Ltd
                                                      (B) Auctioneer
    (C) The Herow II
                                                      (C) Mercantile agent
    (D) Simpson V. London & North
        Western Rly. Co.                              (D) Banker

                                             14
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55. No property in the goods is                   58. A promoters contract, as agent ,
    transferred to the buyer unless and               makes him personally liable was
    until the goods are :
                                                      held in :
    (A) Ascertained goods
                                                      (A) Kelner V. Baxter
    (B) Unascertained goods
                                                      (B) Oakes V. Turquand
    (C) Future goods

    (D) Goods to be manufactured                      (C) Moosa Goolam Ariff V. Ebrahim

56. A minor is not competent to enter                     Goolam Ariff
    into a valid contract. A minor may
                                                      (D) Bowman V. Secular Society Ltd.
    be partner by limited liability. Minor
    as a party to the agreement the               59. The first directors the company are

    partnership deed is :                             to be appointment by :

    (A) Valid contract                                (A) The     subscribers   of   the
    (B) Void contract                                     Memorandum of Association
    (C) Voidable contract
                                                      (B) From the data Bank made by
    (D) Beneficial contract                               expertise body notified by the
57. The special rules of evidence                         central government.
    regarding the presumptions as to
    negotiable instruments provided                   (C) by small shareholders as may

    under sections of N.I. Act, 1881 :                    be holding not more than Rs.

    (A) 102 to 106                                        20,000 or such other sum as

    (B) 107 to 111                                        may be prescribed

    (C) 112 to 116                                    (D) Nomination by shareholder

    (D) 118 to 122                                        having 10 percent of stake.

                                             15
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60.   The Board of Directors of every company          63. The Court shall decide upon the
      has to ensure that the company spends,               divorce petition only after ......... of
      in every financial year of the average               filing of divorce petition u/sec. 13B.
      net profit of the company during the last
      three preceeding financial years in                  (A) 1 month
      persuance of the recommendations of :                (B) 3 months
      (A) Annual general meeting
                                                           (C) 6 months
      (B) Social Responsibility Committee
                                                           (D) 1 year
      (C) Social responsibility committee
          under CSR Policy of the                      64. Which Hindu law school recognizes
          company                                          joint ownership of property by
      (D) Board of Directors Meeting                       birth ?

61. Under Mitakashara, who among the                       (A) Mitakshara
    following have equal right by birth
                                                           (B) Dayabhaga
    in the joint family property when the
    father is alive ?                                      (C) Yajnavalkya
      (A) Only Karta                                       (D) Medhatithi
      (B) Son, grandson and Great                      65. “Long term relationship cannot be
          Grandson
                                                           deemed to be a ‘walk in and walk
      (C) Only male members                                out’ relationship and that the parties
      (D) All family members                               are presumed to be married.”
62. Who among the following is not
                                                           (A) Khushboo V. Kanniammal
    entitled to give the child in adoption
    under Hindu law ?                                      (B) Lata Singh V. State of Uttar

      (A) Natural parents                                      Pradesh

      (B) Adoptive parents                                 (C) Mary Roy V. State of Kerala

      (C) Civil Court                                      (D) Madan Mohan Singh and Ors.

      (D) Guardian                                             V. Rajni Kant and Anr.

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66. Which Section of the Hindu                     70. Under Hindu Law, Sapinda
    Adoption and Maintenance Act,                      relationship extends to the extent of :
    1956 empowers the court to alter the                (A) One generation each in the
    amount of maintenance ?                                 ascendant of mother and father
     (A) Section 18
                                                        (B) Three generations each in the
     (B) Section 20                                         ascendant of mother and father
     (C) Section 25                                     (C) Three and five generation in the
     (D) Section 27                                         ascendant of mother and father
67. Donation Mortis causa means :                           respectively
     (A) Donation for good cause                        (D) Three and five generation in the
     (B) Death bed gift                                     ascendant of father and mother
     (C) Donation without cause is void                     respectively.
     (D) Dead cannot donate                        71. Which environmental pollutant
68. What is one of the main challenges                 caused yellowing and corrosion of
    in implementation of Uniform Civil                 the marble of Taj Mahal ?
    Code in India ?
                                                        (A) Carbon monoxide
     (A) Lack of public support
     (B) Religious      diversity     and               (B) Methyl isocyanate
         sentiments                                     (C) Sulphur dioxide
     (C) Overwhelming             judicial
                                                        (D) Ammonium nitrate
         interference
     (D) Insufficient legislative authority        72. What was the main objective of
                                                       Basel Convention, 1989 :
69. In Gollins case, the court opined that
    the purpose of divorce law was not                  (A) To reduce air pollution
    to punish the guilty spouse but to
                                                        (B) To reduce the generation and
    protect the innocent spouse. This
    opinion gave birth to :                                 movement of hazardous and
                                                            other wastes
     (A) Fault Theory of divorce
                                                        (C) To reduce emission of green
     (B) Consent Theory of divorce
                                                            house gases
     (C) Breakdown Theory of divorce
                                                        (D) To reduce generation of toxic
     (D) Modern Theory of divorce
                                                            gases
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73. Sunderban region of West Bengal as           77. What does the right to decide
    per coastal zone management
    notification, 2019 is known as :                 political status & to freely pursue
    (A) Area     requiring       special             economic, social and cultural
        consideration
                                                     development known as ?
    (B) Critically vulnerable coastal
        area                                         (A) Right of self government
    (C) Inter-tidal area
                                                     (B) Right of self rule
    (D) Special Economic Zone
74. Under Rule 4 of Hazardous & Other                (C) Right of self determination
    Wastes Rules, 2016 who shall be
    responsible      for   safe    &                 (D) Right of development
    environmentally            sound
    management of hazardous & other              78. Which instrument is said to be the
    Wastes ?
                                                     mine from which other conventions
    (A) Manager
                                                     as well as national constitutions
    (B) Collector
                                                     protecting these rights have been
    (C) Occupier
    (D) SPCB                                         and are being quarried ?
75. Maximum how many judicial                        (A) International Covenant on
    members may be there in National
    Green Tribunal ?                                     Civil    & Political Rights
    (A) 7
                                                     (B) Universal declaration of Human
    (B) 15
                                                         Rights
    (C) 10
    (D) 20                                           (C) Convention on Elimination of
76. Who has classified human rights as                   All forms of Discrimination
    first generation, second generation &
    third generation human rights ?                      Against Women
    (A) Karel Vasek
                                                     (D) International Covenant on
    (B) Karl Marx
                                                         Economic, Social & Cultural
    (C) Jeremy Bentham
    (D) John Stuart Mill                                 Rights

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79. Which is the first globally binding            81. Trade-Related            Aspects     of
    treaty for the protection of children’s
                                                      Intellectual       Property     Rights
    civil, political, economic, social &
    cultural rights ?
                                                      (TRIPS) Agreement of World Trade
    (A) Universal declaration of Human
        Rights                                        Organisation-Part II, mentioned

    (B) Declaration of the Rights of
                                                      under ..........
        Child
    (C) The convention on the Rights                  (i)   Articles     9-14     relates   to
        of the child
    (D) Optional protocol to convention                     Copyright and related rights
        on the Rights of the child
                                                      (ii) Articles 25-26 relates to Patents
80. Which amongst the following is not
    the function of National Commission
    for Minorities ?                                  (iii) Articles      22-24       relates

    (A) Enact the laws for welfare of                       Geographical indications
        minorities
    (B) Make recommendations for the                  (iv) Articles 15-21         relates to
        protection of interests of
        minorities to       the   central                   Trademarks
        government or state government
    (C) Look into specific complaints                 (A) only (iii) is correct
        regarding deprivation of rights
        and safeguards of the minorities              (B) only (i) is correct

    (D) Cenduct studies, research &
        analysis on the issues relating               (C) only (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct
        to socio-economic & educational
        development of minorities                     (D) only (i), (iii), and (iv) are correct

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82. The Paris Convention :                          84. The Copyright Act, 1957 does not

    (i)   concluded on 20th March 1883                   recognize any copyright in ........

    (ii) there are 30 articles in the                    (A) An Idea
          convention                                     (B) Computer Software
    (iii) there are more than 240                        (C) Novels
          participating member countries
                                                         (D) Songs
    (iv) It is the first multilateral effort
          for the protection of industrial          85. The first legislation in India relating

          property                                       to Patents was the Act VI of 1856.
                                                         This legislation has :
    (A) only (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct
                                                         (i)   objective    to     encourage
    (B) only (ii), and (iv) are correct
                                                               inventions of new and useful
    (C) only (i) and (iv) are correct
                                                               manufacturers
    (D) only (ii), and (iii) are correct
                                                         (ii) objective is to induce inventors
83. The Berne Convention for the
                                                               to disclose secret of their
    Protection of Literary and Artistic
                                                               inventions
    Works (September 9, 1886) depends
    upon) .............                                  (iii) subsequently repealed by IX of
                                                               1857
    (A) Reliability, Natural Justice, and
          Accountability                                 (iv) based upon New York State

    (B) National Treatment, Automatic                          Constitution of 1846
          Protection, and Independence                   (A) Only (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
    (C) Natural Justice, Independence,                   (B) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
          and Reliability
                                                         (C) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
    (D) Equality,          Justice     and
                                                         (D) Only (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
          Accountability

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86. Infringement         of    Registered            88. According to Section 8 of the

    Trademark dealt under section .....                  Biological Diversity Act, 2002, which
                                                         of the following authority is
    of Trademark Act, 1999.
                                                         established      by     the   Central
    (A) Section 22                                       Government to regulate, transfer,
                                                         and use of biodiversity resources at
    (B) Section 24
                                                         the national level ?
    (C) Section 29                                       (A) The       Central   Biodiversity
                                                              Commission
    (D) Section 30
                                                         (B) The Union Biodiversity Board
87. Under Section 3 of the Geographical
                                                         (C) The National Biodiversity
    Indication of Goods (Registration
                                                              Authority
    and Protection) Act, 1999, the
                                                         (D) The National Bio-Gas Board
    Controller General of Patent,                    89. Under Section 62 of the Information
    Design, and Trademarks is also                       Technology Act, provides a person

    appointed as ............ of Geographical            aggrieved by the decision of the
                                                         Cyber Appellate Tribunal may file
    Indications.
                                                         an appeal to the High Court
    (A) Principal                                        within.....

                                                         (A) 60 days
    (B) Registrar
                                                         (B) 45 days
    (C) Controller
                                                         (C) 90 days
    (D) President
                                                         (D) 30 days

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90. As per the Information Technology            92. Who prefers to call Indian federalism
    Act, Section–‘Whoever intentionally
                                                     as ‘co-operative federalism’ which
    or knowingly captures, publishes or
                                                     produces a strong central
    transmits the image of a private
    area of any person, shall be                     government yet it does not
    punished under :                                 necessarily result its weak provincial
                                                     governments that are largely
    (A) 02 years imprisonment with 2
                                                     administrative agencies for central
        lakh rupees fine or both
                                                     policies ?
    (B) 01 years imprisonment with 2
        lakh rupees fine or both                     (A) A.V. Dicey

    (C) 03 years imprisonment with 2                 (B) Ivor Jennings
        lakh rupees fine or both
                                                     (C) Thomas Jefferson
    (D) 05 years imprisonment with 5
                                                     (D) Granville Austin
        lakh rupees fine or both
                                                 93. Who has insisted that : “Rule of Law
91. The following three fold essential
    characteristics attracts which model             must run close to rule of Life. It
    of government :                                  cannot go off or tangent from life
                                                     problem” ?
    (i)   Supremacy      of   a   written
          constitution                               (A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
    (ii) Distribution of powers amongst              (B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
         various organs of federation
                                                     (C) Prof. A.V. Dicey
         and regional units of federation
         by the provisions of that                   (D) Roscoe Pound
         constitution
                                                 94. The most significant “Supremacy
    (iii) Judicial review or enforcement             clause” found in which Article of the
          of that supreme constitution as
                                                     United States constitution ?
          law.
                                                     (A) Article I
    (A) Federalism
    (B) Parliamentary                                (B) Article IV

    (C) Unitary                                      (C) Article VI

    (D) Quasi-Judicial                               (D) Article VIII

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95. Judge of the Supreme Court shall            98. Which of the constitutional
    not be removed by the President                 amendment has amended Article
    except on joint House of Parliament             359 which now provides that the
    by majority of total membership and             enforcement of the right to life and
    majority of not less than two-third             liberty under Article 21 cannot be
    of members present and voting in                suspended by the president order :
    each house on ground of proved
    misbehaviour or incapacity in                    (A) Constitution (Seventy Fifth
    question stated in the article :                     Amendment) Act, 1993

    (A) Article 127(1)                               (B) Constitution (Forty Second
                                                         Amendment) Act, 1976
    (B) Article 129
                                                     (C) Constitution (Forty-Third
    (C) Article 125(2)
                                                         Amendment) Act, 1977
    (D) Article 124(4)
                                                     (D) Constitution (Forty-Fourth
96. Under which constitution that
                                                         Amendment) Act, 1978
    no law can be promulgated until
    they are declared as constitutional         99. Sweden the first country to adopt the
    by the constitutional council as per            ombudsman institution in the
    Article 61 ?                                    scandinavian countries in the year :

    (A) U.K.                                         (A) 1809
    (B) USA                                          (B) 1807
    (C) France                                       (C) 1919
    (D) Canada                                       (D) 1909
97. Which of the following is Article of        100. The belief that access to information
    the American constitution reads as               is a human right reflected in which
    the formal procedure for initiation              Article of the Universal Declaration of
    and ratification of constitutional               Human Rights of December 1948 :
    amendment ?
                                                     (A) Article 18
    (A) Article VIII
                                                     (B) Article 10
    (B) Article IX
                                                     (C) Article 6
    (C) Article V
                                                     (D) Article 19
    (D) Article I

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ROUGH WORK




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Source: Savitribai Phule Pune University. Question paper published by Savitribai Phule Pune University.