MP SET 2024: State Eligibility Test, Commerce
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R/P/P/2024/II Question Booklet No.
Subject-COIVIMERCE
SET A 240307361
Paper II (Optional)
Subject'Code-03
Name
nAgtif^atpmg; ^"if
■ Candidate should write bis/her
Roll No. Roll No.in the given boxes.
^ THs'TT/No. of Printed Pages:32 ^ TP^/Total No.of Questions: 100
Tm : 3^ ^ pHdi^bi gjnWMaximum Marks:200
Time Allowed: 3 Hours to complete both 1st and llnd question paper
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INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
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awarded for each correct answer.Unanswered question will not be given any marks, There is no provisions
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Paper 1 (Seneral paper (Q* No. 1-50)
Paper II Question paper on the Subject opted by the examinee (Q. No. 51-150)
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*R I ■ i(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORIQ
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51. Which one is «o^ an objective of the
t ? International Monetary Fund ?
(A) sftT*^ Ttter wk ^ HlrHlP^d (A) To promote international monetary
co-operation
(B) '^mK ^ (B) To ensure balanced international
TOTT trade
(C) J^nTddiM ^ arm^^T^sjf ^ (C) To finance productive efforts
"g?qi^ ^ 1^ 3RH according to peace-time
(D) 1M¥pt| ^ 1^«RdT ^ requirements
(D) To ensure exchange rate stability
52. ^^ ^ T3^" fero 52. United Nations Conference on Trade and
(aiqiiis) ^ Development (UNGTAD) was set up
if ? m:
(A) 1944 (B) 1954 (A) 1944 (B) 1954
(C) 1960 (D) 1964 (C) 1960 (D) 1964
53. "^f rHHPdRsId ^ 53. Balance of Payments (BOP) comprises of
?#1^ t ? which of fhe following components ?
(A) ^^RTT 3% "^it ■'E^RIT (A) Current account and capital account
(B) OHIHK ^tjcn alk "^ITHT (B) Trade bailee and budget deficit
(C) Hlfk=h ! ak (C) Monetary policy and fiscal policy
(D) 3?™;"^!^ a?k fr# ^P®y^1 (D) Import tariffs and export subsidies
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54. ^^ aiRpfe 54. Which agreement within the WTO
STfeKf ^ framework deals with the protection of
"^Rf^ t ? Intellectual Property Rights ?
(A)^ (B) (A) GATS (B) TRIMS
(C) 1|RT (D) Ti^T.Tft.Ti?T. (C) TRIPS (D) SPS
55. a^ife- -qMwsif 55. Which economic institution provides
aSk "^tM "3^^ chl4sbHT ^ financial assistance to member counfries
^ Mk? "SRF ^R3T t ? for development projects and poverty
reduction programmes ?
(A)
(A) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(B)
(B) World Bank
(C) XRj^^ TR (C) United Nations Conference on
Trade and Development(UNCTAD)
(D) 1^ Bn33 (D) World Trade Organisation(WTO)
56. PHHrdRsid 4f ^ ^^Rn ^RS^H 1^ 56. Which of the following institutions is not
a part of the World Bank Group ?
(A) International " Development
(A) ^ Association (IDA)
(B) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(B) ^RRk^kr "^T crH
(C) International Finance Corporation
(C) .3RRf^ fer fm (IFC)
(D) Multilateral Investment Guarantee
(D) 1^ -HR^ -R^
Agency (MIGA)
57. iHHRriRdd ^ ^1=R?T %^^ WR 57. Which of the following countries is not
^t ? a member of SAARC ?
(A) W, (B) (A) India (B) Nepal
(C) (D)^ (C) Sri Lanka (D) China
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61. PiHPdRsJd ^ I ^ n ^ fen 61. Match the following List I with
List II :
. Chirpy. :
List I List II
"^11 (a) Accounting (i) Accounting for
(a) "JRFT-l (i) PiH^i ^ Standard-1 construction
contracts
(b) Accounting (ii) Intangible
(b) im wr~7 (ii) 37Tjjf Standard-7 Assets
(c) ■5PfTPT-19 (iii) ilIa^T (c) Accounting (iii) Disclosure of
Standard-19 accounting
^ y^<i1di<u|
policies
(d) "9^-26 (iv) (d) Accounting (iv) Leases
- 1^ 7t^ ■4'^ iPR : Standard-26
Choose the correct option from given
(a) (b) (c) (d) below :
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (C) (iii) (i) . (iv) (ii)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (D) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
62. A,BV^ C 5 : 4 : 3^ ST^^RT 62. A, B and C were partners sharing profits
^ ^ f I C in the ratio of 5 : 4 : 3. C retired and his
i\ -rm ^ "3^ ^ AT3^*
share was taken up by A and B in the
B 3 : 2 ^ ai^qRT t ^ 1 -JRT
ratio of 3 : 2. Find out the new ratio :
(A) 5:4 (B) 17 : 13 (A) 5:4 (B) 17 : 13
(C) 20 : 13 (D) 17 : 12 (C) 20 : 13 (D) 17 ; 12
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63. 133? ^ 63. If the cost-volume-profit relationship of
^ y = 2,40,OGO +0.7x a company is described by the equation
qr^lci l^qi iRI X I^stiq 5TFFT y = 2,40,000 + 0.7x in which x
^ _y ciMin ^ "d^ represents sales revenue and y the total
cost, then profit-volume ratio will be :
(A) 30% (B) 70% (A) 30% (B) 70%
(C) 40% (D) 60% (C) 40% (D) 60%
64. 3?qf% r4^<uiivi ^ 64. Which of the following is not correct in
RMrdR^d 3ff f ? context to material yield variance ?
(A) (AY - SY) X SC (A) (AY - SY) X SC
(B) (AY - SY) X SC Tifd ^ (B) (AY - SY) X SC per unit
(C) (AY - SY) X SY (C) (AY-SY)xSY
(D) (AY - RY) X SC (D) (AY - RY) X SC
65. ABC W# 133^ iT)if dk "SITO ^ 65. In ABC system a firm can choose
Olivia qieicfil ■^* "^T^idt "I, from three types of cost drivers, they
^ f : are :
(A) #T-^, dta 133 (A) Transaction, Intensity andFlexibility
(B) #T-^, 133 dto (B) Transaction, Duration and Intensity
I
I,,
(C) dt^ 133 ^ri-dldim (C) Duration, Intensity and Flexibility
(D) dkm 133 3^13^ (D) Duration, Intensity and Intangibility
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66. PHHRrlRdd 1^ ^ 66. Which of the following statements is
termed as 'Where Got Where Gone
f^Qll «*)6l "W "^flcIT t" ?
Statement' ?
(A)
(A) Balance Sheet
(B) 31^ Picj<ui
(B) Fund Flow Statement
(C) "SimF
(C) Cash Flow Statement
(D) ^IR Tj;^
(D) Profit and Loss Account
67. I : «R3-^-'2I|*T ^ 37r?PI, qiqei 67. Statement I : Just-in-time refers to
ilie«hl ^ 311^ ^ TJ[[ ^ acquiring materials and man^ifacturing
-tilHwl ^ qi^ll sft^ goods only as needed to fiU customer
^ PihI"i q><^ ^ ^ I order.
n : '5R2-^-"3IfiT 1^ Statement n : Just-in-time is a supply
Tcirnnh tri# f i push manufacturing system.
Statement HI : Just-in-time is also
■3?qT^) *it ^ ^ t I called lean production.
^ 1^ R^cbo^T "^f ^ ^^ Choose the correct group of statements
W :, fi:om the options given below :
(A) ^78R I 1^^* n (A) Statements I and II
(B) ^TSPT I ■^* III (B) Statements I and III
(C) n m (C) Statements II and m
(P) I, n-q^* m (D) Statements I, II and HI
(5)S/3/2024/A i
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68. ii ww -RFm smi 68. Payment of dividend out of capital was
raised in :
(A) t^TT^ ^RHT HkrlWl (A) Fisher vs. Black-White Publishing
■^* Co. case
(B) ^ ^ W«T (B) Lubbuck vs. The British Bank of
South America case
(C) "q;^* ^fff^ (C) Mckesson and Robbins case
(D) ^ T^ "SITOT ^ (D) London and General Bank case
69- 3i|chfVi«t» ^STH 3T^^r^ ^ 69. An auditor in a casual vacancy is
f^T^ ^ ^ t : appointed by the :
(A) ar^miM (A) Shareholders
(B) ^ ^ (B) Central Government
(C) wx (C) Company Law Board
(D) H"-s^n "gRT (D) Board of Directors
70. (sf^^ "hRi^) 3n^, 2003 70. Companies (Auditor's Report) Order,
■smi^ 13?r : 2003 came into effect from :
(A) 1.7.2003,t (A) 1.7.2003
(B) 1.4.2003 ^ (B) 1.4.2003
(C) 1.10.2003-^ (C) 1.10.2003
(D) 1.1.2004^ (D) 1.1.2004
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71. ^ 71. What is the necessary condition for
^^ f^a# 3W^ "^nf maximizing total profit in a business
^^ t ? firm ?
(A) "^TRT 3M = #qfcr BTO (A) Marginal Income = Marginal Cost
(B) 3M > BTO (B) Marginal Income > Marginal Cost
(C) aiR < -^tm ^TFRT (C) Marginal Income < Marginal Cost
(D) #HRf BTO = aM (D) Marginal Cost = Average Income
72. PihRiRsici ^ I^PW 72. In which of the following, the law of
ell^ "^klT "i" ? demand does not apply ?
(A) ^3ff TR (A) On Gififen goods
(B) "q^ (B) On prestigious goods
(C) ^3lf ^ (C) On lifesaving goods
(D) "5q^ ^ ^ (D) All of the above
73. ^ "*3^ Ht*icn1 nRq^Ji 73. If there is a huge change in demand of
"q "q^ ^ ■HMi *^* "6<g,rt siRiRr a commodity despite there being little or
■qRcfcfq eft ^ ^ no change in its price, then what is the
^ ^ t ? demand for such a commodity called ?
(A) srte #^.iffq (A) Highly elastic demand
(B) TJ%: eik<K "qm (B) Perfectly elastic demand
(C) 4q (C) Inelastic demand
(D) ^ dl^^K 'm (D) Elastic demand
(5)S/3/2024/A 8
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■74, PHMPdRsld ^ ^ ^ 74. Which of the following is not a
Mw -=1^ t ? characteristic of indifference curve ?
(A) The two indifference curves cross
f I each other.
(B) tT3?S5clT 13^ 1^ ^ ^ <i"1tl1«\< (B) Indifference curve is convex to the
■gfer t" I origin.
(C) cis^sRfr ^sFT ^ sik (C) The indifference curve slopes
131T ^klT f I downwards from left to right.
(D) "37^ (D) The upper indifference curve gives
ae/^fli ^ ^QUi k' ■3lf^R) more satisfaction than the lower
indifference curve.
75. "^cW ^ t^T^* ^ k* 75. What happens in the second stage of the
3i;jMial ^ ■fWT ^ ^JERt k* ^ law of variable proportions with
reference to the laws, of production ?
im % 7
(A) Marginal production increases.
(A) "RtTO -^cqi^ t I (B) Marginal production remains
constant.
(B) ^Mr ^cqi^ ksR WT t I
(C) Marginal production becomes
(C) "3?^ ^uikHdi ^ ^ t 1 negative.
(D) ■^TkTRT Wm t I (D) M^ginal production decreases.
76. "S^qK^T '% 1™ ^ k* ^ 76. In the context of the law of production,
mRihici' "qiT "f^RT ^kn ^ ? which period is related to 'Return to
Scale' ?
(A) STfrT
(A) Very short period
(B) ^14=hlQl
(B) Long period
(C) (C) Short period
(D) k" ^ ^ "q^* (D) None of the above
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77. ^^ PHHRrlRdd 77. The long-run -average cost curve is also
3^^ "ilM ^ «IHT ^idl known by which of the following
t? names ?
(A) ^ (A) Isoproduct curve
(B) diJ^dl ^ (B) Indifference curve
(C) (C) Production curve
(D) STRTq ^ (D) Envelope curve
78. yPd^inidi ^ sHnfe 78. What can be achieved in the equilibrium
[VhRi "^f ^ UM ^ tH^hOI state of a firm in the short-run under
t ? perfect competition ?
(A) STfTOTlPT WR (A) Supernormal profit
(B) "wm (B) Nohnal profit
(C) ^ (C) Minimum loss
(D) (D) All of the above
79. ^ ^^ 79. What is the essential condition for price
t? discrimination ?
(A) (A) Monopoly
(B) Separate markets
(B) ^MTf ^ #IT
(C) Variation in elasticity of demand
(C) ^^ f^Fmi across markets
(D) "3^1^ ^ (D) All of the above
80. ^ ^^ 80. When the enfrepreneur himself performs
""H 3?k "^cii ^ Rriy. ^1^ the work of the manager and does not
W1(T ^ ^ «iTdT ^ ? take the manager's salary, what type of
cost it is called ?
(A) 2fRW (B) W2 WRT
(A) Implicit cost (B) Explicit cost
(C) ^ITO (D) ^mi-M elTO
(C) Normal cost (D) Abnormal cost
(5)S/3/2024/A 10
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IMVJS
iJ
81. ^ 81. ^^ch one of the following is a short-
fer 1^ t, ? term finance decision ?
(A) 1M¥iW frok (A) Investment decisions
(B) fern (B) Financing decisions
(C) Working capital management
(C) "SrasR
decisions
(D) wrm "M^t (D) Dividend decisions
82. . 1^ TRJR ^ ^ W 82. In which type of lease does the lessee
^IHl-^d: ^ ^ -^f -^Txijf^ generally has the option to purchase the
Ifm "5^1 fqctxTM ^tei "t" ? asset at the end of the lease-term ?
(A) mR^MH (A) Operating lease
(B) (B) Financial lease
(C) (C) Rental lease
(D)^^ (D) Service lease
83. rHHfaRdd ^ 1^ "cp^ ^ 83. Which of the following is not a part of
Wm ^ t ? a firm's cost of capital ?
(A) ^ qITO (A) Cost of debt
(B) yPdtllRd 3p5W ^ Wlcf (B) Cost of retained earnings
(C) ^ITTcTT ^ WKT (C) Cost of equity (
(D) ^ WRT (D) Cost of inventory
84. ^ ^ 84. Which of the following is a drawback of
^^ RHRiRsid maintaining a high level of debt in a
4i1h^I f ? company's capital structure ?
(A) af?TiTTf^* ^ 3lf^
(A) More controlfor existing shareholders
(B) Lower cost of capital
(B) "^ait QIMICI
(C) ^ ^ ^nrir (C) Increase in financial risk due to
fixed interest liability
■ (D) 3;m«nM ^ "^PRRr ^ (D) Increase in shareholders'wealth
(5)S/3/2024/A 1 P.T.O
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88. ^ 88. How many nations signed the Articles of
I
"^sTT cf^ ^H^flai-"^^ Agreement of the International Monetary
sTfqi "Q^Wfe) fea; ? Fund at the Bretton Woods Conference ?
(A) 30 (B) 44 (A) 30 (B) 44
(C) 50 (D) 60 (C) 50 (D) 60
89. i^.^.3TR. ^ PinrdRsid ^ 89. ADRs can be listed on which of the
following stock exchanges ?
(A) cticjei cf^ "HN) (A) Only London Stock Exchange
■ (B) (B) Only Luxembourg Stock Exchange
(C) ^ (NYSE) (C) New York Stock Exchange(NYSE),
NASDAQ 3^ NYSE MKT NASDAQ and NYSE MKT.
(D) (D) Only Tokyo Stock Exchange
90. ^RR 90. Speculators in foreign exchange market,
^^ 3lRn "g^ ^ who sell a particular currency now,
fci5hH 1^* silk ^ ^"^Icn expecting it to become cheaper in future
f,^^ WRI^ fI "SraiR and buy it back, when its value becomes
srf^ "t*, : lesser. Thus earn gain, are known as :
(A) (^aRf) (A) Bears
(B) (g^) (B) Bull
(C) TT«zR«T (C) Arbitrageurs
(D) Mttrt (D) Foreign exchange brokers
(5)S/3/2024/A 13 P.T.O,
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91. ^5 ^ ^^ 91. What will the probability of getting all
■ (--qs) 3n^ ^^ yiP^^di ^ ? the 'tails' in five (5) throws of a coin ?
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/8 (A) 1/4 (B) 1/8
(C) 1/16 (D) 1/32 (C) 1/16 (D) 1/32
92. "fefrq (Q2) ^mK t ? 92. Second Quartile (Q2) is equal to :
(A) iTTsq (x) (A) Mean (x)
(B) HlP^dil (M) (B) Median (M)
(C) (Z) (C) Mode(Z)
(D)^ (D4) (D) 4th Decile (D4)
93. "qfq M ^^ 625 ii, 93. If the total variance of a series is 625,
^ "ERiq iq-qtriM : then the Standard Deviation (SD) will
be:
(A) 30 (B) 25 (A) 30 (B) 25
(C) 20 (D) 15 (C) 20 (D) 15
94. ilTWl^ ?Wt, ^ : 94. Skewness will be negative, when :
(A) (A) Mean < Mode
(B) ■qT«zT>'^l^ (B) Mean > Mode
(C) "RIM •> mN4)l (C) Mean > Median
(D) "RT®? = (D) Mean = Median
95. 1^ "TO i : 95. Given :
^ ^ (N) = 16 No. of Pairs (N) = 16
wsm (PE) = 0.085 Probable Error (PE) = 0.085
0.6745 = 2/3 0.6745 = 2/3
■3x7^ ^ 3imR ^ "JTO (r) On the basis of the above coeflScient of
: correlation (r) will be :
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.5 (A) 0.4 (B) 0.5
(C) 0.6 (D) 0.7 (C) 0.6 (D) 0.7
{5)S/3/2024/A 14
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96. ^ 96. Which will be the first step of staring
#n ? research ?
(A) ^ 1=HT (A) Selecting a problem
(B) ^TTR^n ^ W ^R=TT (B) Finding a problem
(C) WTT ^ ddlJiHI (C) Searching a problem
(D) Wmi ^ M^^MHl (D) Identiftdng a problem
97. ^ ^^ 97. In case of more than two populations, to
MR<<i(rMdl' ^ "q^ ^ — test a 'Null Hypothesis', a researcher
^ wiw t I uses the :
i
(A) ^-"q^tenir (A) T-test
(B) (T^^tei) (B) Analysis of Variance (ANOVA)
(C) -qRtOT (x^) (C) Chi-square test (x^)
(D) ^--qfteR (D) Z-test
98. "qf^ ife ^ ifeM (+) 2 t aigqiRRT 98. If percentage of error is (+) 2 and
1J^ 500 ^ t, eft <HlwRid) estimated value is Rs. 500, then actual
(China) : value will be :
I
I
(A) 498^ (B) 502^ (A) Rs. 498 (B) Rs. 502
(C) 490-^ (D) 510-^ (C) Rs. 490 (D) Rs. 510
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99. The mean of 15 students is 15 marks. If
99. 15 ^ HnW ^ 15 t I
marks of two students as *18' and *12'
■ fenW ^ "siRif^ *18' afk '12'
are excluded, then the mean marks of
^1^ eft
yiKiiWl ^ eVil : remaining students will be :
(A) 13 (B) 14 (A) 13 (B) 14
(C) 15 (D) 16 (C) 15 (D) 16
100.^ ^ t^TOTT ^ MR4idH 100. Which of the following is not considered
PmPdr^d ^ wftn ^ in calculation of Karl Pearson's
^IRTT "t ? co-efficient of skewness ?
(A) (A) Mean
,(B) (B) Median
(C) (C) Mode
(D) TTISZI Pcl^dd (D) Mean Deviation
101. 'T3:' ^«1T "SITO 101. Both type A and type B are types of:
t 1
(A) Power
(A) "^Tfe
(B) Appraisal
(B) Pd'^MKH
(C) Personality
(C) o^pKieq
(D) (D) Non-monetary benefits
102. 360° Pd«lKd OT 1^ 102. 360° performance appraisal is done by :
^SIRTT ^ ?
(A) Supervisor
(A)
(B) Colleagues and subordinates
(B) "^8^1
(C) Customer
(C) HT?^
(D) (D) All of the above
(5)S/3/2024/A 16
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103. t: 103. Training needs assessment includes :
(A) wm\^ (A) Organisational analysis
(B) ^RTm (B) Resource utilization analysis
(C) Organisational climate analysis
(D) (D) All of the above
104. arMw ^ 'X' alk ftrisifT 104. Theory 'X' and Theory 'Y' of motivation
'Y' "OT yPdmRd i^ "w t 1 has been propounded by :
(A) (B) (A) Herzberg (B) Alderfer
(C) Ad)ild< (D) 3713^ . (C) McGregor (D) Ouchi
105. di4^iR41* OT "sRtw TJM ^ 105. Advantages of training received by
t: employees are :
(A) ^ (A) Increased productivity
(B) W ^ 3TWT ^■ (B) Reduced wastage of materials
(c) -^m ■^* ^ (C) Reduced supervision
(D) (D) All of the above
106. ^ *^qf^* OT ^ 106 has defined management as 'Art
of getting things done through people*.
1^ t I
(A) Mary Parker Follett
(A)
(B) Frederick Taylor
(B) l^^Rd)
(C) Philip Kotler
(C)
(D) 37^1^ 17T^ (D) Abraham Maslow
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107. ^ feTT ^ 107. Organisation chart is used in :
t I
(A) Informal organisation
(A)
(B) Formal organisation
(B) ^fn3^
(C) Cost computation
(C) ei™ wn
(D) Selection process
(D) WR "Slf^
108. -m Ri^<kT -it^ i 108. Authority and responsibility should be :
(A) Equal
(A)
(B) Unequal
■ (B) awTH
(C) More authority and less responsibility
(C) a#i^ Riw^<Kl ^
(D) More responsibility and less
(D) 3if^ct)t< authority
109. o^ci^KifMch ^8TT 109. Structured, behavioural and stress are
^ I types of:
(A) iTT9Tc9>R (A) Interview
(B) ^ (B) Job analysis
(C) (C) Motivation
(D)^ (D) Salary payment
110. rdMRrlRsld "4* ^ 1^ Ph^^KH 110. Which of the following is not a
traditional method of performance
^ WTfW f^ ^ t ?
appraisal ?
(A) ^ 1^ (A) Ranking method
(B) RIW? (B) Graphic rating scale
(C) Behaviourally anchored rating
(C) oqc^^iiicHd) w'-dlPdd ^ scales
(D) "PpJlf^Ri 'Hill PiRl (D) Critical incident method-
{5)S/3/2024/A 18
Text of page 21
111. 11 111. Gilt-edged market deals primarily in :
(A) nfa^fnHi ^ qi'siK (A) Market of Government Securities
(B) (B) Metal Market
(C) "^RR (C) Debentures Market
(D) ^RR (D) Weapon Market
112. PinRiR^d "^* ^ ^ umtTJT 112. Which one of the following is the
^ IWt^ t ? regulatory authority of Regional Rual
Banks ?
(A) "TOI^
(A) NABARD.
(B)
(B) Central Government
(C) ^ "^R^
(C) State Government
(D) Hqttqi ^Ni" (D) Sponsor Bank
113. 3^ ^ 37R.^.3nf. 113. What authority does the RBI have under
1934 ^ t?RT 22 ^^^ Section 22 of the Reserve Bank of India
i ? Act, 1934 ?
(A) Rictch ^R^Tf (A) To issue one rupee coins
(B) To issue bank notes without stamp
(B) l^di ^ ^*=ti -ite "^jlRt
duty
(C) To control foreign currency
(C) fq^ifil fqrfWT ^ exchange
(D) ^IR ^ MrM ^RTTT (D) To regulate interest rates
114. PlHfdRdd ^f ^ ^ITfqte 5ltni 114. Which one of the following is not the
^ #T-^ "^R^ ^ ^i ? three-tier structiue component of
* Corporate Debt Restructuring' (CDR) ?
(A) ^.^.3TR 1R
(A) CDR Management Forum
(B) ■Rt.^.aM. iR
(B) CDR Standing Fonim
(C) "Rt.^.STR. a#I^R 3JTRI
(C) CDR Empowered Group
(D) ^.^.37R. #T (D) CDR Cell
(5)S/3/2024/A 19 P.T.O.
Text of page 22
115. PiMRrin^d ^ ^ 115. Which of the following are the
t ? instruments of money market ?
(i) ^ W^I-^ (i) Certificate of deposit
(ii) wrUte 31^ (ii) Commercial paper
(iii) 3ileJ|Pich TjRrjRi ^RTR (iii) Industrial securities market
(iv) (iv) Bond market
(v) "fef "^RTR (v) Treasury bill market
(A) (i), (ii), (iv),(v) (A) (i), (ii), (iv),(v)
(B) (i),(ii),(v) (B) (i), (ii), (V)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (C) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv),(y)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
116. fHHPdRdd ^^ TO ^ 3m 116. Which one of the following is the first
^ t ? development financial institute of India ?
(A) (A) IDBI
(B) (B) IFCI
(C) 37Tf.#.3TTf.^.3TT^. (C) ICICI
(D)'wi (D) NABARD
(5)S/3/2024/A 20
Text of page 23
117. rHHPdRdd ^ 117. Which of the following statements
I
^^ ^ ^ T^* ^^ t ? regarding the expense ratio of mutual
(A) 04H ''^ "% fund is not true ?
"3^1 ^ 3ri%Mk^ cfxai "3ft (A) The expense ratio represents the
WRT "f^ ^h-hI'i f^^i proportion of a fund's asset used for
■3imT t ak ^ "d wii operating cost and is deducted from
3IRTT ^ I the net assets.
(B) efe 3Tf^ "^TFTcT f, (B) A load is an upfront cost paid by
investors directly to the mutual fund
at the time of purchasing fund
(C) ^Tf^ ^ ^^ shares/units:
aWk "qr ^ ^ t aik (C) Theexpenseratioforactivelymanaged
kif^ ^ ^ "q^ ^ arfe funds is typically lower and higher for
^kir t" I passively managed funds.
(D) ^ ar^qRT ^ ^ ii (D) Expense ratio is different from load.
118. PiHPdr^d "k* ^ ^R«IR ?^q 118. Which of the following entities is
^ "sfe-aiq -^SRT ^ ^ primarily responsible for implementing
t ? the stand-up India scheme ?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(A) fer
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(B) ^irtiN "k^T^ "tqi
(C) Public Sector Banks
(C) tii4^Pi<^i ^ ^
(D) Ministry of Micro, Small and
(D) ^ aSk 1T«ZR "3^ "k^TOT Medium Enterprises
(5)S/3/2024/A 21 P.T.O.
Text of page 24
119. 2022 ^ OT 119. Which of the following statements about
fervid "gsO m^diT the Central Bank Digital Currency
^ -^f PlHrdRdti ^ WI (CBDC) pilot launched by RBI in the
3TO??T i/f ? year 2022, is/are incorrect ?
(i) fef^dd ^-«te (e?-W) ^ (i) The Digital Rupee-Wholesale
(e?-W) pilot is intended to reduce
■3^^ PlMdH ^^iPsIM
transaction costs associated with
W13 ^ ^ t I
settlement risk.
(ii) fepMldd "^-"f^ (e^-R) WTd3
(ii) The Digital Rupee-Retail (e?-R)
1; 2022 ^ 5fftK
pilot was launched on December 1,
oiimiR^T ^ TT^ ^ witoif
2022 for a closed user group of
^ dT'^ Rt)^i ®?r I
customers and merchants.
(iii) e?-W "5^ =i«id ^fciRch
(iii) The primary goal of e?-W is to
^ ^3HT
make the intra-bank system more
t I efficient only.
(iv) ef-Wrore ^
(iv) The e?-W pilot was launched
Mrd'^ipd-ti]!' #T-^ ^ ItoH ^ specifically of transactions in
1^ dT"^ RtiMi ''FTr ^ I government securities.
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) (A) (i), (ii), (iii) only
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) only
(C) (iii) (C) (iii) only
(D) <iMd (iv) (D) (iv) only
120. 3ii^.3tr'^.i^.3it|. ^ wrn 1^ ^ ^ 120. In which year was the IRDAI
«Tt ? established ?
(A) 1999 (B) 1935 (A) 1999 (B) 1935
(C) 1956 (D) 1949 (C) 1956 (D) 1949
(5)S/3/2024/A 22
Text of page 26
125. ^ '^cfcMlQl hTsqi* 125. The 'SERVQUAL modeT for measuring
-OT fci^RHd 1^ wn t I service quality is developed by :
(A) ^ (A) Jane Carlson
(B) m. (B) R. Srinivasan
(C) Tj;. Q<i^<ihh (C) A. Parasuraman
(D) ^ (D) Black Berry
126. ■sqfWTH 1^ siddkH=b ^ ^ 126. Personal selling is rationaly more
feqqt 3^ 'm^ ffcit t, ^ : economical and effective when :
(A) 3Tte ^ t (A) Product is of a high unit value
(B) "3rRK ^ t" (B) Product is.a less unit value
(C) dM^lddl f (C) Consumer behaviour is impulsive
(D) ^ ^ (D) None of the above
127. ^ "^r ^ 127. Zero level channel is also known
«THT «IRIT ^ I as
(A) 31?^ t^WT «R^ (A) Direct marketing channel
(B) 1^3^ 1^WI (B) Backward marketing channel
(C) aMfe f^WI (C) Industrial marketing channel
(D) None of the above
(D) ^ ^
128. ^RR ^RTT^, PdWd "q;^* 128. In the declining market the company may
adopt strategy of harvesting, divesting
: Wftfd STW t I
and
(A)
(A) Increasing sales
(B) 3T^ dcsm ^ ^31^
(B) Eliminating a good product
(C) dcMKd" (C) Increasing production
(P) -3^^ ^ ^ -^T^* (D) None of the above
(5)S/3/2024/A 24
Text of page 27
129. "^TSIR ^ ^?qf% 129. The five forces of competition in the
OT if t I market are originated by :
(A) (A) Alex Chemev
(B) ^ (B) Peter Drucker
(C) ^ (C) Michael Porter
(D) ti^ iq. W (D) Robert M. Grant
130. "m ifePTT # 7 Ts^ ^ 130. Seven tactics known" as 7 Ts t/o not
t, ^ PlHidfed ^ -^Pm *#Ri include of the following :
^t ? ■
(A) Product
(A) "3^^
(B) Service
(B) ^
(C) (C) Communication
(D) 3T3?mPT (D) Research
f
131. ^^ -^f aaf^ ^ TOif^ 131. Which is a leading case of English law,
^ ^ ^ f^, infm ii^T-iMH ^ where the Court laid , the rule for
determining the amount of compensation
'-^mi t ?
arising from breach of contract ?
(A) Wm A=Hi<criH
(A) Mozez vs. Macferlan
(B) o*liH
(B) Hyde vs. Ranch
I
(C) ^ otIlH (C) Harvey vs. Facey
(D) (D) Hadley vs. Baxendale
(5)S/3/2024/A 25 P.T.O.
Text of page 28
132. ^ rHMPdRdd t 132. According to the contract of pledge,
"^ten srftRiR, PKql which of the following is not the right of
^t ? the Pawnee ?
(A) ^"1 ^ ^ "Rl^ ffoFi" (A) Right to retain the goods pledged
upon non-payment of debt
3Tf^?^R I
(B) Right to get extraordinary" expenses
(®) ^ ^
, incurred for the preservation of
areiWT ^^ ^ 1
goods pledged.
(C) ^ ffe ■'R
(C) Right to file a suit in the court of
ch<^ SlfsjcFiR I
law upon default by pawnor.
(D) Pk<^1 loA c(iel ^ Pishl ^
(D) Right to sell the good pawned
^^11 "fel pKq1 "R^ ^ "RI^
without giving reasonable notice of
^ R>T 37fq^JR I sale to the pawnor.
133, l^nsRT 3Tf¥RRR, 1881 ^ SIJRK, 133. According to Negotiable Instruments Act,
Pl*-lfciPafl ^ "^3P1 1881, which of the following instruments
Rit SnR^RRJclT "t" ? does not require a stamp ?
(A) ^ (A) Cheque
(B) (B) Promissory note
(C) PlPi^H-R^ • (C) Bill of exchange
(D) RRt (D) All of the above
(5)S/3/2024/A 26
Text of page 29
m
134. 2013 i) 3T35IR, 134. According to Companies Act, 2013,
^ wm^ ^ "31^ 4^ ^ ^^en is the dissolution of a company not
^ "511^ ? considered to be fair and just ?
(A) ^ ^qm ■^* ?Tf^ (A) When the company is continuously
incurring losses in its business, but
*331 crlRhl Tf^^.
it is expected to make profits in
■gro BPq ^TRI^ 4 311W I
future.
(B) ^ ^qNR ■^* ^rfro
(B) When the company is continuously
"331 4 4( "pl^ gRT
incurring losses in its business and
eTN ^ 41 3TT^ "3 4 I
there is no hope of earning profits.
(C) ^ ^ 31^333 SRMfNf ^ (C) When the majority of shareholders
3ri3 ^^33 3f^TtTRt Xt of the company are exploiting the
a I minority shareholders.
(D) ^ 4 xqm 33 ^33*1 ^ (D) When the company's funds are
X5T 4 1 being misused.
135. Xfc XTT^glt 3Tf3f^, 2008 ^ 135. According to the provisions of the
■aT33Rf ^ 3I3?nX 1^ Xftf33 Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008,
Xn^gRt ^ TRto ^ l3H%fe3 "^f which of the following documents is
necessarily to be filed with the Registrar
. ^ 4™ "333 <r^^< ^ 3^ 3lfeT
for registration of LLP ?
3TI3?3^ i ?
(A) Registration documents
(A) 3^33 im
(B) Documents of terms and conditions
(B) ^ V^ "333^* 33 1133
(C) Limited Liability Partnership
(C) Xftf33 3Tf^ XHfW ^H^ldl (LLP) Agreement
(D) 13333 1133 (D) Incorporation document
(5)S/3/2024/A 27 P.T.O.
Text of page 30
136. a#ifwT, 1930 ^ m 47 136. Under Section 47 of the Sale of Goods
^ tIRunteR ^ a^teR Act, 1930, the seller can exercise lien :
"3^ c(i^ ^ iT^RTT ^ ?
(A) when the goods are sold on a
(A) f^shM '^'^R
stipulation as to credit
■f^Rft ^ "f^RTT "'RTr ^
(B) only upon the order of court
(B) ci^ ^ ^
(C) ^ ^ RcllRi-Ml ii "W t (C) when the buyer becomes insolvent
(D) 'm ii ^ t (D) when the seller becomes insolvent
137. "SlfOT^ 2002 ^ ^^ 137. What is the main objective of the
t ? Competition Act, 2002 ?
(A) To prevent competition in Indian
(A) ^RRf 3#mf ^
markets
(B) ^TRclt^ ^RRf TrfcR^qf ^
(B) To promote and sustain competition
^ "3^ WIT
in Indian markets
' (C) sM^ ^TMff irf^Rq^ ^
(C) To promote competition in interna
tional markets
(D) ^IRdk ^1^* WT (D) To restrict foreign goods and
"tR vFTRT services from entering Indianmarkets
138. atftTTO 2005 ^ 138. Under the provisions of the Right to
■gjwif ^ ^ 3Ti^ 4^ Information Act, 2005, The Chief
Information Commissioner and
3TT5^' PHMHrlRsld
Information Commissioners are
^ OT ^ ^ t ?
appointed by :
(A) trtprM
(A) The Prime Minister
(B)
(B) The President
(C) 4^^ ¥Tt^ (C) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) TOT ^ (D) The Supreme Court of India
(5)S/3/2024/A 28
Text of page 31
139. 1970 ^ 102 ^ 139. Under Section 102 of the Patents Act,
a^Rpfci, fer '^* ^ 3T5??T 1970, who can acquire patents in public
^ t ? purpose ?
(A) Tl^ (A) State Government
(B) (B) Patent Controller
(C) "^R^iR (C) Central Government
(D) srI^ (D) Appellate Board
140. *"R^ TRi" "^RR' ^ '?R^ 140. On and from which date and year was
^ ^8T ^TRcT ■^' RR altr RR the Goods and Services Tax (GST)
(■^.■RR.^.) "f^RT Mr "RR ^ implemented in India with the concept of
Mrt RRT ? 'One Nation, One Tax, One Market' ?
(A) 1 37^, 2016 ^ (A) From 1st April, 2016
(B) 1 37^; 2017 ' (B) From 1st April, 2017
(C) 30 2017 ^ (C) From 30th June, 2017
(D) I 2017 ^ (D) From 1st July, 2017
141. PHMPdRsid ^ RRT RRRT ^ 3M -^f 141. From the following which is included in
Rlf^ t ? Gross Total Income ?
(A) 37IR ^ tM" 3TR RTT (A) Aggregate of income imder five
rW heads of income
(B) 37TR ^ Rlt 3RR RJT (B) Aggregate of income under five
^ ^ RRT 3TT^ heads of income + Adjustments of
set off and carry forward of losses
^ ^ ^ rrtrNh
(C) Aggregate of income imder five
(C) 3TRT ^ tM Rft aM RR
heads of income + Adjustments of
rIr + dlid^T ^ ijS RRT
set off and carry forward of losses
^ ^ ^ RRTRhn + STRT RiT
+ Clubbing of income '
1r^
(D) Aggregate of income under five
(D) 31IR ^ rM 3M ^ heads of income + Adjustments of
■qW + ^ RRT 3^* 3lrt set off and carry forward of losses
^ ^ ^ rrrNr + aRR rr + Clubbing of income - Allowed
tTR« - wl<J)d dx^PdqT deduction
(5)S/3/2024/A 29 P.T.O,
Text of page 33
145. "Jlf ^^ 3TPT 4^0,000 fel ^ 145. Mother's total income Rs. 4,50,000,
Father's totol income Rs. 4,00,000,
3M 4,00,000 "5^
Minor son's income from interest
, ®Hi'5i ^ 31FT 1,50,000 ^
Rs. l,50,000j then total income of
^ 31PT st)H*i: eVn :
Mother and Father respectively will be :
(A) 5,98,500 ■?. ' ^T 4,00,000-?.
(A) Rs. 5,98,500 and Rs. 4,00,000
(B) 6,00,000^. ^4,00,000-?.
(B) Rs. 6,00,000 and Rs. 4,00,000
i
I
(C) 4,50,000^. W 5,48,500 ^. (C) Rs. 4,50,000 and Rs. 5,48,500
• (D) 4,50,000-?. ^ 5,50,000-?. (D) Rs. 4,50,000 and Rs. 5,50,000
146. SIPR?? ^ RtJti ^ SiRpftf 146, Under which Section of Income Tax Act,
India has entered into bilateral
*1R? ^ -H1®T
agreements with many countries for
-fs^ryN "t- ?
\
avoidance of double taxation ?
(A) 89 (B) 89A
(A) 89 (B) 89A
(C) 90 (D) 92 (C) 90 P) 92
147. PiHrdRsId ^ 147. Which of the following is a punishable
1l
t? offence ? |
(A) ^ (A) Tax avoidance !
i
(B) p) Tax evasion
(C) ^ fr*5R (C) Tax planning
(D) (A) aSk (B) P) Both (A) and P)
(5)S/3/2024/A 31 P.T.O.
Text of page 34
148. 1?:^ ^ 7,000 cTRRt 148. An individual assessee won lottery prize
"^aftcIT I <i<^\H "m 3TRT^ worth Rs. 7,000, Deduction of income
tax at source will be :
(A) 2,100^. (B) 700-?. (A) Rs. 2,100 (B) Rs. 700
(C) 1,400 ^. (D)^ (C) Rs. 1,400 (D) Zero
149. ^ ^ 2023-24 149." According to old tax regime, total tax
^ ^ 375?TR ^^ payable of an individual assessee during /I
■r
3imR 96,200 ^ t, ^ STfTR a^p?^ financial year 2023-24 is Rs. 96,200,
then amount of four instalments of
^ RtiJ;al TTf^ shHSfi; wWt :
advance tax are respectively :
(A) 24,050 ^ + 28,860 ^ +
(A) Rs. 24,050 + Rs. 28,860 +
28,860 + 14,430^
Rs. 28,860 + Rs. 14,430
(B) 14,430 + 28,860 ^ +
(B) Rs. 14,430 + Rs. 28,860 +
28,860 + 24,050^
Rs. 28,860 + Rs.,24,050
(C) 24,050 ^ + 24,050 + (C) Rs. 24,050 + Rs. 24,050 +
24,050 +24,050-^ Rs. 24,050 + Rs. 24,050
(D) ^ (D) None of the above
150. aiPRiT ^ |-4il^rdJl ^ 150. Which is the most necessary document
"^TRT ctilitii "5^ for easy e-Filing of income tax return for
aiPiqi4a: ? a salaried taxpayer ?
(A) Wf 15 (A) Fonn 15
(B) 26 AS (B) 26 AS
(C) "9^16 (C) Form 16
(D) "3^1^ "^f ^ ^ (D) None of the above
(5)S/3/2024/A 32
Text of page 35
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Source: Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission.