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MH SET 2025: 15 June, Paper II, Life Sciences

  • Date: 15 June 2025
  • Paper code: JUN-34225
  • Series: A
  • Language: Bilingual
  • 24 pages
MH SET 2025 question paper, 15 June 2025, Paper II, Life Sciences, page 1 of 24
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Test Booklet Code & Serial No.
                                                                                                                               A
                                                                             Paper-II
                                                                     LIFE SCIENCE
       Signature and Name of Invigilator                                                          Seat No.
       1. (Signature) .........................................                                                      (In figures as in Admit Card)
             (Name) ................................................                      Seat No. ..............................................................
       2. (Signature) .........................................                                                (In words)

             (Name) ................................................                  OMR Sheet No.
       JUN - 34225                                                                                                 (To be filled by the Candidate)
       Time Allowed : 2 Hours]                                                                                  [Maximum Marks : 200
       Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24                                                      Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
                              Instructions for the Candidates
       1.          Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided              1.
                   on the top of this page.
       2.          This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question
                   will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory.      2.
       3.          At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
                   will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are
                   requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as             3.
                   follows :
                   (i)      To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the                    (i)
                            paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept
                            a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
                   (ii)     Tally the number of pages and number of questions in                    (ii)
                            the booklet with the information printed on the cover
                            page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questions
                            or questions repeated or not in serial order or any
                            other discrepancy should not be accepted and correct
                            booklet should be obtained from the invigilator within
                            the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
                            Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be                     (iii)
                            given. The same may please be noted.
                   (iii)    After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
                            should be entered on this Test Booklet.                         4.                     (A), (B), (C)   (D)
       4.          Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
                   (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on
                   the correct response against each item.
                   Example : where (B) is the correct response.                                              (B)

                                A                  C        D                                                        A              C       D
                   Following wrong methods should not be used as they are not                                                                 (Digitized)
                   recognised by scanning machine in digitized assessment.
                   Candidate using such method will be responsible for their loss.

CORRECT METHOD                          WRONG METHODS
                                                                           CORRECT METHOD                                WRONG METHODS
        C      D        A B C D        A B C D         A B C D      A B C D
                                                                                   C D                      A B C D      A B C D    A B C D      A B C D
       5.          Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
                   Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place            5.
                   other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
       6.          Read instructions given inside carefully.                                6.
       7.          Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet.                     7.
       8.          If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put
                   any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space              8.
                   allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
                   identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
                   means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
       9.          You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
                   end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with           9.
                   you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
                   to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
                   conclusion of examination.                                               10.
       10.         Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
       11.         Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.                 11.
       12.         There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.                      12.
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JUN - 34225/II—A
                                 Life Science
                                       Paper II
Time Allowed : 120 Minutes]                                      [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question
        carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1.   DNA is supercoiled state can be             3.   Which      one   of    the   following
                                                      conditions        is     true      for
     relaxed by an enzymatic process.
                                                      parthenogenesis ?
     Which enzyme catalyses relaxation
                                                      (A) Syngamy occurs
     of supercoiled DNA ?
                                                      (B) Syngamy fails
     (A) DNA helicase
                                                      (C) Gametogenesis fails
     (B) Type-I topoisomerase                         (D) Gametogenesis occurs

     (C) DNA ligase                              4.   Which one produces highest isotope
                                                      effect ?
     (D) Type-II topoisomerase
                                                      (A) 3H
2.   Adaptive    radiation      produced
                                                      (B) 14 C
     numerous lineages from reptiles
                                                      (C) 32 P
     during chordates evolution, one of
                                                      (D) 35S
     the   following     gave   rise    to
                                                 5.   Which of the following is critical for
     mammals :                                        differentiation of bipotential gonads
                                                      towards ovarian pathway ?
     (A) Plesiosaurus
                                                      (A) SOX 9
     (B) Ichthyosaurus
                                                      (B) FGF 8
     (C) Pterosaurus
                                                      (C) Wnt 4
     (D) Therapsids                                   (D) BMP 4

                                             3
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6.   The urge to inhale in human being                  9.   The PCR technique that allows

     results from :                                          measuring of DNA amplification at

                                                             each cycle of PCR rather than the
     (A) Rising level of PCO2
                                                             end point detection is :
     (B) Rising level of PO2
                                                             (A) Hot start PCR
     (C) Falling level of PCO2                               (B) Nested PCR

     (D) Falling level of PO2                                (C) Real Time PCR

7.   Which of the following is responsible                   (D) Reverse Transcriptase PCR

     for triggering formation of other                  10. How many different amino acid

     enzymes ?                                               sequences     are    possible   in   a

                                                             polypeptide 146 amino acids long ?
     (A) Trypsin
                                                             (A) (20)146
     (B) Enterokinase
                                                             (B) 20 × 146
     (C) Carboxypeptidase
                                                             (C) (3)146
     (D) Chymotrypsin
                                                             (D) (146)20
8.   Embryo         of    marine         organism
                                                        11. During photosynthesis, which
     Bonellia develop into male if it
                                                             minerals are required in a splitting
     develops in ............................
                                                             reaction ?
     (A) Isolated condition                                  (A) Potassium and Manganese
     (B) Close vicinity of mature male                       (B) Magnesium and Chlorine
     (C) Close vicinity of mature female                     (C) Potassium and Chlorine

     (D) Starved condition                                   (D) Manganese and Chlorine

                                                    4
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12. Abscisic acid responsive elements                14. From a human usage perspective, and
    (ABREs) are over-represented in
                                                         as long as the rate of replenishment
    promoter of genes involved in ............
                                                         or recovery exceeds the rate of
    (A) Biotic stress
                                                         consumption such resource is termed
    (B) Nitrogen fixation
                                                         as :
    (C) Drought stress

    (D) Flowering                                        (A) Non-renewable resource

13. In humans pointed eyebrows are                       (B) Limited resource
    dominant over smooth eyebrows and
                                                         (C) Renewable resource
    downward pointed frontal hairline is

    dominant over continuous hairline.                   (D) Short-term resource

    What phenotypic ratio would you
                                                     15. To capture the data of various
    expect in the offspring from a cross
                                                         resources ISRO developed one of the
    between an individual heterozygous
                                                         following sensors and deployed on
    for both genes and an individual
                                                         IRS satellites :
    homozygous recessive for both

    genes ?                                              (A) MSS-TM

    (A) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
                                                         (B) LISS
    (B) 9 : 3 : 4
                                                         (C) AVHRR
    (C) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

    (D) 9 : 7                                            (D) CZCS

                                                 5
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16. The highly repetitive DNA                 19. In mammals, during development
    sequences form a cluster upto 20 kb
    with 20-59 repeat units each                  from which cell population the
    containing 15 to 100 bp are called            embryo will form :
    as :
                                                  (A) Blastocyst
    (A) Satellite DNA
                                                  (B) Inner cell mass
    (B) Minisatellites
    (C) Microsatellites                           (C) Trophectoderm

    (D) Pseudogenes                               (D) Extra embryonic membrane
17. Glycosyl    transferases      and         20. The light sensitive photoproteins
    glycosidases are predominantly
    found in which cell organelle ?               responsive to red light are :

    (A) Golgi apparatus                           (A) Phytochromes
    (B) Endoplasmic reticulum                     (B) Cryptochromes
    (C) Nucleus
                                                  (C) Phototropins
    (D) Mitochondria
                                                  (D) Cytochromes
18. Which of the following transport
    process is carried out by receptor        21. A single gene can often have
    mediated endocytosis ?                        multiple effects on the phenotype of
    (1) Cholesterol uptake
                                                  an organism, affecting a number of
    (2) Calcium uptake
                                                  apparently unrelated traits. This
    (3) Virus entry into the host cell
                                                  phenomenon is known as :
    (4) Proton movement
                                                  (A) Epistasis
    (A) (1) and (2)
    (B) (2) and (3)                               (B) Polygenic inheritance

    (C) (1) and (3)                               (C) Pleiotropy
    (D) (3) and (4)                               (D) Epigenetic effect

                                          6
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22. The flip-flop movement of lipids in          25. Normally, S-A node of the heart,
    biological membranes is studied
                                                     rather than the A-V node, controls
    using     which        spectroscopic
    technique ?                                      the heart rhythmicity because :

    (A) UV-visible absorption spectroscopy           (A) A-V node does not possess self-
    (B) Atomic absorption spectroscopy
                                                         excitatory property
    (C) ESR spectroscopy
    (D) NMR spectroscopy                             (B) S-A node has rich nerve

23. Which phase of microbial growth is                   connection from the brain
    characterized by synthesis of
                                                         autonomic nervous system
    secondary metabolites that may not
    be   critical    to   the   microbe’s            (C) Purkinje fibres keep S-A node

    function ?                                           depolarized
    (A) Exponential phase
                                                     (D) Discharge rate of the S-A node
    (B) Early stationary phase
                                                         is considerably faster than the
    (C) Late stationary phase
    (D) Lag phase                                        natural self-excitatory discharge

24. What provision a typical bioreactor                  rate of the A-V node
    possess to overcome the vortex
                                                 26. Which of the following component
    formation during fermentation ?                  binds to protein and guides for its
    (A) Stuffing boxes                               degradation ?

    (B) Sparger                                      (A) Ubiquitin

    (C) Agitator                                     (B) Methylation

    (D) Baffles on the side walls of                 (C) Acetylation
         fermentor                                   (D) Phosphorylation

                                             7
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27. Which of the following type of RNA           30. On     handling        Physalia,     a
     functions as components of RNA
                                                     representative of phylum Cnidaria,
     splicing machinery ?                            it stimulate nematocysts to release
     (A) t-RNA                                       bio-active compound. This compound
     (B) Small nuclear RNA (Sn RNA)                  is of the nature of :
                                                     (A) Hypnotoxin
     (C) Small interfering RNA (Si
         RNA)                                        (B) Haemotoxin
                                                     (C) Neurotoxin
     (D) Micro RNA
                                                     (D) Metalotoxin
28. Genes coding for which of the
     following do not form an integral           31. Which of the following is considered
                                                     as a natural place of an organism
     component of the conserved genetic
                                                     or community ?
     pathway that controls ageing :
                                                     (A) Habit
     (A) DNA repair enzymes
                                                     (B) Habitat
     (B) Proteins involved in insulin
         signalling pathway                          (C) Niche

     (C) Chromatin remodelling enzymes               (D) Biome

     (D) Enzymes involved in cellular            32. Which form of the DNA is most often
         respiration                                 formed as a result of deoxyguanosine-
                                                     deoxycytosine [Poly (dG-dC)] and
29. In the absence of ....................
                                                     require       fairly    high       salt
     element, Nitrogen metabolism is not
                                                     concentration in vitro ?
     possible.
                                                     (A) A-form
     (A) Zinc
                                                     (B) B-form
     (B) Molybdenum
                                                     (C) Z-form
     (C) Boron
     (D) Manganese                                   (D) PNA

                                             8
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33. Antibody engineering can be done          36. What is the role of -mercapto-
                                                   ethanol and bromophenol blue used
    by :                                           in separation of proteins by SDS-
                                                   PAGE ?
    (A) Hybridoma technique                        (A) Anionic detergent and protein
                                                       staining
    (B) Injecting antigens into animals            (B) Reducing agent and tracking
                                                       dye
           for a prolonged period
                                                   (C) Oxidising agent and protein
                                                       staining
    (C) Site directed mutagenesis
                                                   (D) Reducing agent and marker
                                                       protein
    (D) Embryo cloning technique
                                              37. Groups of alleles associated with
                                                  lactose operon are as follows (in order
34. Prions have been reported to kill :           of dominance for each allelic
                                                  series) : Repressor – I S -(super
    (A) Humans only                               repressor), I + (inducible), I –
                                                  (constitutive);
    (B) Cattle only                                Operator – OC (Constitutive, cis
                                                              dominant),
    (C) Monkeys and Poultry                                    O+ (Inducible, cis
                                                               dominant)
    (D) Humans and Cattle                          Structural – Z+, Z–
                                                   Which of the following genotypes
35. To which kingdom do cyanobacteria              will produce  galactosidase if
                                                   lactose is present ?
    belong ?                                       (I)   I+ O+ Z+ Y+
                                                   (II) I– OC Z+ Y+
    (A) Fungi
                                                   (III) IS OC Z– Y–
                                                   (IV) IS O+ Z+ Y+
    (B) Eubacteria
                                                   (A) (I) and (II) only
    (C) Plantae                                    (B) (I), (II) and (IV) only
                                                   (C) (I), (III) and (IV) only
    (D) Protista                                   (D) (I) only

                                          9
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                                                    40. Select the description from Column II
38. The presence of auxin can be detected
                                                        that best fits the conidiospores given
     using the following bioassay :                     in Column I :

                                                              Column I
     (A) Only tobacco pith culture
                                                        (L) Arthrospore
     (B) Tobacco pith culture and Avena
                                                        (M) Phialospore
         curvature test                                 (N) Blastospore

                                                        (O) Chlamydospore
     (C) A curvature test related to
                                                              Column II
         tobacco pith culture and split
                                                        (1) Spherical spore formed by
         pea stem                                             thickening of hyphal cells

                                                        (2) Spore produced by budding
     (D) Tests related to split pea stem
                                                              from a parent cell
         curvature and Avena curvature
                                                        (3) Budded from the mouth of
                                                              sterigma
39. Which of the following is the earliest
                                                        (4) Rectangular spore formed when
     indication of the first differentiation
                                                              septate hyphae fragments at
     event in mammalian embryos ?                             the cross walls

                                                    Codes :
     (A) Maternal to zygotic transition
                                                                (L)   (M)        (N)   (O)
     (B) Cavitation                                     (A)     (1)      (2)     (4)   (3)

                                                        (B)     (4)      (1)     (3)   (2)
     (C) Blastocyst formation
                                                        (C)     (4)      (3)     (2)   (1)
     (D) Compaction
                                                        (D)     (3)      (4)     (1)   (2)

                                               10
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41. The following list describes the             43. Cytoplasm consists of all the fluid
    specific activities and goals of                 part :
    associated with genome analysis.
                                                     (A) Within a cell, except the fluid
    Indicate which one of the following
                                                           within the nucleus
    cannot be described as an example
                                                     (B) As well as structures within cell
    of functional genomics.
                                                           membrane
    (A) Making gene knock outs and
                                                     (C) And structures within the
          observing phenotypic changes                     plasma membrane except the
          associated with them                             nucleus
    (B) Developing DNA microarrays                   (D) Inside the cell membrane
                                                           including the nucleus
    (C) Characterizing the proteome
          present in a cell at a specific        44. Which       of   the   following      two

          developmental stage                        statements are not true with respect
                                                     to    the    properties       of   water
    (D) Sequencing individual BAC or                 molecules ?
          PAC clones aligned in a contig
                                                     (i)   Density of water is maximum at
          using shotgun approach
                                                           4ºC
42. What type of bacteria usually lack               (ii) Water molecules dissociate very
    the     genetic    and    metabolic                    strongly
    mechanisms to synthesize growth                  (iii) Water      has   high    heat    of
    factor they need for survival in the                   vaporization
    environment ?
                                                     (iv) Water is a non-polar molecule
    (A) Prototrophic bacteria                        (A) (i) and (ii)
    (B) Auxotroph or fastidious bacteria             (B) (ii) and (iii)
    (C) Autotrophic bacteria                         (C) (i) and (iv)

    (D) Syntrophic bacteria                          (D) (ii) and (iv)

                                            11
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45. The mice that are homozygous for             48. Allosteric enzymes will have the
    null allele of which of the following            following property :

    exhibit defective spermatogenesis ?              (A) Sigmoidal kinetics

    (A) Sonic hedgehog                               (B) Rectangular hyperbolic curve

    (B) Desert hedgehog                              (C) Competitive inhibition

    (C) Indian hedgehog                              (D) Fixed Km value.

                                                 49. Which of the following are key
    (D) Fibroblast growth factor
                                                     regulatory enzymes of the citric acid
46. Which one of the following species               cycle ?
    of Mycobacteria is generally
                                                     (A) Aconitase      and     isocitrate
    regarded as non-pathogenic ?
                                                         dehydrogenase
    (A) Mycobacterium bovis                          (B) Pyruvate dehydrogenase and
    (B) Mycobacterium smegmatis                          citrate synthase

    (C) Mycobacterium leprae                         (C) Isocitrate dehydrogenase and
                                                         -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
    (D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
                                                     (D) Succinate dehydrogenase and
47. Find out the pKa value of an acid
                                                         malate dehydrogenase
    HA. The concentration of HA and
                                                 50. Which of the following mutagens is
    A – are 0.90 M and 0.30 M
                                                     most likely to result in a single amino
    respectively at pH 6.0.
                                                     acid change in a gene product ?
    (A) 3.68                                         (A) Ethidium bromide
    (B) 4.48                                         (B) Acriflavine

    (C) 5.52                                         (C) Ethyl methane sulphonate

    (D) 6.48                                         (D) Acridine orange

                                            12
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51. The composition of constituents of         52. During accommodation, for distinct

    the interstitial fluid where it is             vision in human eyes, the :


    formed is :                                    (A) Cornea moves front and back


    (A) Identical to that of the plasma            (B) Anterior surface of the lens

                                                        changes its curvature
    (B) Almost similar as that of the

        plasma, except that the protein            (C) Posterior surface of the lens


        concentration is significantly                  changes its curvature


        lesser than those in the plasma            (D) The lens moves back and front


    (C) Almost similar as that of the          53. Which of the following is not likely


        plasma,    except   that   the             to be dependent on adult body

                                                   size ?
        concentration of Na+, K+, Ca2+

        is significantly lesser than in            (A) Area of habitat required to


        the plasma                                      support reproductive activity


    (D) Lower, except the protein                  (B) Generation time


        concentration, which is higher             (C) Adaptability

        than that in the plasma                    (D) Number of reproductive events


                                          13
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54. Consider the following statements             55. Which of the following transcription
    about binary vector used for plant
                                                      factor phosphorylates Carboxy
    transformation ?
                                                      Terminal Domain (CTD) of RNA
    (i)   Binary vector are Agrobacterium
                                                      polymerase-II ?
          based vectors

                                                      (A) TFIIA
    (ii) Binary vector contains both

          bacterial and plant selectable              (B) TFIIH
          marker
                                                      (C) TFIIB
    (iii) Binary vector have virulence
                                                      (D) TFIIE
          (Vir) region

    (iv) There is presence of T-DNA left          56. Which one of the following RNA

          and   right     border    repeat            sequence is         not   involved   in

          sequences
                                                      regulation     of     phase    gene

    Which of the above statements are
                                                      expression ?
    correct :
                                                      (A) Box A
    (A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

                                                      (B) Box B
    (B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

    (C) (i), (ii) and (iv)                            (C) Box C


    (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)                          (D) Box D

                                             14
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57. Anthocyanins are coloured ..........        60. ................... is not a gene in the

    (A) Flavonoids
                                                     terminator      gene     technology
    (B) Alkaloids
                                                     construct.
    (C) Terpenoids
                                                     (A) Tissue specific promoters
    (D) Tannins
                                                     (B) Rec A proteins
58. Which one of the following joints is

    highly flexible for articulation and             (C) Ribosome inactivating proteins
    movements ?
                                                     (D) Betagalactosidase protein
    (A) Sutures
                                                61. The sterile nutrient medium is
    (B) Gomphoses
                                                     contaminated by 10 E. coli. How
    (C) Synovial

                                                     many E. coli will be present in
    (D) Symphyses

59. Which one of the following reptilian             nutrient medium after 1 hour at

    organism is found exclusively in                 room temperature ?
    New Zealand only ?
                                                     (A) 20
    (A) Alligator
                                                     (B) 80
    (B) Gavial

    (C) Helloderma                                   (C) 10


    (D) Tuatara                                      (D) 00

                                           15
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62. State the bacterial transport system               65. In Drosophila, which portion of body
    that does not need ATP molecule nor
                                                           plan is responsible for formation of
    carrier protein to transport solute
                                                           wing ?
    across the cell membrane :
    (A) Active transport                                   (A) Telson
    (B) Passive transport                                  (B) Dorsal
    (C) Group translocation
                                                           (C) Abdomen
    (D) ABC transporter system

63. Floral development associated                          (D) Thorax

    AGAMOVS, PISTILLATA and                            66. Which helix has an axial hole ?
    APETALA3 genes of Arabidopsis
    encodes proteins with .....................            (A) -helix

    domain.                                                (B) 3-helix
    (A) GRASS
                                                           (C) 10-helix
    (B) WRKY
                                                           (D) 2.27-ribbon
    (C) MADS
                                                       67. In visual cycle the opsin protein of
    (D) NAC
                                                           the rod cells of the retina combines
64. The type of divisions of cytoplasm
                                                           with which form of vitamin A to form
    around the periphery of cell due to
                                                           rhodopsin, which is responsible for
    presence of centrally located large
    amount of yolk is called as :                          vision in poor light ?

    (A) Holoblastic cleavage                               (A) 11 Cis retinal

    (B) Meroblastic cleavage                               (B) 11 Cis retinol

    (C) Superficial cleavage                               (C) All trans retinal

    (D) Mesoblastic cleavage                               (D) All trans retinol

                                                  16
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68. Cri-du-chat syndrome is caused due         70. In      the        majority      of    plants

    to which one of the following                  photosynthesis is carried out in

    phenomenon ?                                   leaves but in cachi inhabiting desert,

    (A) Deletion of short arm of                   photosynthesis is carried out by

        chromosome no. 5                           stem. This type of evolutionary

    (B) Translocation of short arm of              change in the position is referred to

        chromosome no. 5                           as ...........................

    (C) Inversion of long arm of                   (A) Heterochrony

        chromosome no. 5                           (B) Heterotropy

    (D) Duplication of short arm of                (C) Heterotopy

        chromosome no. 5                           (D) Heteroplasmy

69. For a trait in a population, higher        71. Scientific theories :

    heritability is possible when :                (A) arise            through        deductive

    (A) Homozygous genes affecting                        reasoning

        that trait                                 (B) arise             through       inductive

    (B) Environment is uniform                            reasoning

    (C) Heterozygous genes affecting               (C) arise                 through       least

        that trait                                        generalization


    (D) Environment is heterogenous                (D) can never be disproved


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72. Which of the following molecules                      75. The process by which the species

    plays a pivotal role in presenting the                    composition and habitat in an area
    paracrine factors to their target                         changes over time until replaced by
    cells ?                                                   a ‘‘Climax community’’ is termed as :
    (A) Fibronectin
                                                              (A) Primary succession
    (B) Heparin sulphate
                                                              (B) Secondary succession
    (C) Laminin
                                                              (C) Community succession
    (D) Collagen

73. Which one of the following is not                         (D) Ecological succession

    involved in SOS repair mechanism ?                    76. Which of the following does not
    (A) Rec A                                                 describe the features of transmission
    (B) umu B                                                 electron microscope ?
    (C) umu C
                                                              (A) Ultrathin sections are stained
    (D) umu D
                                                                  and observed
74. The suffixes used in viral taxonomy
                                                              (B) Intracellular organelles are
    for order, family, sub-family and
                                                                  observed
    genus are ...................... respectively.

    (A) Viridae, Virales, Virnae, Virus                       (C) Three-dimensional image is

    (B) Virales, Viridae, Virnae, Virus                           observed

    (C) Virales, Virus, Virnae, Viridae                       (D) Two-dimensional image is

    (D) Virus, Virales, Virnae, Viridae                           observed

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77. Which of the following signalling            79. Which of the following islands
    molecules acting as a morphogen                  visited by Darwin inspired him to
    plays a key role in patterning the               propose theory of evolution ?
    digits of vertebrate limb ?
                                                     (A) Guatemala
    (A) Desert hedgehog                              (B) Galapagos islands

    (B) Sonic hedgehog                               (C) Faroe islands

    (C) Indian hedgehog                              (D) Soloman islands

    (D) Transforming growth factor-             80. Which of the following pairs is a

78. Acetylcholine when applied on                    mismatch ?

    skeletal    muscle,     it    causes             (A) Evergreen trees – Coniferous

    contraction, while on heart muscle,                  forest

    it causes muscle relaxation. This is             (B) Thorny trees – Savanna
    due to :
                                                     (C) Permafrost – Tundra
    (A) Subtypes      of    cholinergic
                                                     (D) Epiphytes – Prairie
        receptors present in the muscle
                                                 81. In which organelle DNA, UGA codes
    (B) Difference in the type of muscles
                                                     for tryptophan ?
    (C) Difference in the quantity of
                                                     (A) Chloroplast DNA
        acetylcholine released
                                                     (B) Mitochondrial DNA
    (D) Skeletal muscles are supplied by
                                                     (C) Both     mitochondrial      and
        peripheral nervous system,
                                                         chloroplast DNA
        while heart muscles by central

        nervous system                               (D) Nuclear DNA

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82. In Kreb’s cycle, ketoglutarate              85. Near-Isogenic lines in plants can be

    dehydrogenase catalyses which of                developed by .......................

    the following reactions ?                       (A) Mass selection

    (A) Oxidation                                   (B) Bulk method

                                                    (C) Backcross method
    (B) Reduction
                                                    (D) Mutation breeding
    (C) Decarboxylation
                                                86. Transition from Metaphase to
    (D) Oxidation and decarboxylation
                                                    Anaphase involves activation of
83. In anoxia condition during flooding,
                                                    Anaphase Promoting Complex
    ATPs are generated through :
                                                    (APC) by .....................
    (A) Aerobic respiration
                                                    (A) CDC20
    (B) Glycolysis
                                                    (B) CDC25
    (C) Fermentation
                                                    (C) CDC18
    (D) Oxidative phosphorylation
                                                    (D) CDC13
84. G-banding techniques are used for :
                                                87. Sets of genes located on same
    (A) Protein banding in isoelectric
                                                    chromosome are called :
         focussing
                                                    (A) Allotype
    (B) DNA bands in pulse field

         electrophoresis                            (B) Isotype

    (C) Karyotyping in cytogenetics                 (C) Haplotype

    (D) Microarray systems                          (D) Idiotype

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                                                 90. The purification and characterization
88. An organism that contains 48%                    of insecticidal protein/s produced by
                                                     Bacillus thuringiensis during the
    A-T shall also contain :                         exponential phase of growth was
                                                     carried out. Protein fractions were
                                                     purified both from cell pellet (P) as
    (A) 48% G – C                                    well as from culture supernatant (S).
                                                     The purified toxin proteins were
    (B) 48% G + 48% C                                heated at indicated temperatures and
                                                     then used in bioassays against first
                                                     instar larvae of black cut worm.
    (C) 52% G + 48% C                                Percent mortality of the larvae when
                                                     feeded with toxin proteins were as
                                                     follows :
    (D) 52% G – C
                                                 Temperature           Mortality %

89. Gastrulation in Drosophila begins                ºC             Toxin        Toxin
                                                                 Protein (P) Protein (S)
    with a change in cell shape and                  28              100           50
                                                     37               75           50
    contraction of an epithelium sheet
                                                     50               68           50
    from the apical surface, this process            65               40           50
                                                     85               10           50
    is called as :                                   Boiled           0            30
                                                     Which of the following is not true
    (A) Involution                                   for the given data ?
                                                     (A) Toxin [S] is thermolabile
    (B) Convergent extension                         (B) Higher temperatures adversely
                                                         affect activity of toxin (P)
    (C) Epiboly                                      (C) Both toxins are insecticidal
                                                         although with varying stability

    (D) Invagination                                 (D) Insecticidal activity of toxin (P)
                                                         is better than toxin (S)
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91. An instrument (A) can differentiate           93. In a biological study, keeping all
    between 1 and 3 units, while another              conditions similar, an experiment
    instrument (B) can differentiate                  recorded observations from many
    between 0.01 and 0.1 kilo-units of the            repetitions of experiments. None of
    same parameter. Which one of the                  the readings was identical, although
                                                      the variations were statistically
    following statements is correct ?
                                                      comparable. The variations in the
    (A) Instrument ‘A’ is more sensitive              readings :
        than ‘B’
                                                      (A) Suggest error in observations
    (B) Instrument ‘A’ is less sensitive                  and/or calculations
        than ‘B’
                                                      (B) Cannot be ideally minimized to
    (C) Both the instruments are                          zero, even if the experiments
        equally sensitive                                 are repeated many times

    (D) Instrument ‘A’ can record upto                (C) Suggest more experiments are
        3 parameters, while instrument                    to be repeated until a few
        ‘B’   can   record    upto   100                  readings become identical (no
        parameters                                        variation)
                                                      (D) Are indicative of imperfect
92. Which bioremediation process
                                                          experimental design or failure
    incorporate essential nutrients
                                                          of experiments
    (Viz.N, P, etc.) and electron acceptor
    to contaminated area (aquatic, soil)          94. Classically, stereotaxic surgery is
    in order to promote the activity of               used for :
    native microbes for degradation of                (A) IOL implantation (Cataract
    hydrocarbons ?                                        surgery)

    (A) Preferential biodegradation                   (B) IVF (in-vitro fertilization)

    (B) Bioaugmentation                               (C) To direct an electrode to a
                                                          defined region deep into the
    (C) Biostimulation
                                                          brain in-vivo
    (D) Biosparging
                                                      (D) Endoscopy
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95. Insects, ammonoids and amphibians             98. Each of the following parasite is

    have originated in which of the                   transmitted by mosquito except :

    following periods of Paleozoic era ?              (A) Leishmania donovi

    (A) Cambrian period                               (B) Wuchereria bancrofti

    (B) Ordovician period                             (C) Plasmodium vivax

                                                      (D) Plasmodium falciparum
    (C) Silurian period
                                                  99. Which of the following is NOT
    (D) Devonian period
                                                      correct for an ideal plasmid cloning
96. Covishield is a :                                 vector ?

    (A) DNA Vaccine                                   (A) Smaller size

    (B) Chemically attenuated vaccine                 (B) Presence of multiple cloning
                                                          site
    (C) Recombinant vector vaccine
                                                      (C) Absence of origin of replication
    (D) Live attenuated vaccine
                                                      (D) Presence of selectable marker
97. The fins are locomotor organs of
                                                  100. What will be the possible RNA
    fishes. The Dipnoians possess                     sequence       from       complete
    unpaired fin without skeletal support,            transcription of a DNA molecule
    such fin is called as :                           with the sequence in one of the
                                                      strand is 5' – AGCTGCAATG –3' ?
    (A) Actinopterygii
                                                      (A) 5' – UCGACCUUAC –3'
    (B) Brachipterygii
                                                      (B) 5' – AGCUGCAAUG –3'
    (C) Crossopterygii
                                                      (C) 5' – TCGACGTTAC –5'
    (D) Sarcopterygii
                                                      (D) 5' – AGCTGCAATG –3'

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Source: Savitribai Phule Pune University. Question paper published by Savitribai Phule Pune University.