MPPSC AE 2025: State Engineering Service Exam, AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERING

Text of page 1
RSAE/2025/A
Question Booklet SI. No.
Series GENERAL STUDIES
AND 3005525
AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERING
Candidate should write his/her
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^"^fem/No. of Printed Pages:32 ^ iPFTl/Total No. of Questions : 15
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SECTION-A
GENERAL STUDIES
1. The Southern Boundary of the 4. In which districts are tropical
Malwa Plateau is defined by which moist deciduous forests found in
geomorphological feature ? Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Vindhyan range (A) Murena, Shivpuri, Gwalior
(B) Satpura range (B) Balaghat, Mandala, Shahdol
(C) Panna,Tikamgarh, Chattarpur
(C) Aravali range 1 ,
(D) Mandsaur, Dhar, Bhind
(D) Deccan plateau
5. On which river is the Rajghat Dam
2. The most significant i
built ?
geomorphological feature of
k- ^ '
the Bundelknand region in (A)..Narmada
Madhya Pradesh (B) Betwa
(A) Residual hills
(C) Sindh
(B) Erosion surfaces
(D) Chambal
(C) Alluvial plains
. (D) Conical hills 6. In which of the following districts
of Madhya Pradesh does the Baiga
. ^ tribe reside ?v , , -
3. Which element is less in black soil ?
(A) Jhabua
(A) Iron and lime
(B) Chindwara
(B) Phosphorus and nitrogen
(0) Carbon and hy^ogen (C) Hoshangabad
'• I
(D) Sulfur and zinc ~ (D) Dindori
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7. Which of the following is the 11, Which of the following
special backward tribes of e-governance project was started
Madhya Pradesh ? by the Government of
Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Saharia
(A) Lok Mitra
(B) Gond
(B) Nai Disha
(C) Bhil (C) Gyandoot
(D) Kol (D) Jan Mitra
8. The'Korku tribe is maiidy found in 12. Method of data storage consisting
of a loop of flexible celluloid like
(A) Jhabua
material that can store data in the
(B) Betul form of electro-magnetic charges, is
known as
(C) Shahdol
(A) Tape Storage (TS)
(D) Guna
(B) - Floppy Disks(FD)
(0) Optical Disks(CD) •,
9. According to the 2011 Census,
(D) Hard Disks(HD)
the percentage of Scheduled Tribe
population in the total population of
13. With respect to GPU,the computer
Madhya Pradesh was
memory hierarchy is organised as
(A) 21.09 0H0 ; follows
(B) 22.01 (A) Primary Memory -> Secondary
Memory -> Processor Registers
(G) 21.20
Cache Memory
(D) 22.50
(B) Processor Registers -> Cache
Memory Primary Memory ->
10. Saharia tribe mainly resides in Secondary Memory
which of the following districts ? (C) Cache Memory -> Processor
Registers Primary Memory
(A) Jhabua
Secondary Memory
(B) Khargone ' (D) Prirnary Memory -> Cache
(C) Shivpuri ■ Memory Secondary Memory
-> Processor Registers
(D) Khandwa
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14. Which of the following is not a type 17. At which place did Vrishnag, the
of'Machine Learning'? founder of the Naga dynasty,
estabhshed his dynasty ?
(A) Supervised Learning (A) Ujjaini
(B) Unsupervised Learning (B) Gwalior
(C) Vidisha
(C) Refurbished Learning
(D) Jabalpur
(D) Reinforcement Learning
18. The famous poet and dramatist
15. With the advancements in Rajashekhar received the patronage
of which Kalchuri king ?
■ Artificial Intelligence (AI) a new
(A) Yuvraj dev
challenging phenomenon has
(B) Kokalla
emerged which refer to those audio,
(C) Balharsh
video or images that are generated (D) Karna
by AI and it never actually existed
in the real world. This is'known as 19. Which Muslim commander defeated
the Parmar ruler Mahalakdev and
(A) Deep fake
captured Ujjain ?
(B) K —anonymity
(A) Mir Khwaza
(C) L — diversity (B) Ain-ul-Muik "
(D) Biases in AI (C) Husang Shah
'(D) Khan Mohammad Shah
16. Which archaeologist discovered the
human skull fossil from Hathnora ? 20. Who was the founder of the Faruki
dynasty of Nimar ?
(A) Manoranjan Ghosh
(A) Malik Raja
(B) Arun Sonkia (B) Dilawar Khan
(0) V.S.Wakankar (C) Nasir Khan'
(D) K. D. Vajpai (D) Mohammad Shah ; .
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21. Who has been awarded the Nobel 24. Who is the author of the novel
Prize in Literature 2025 ? "Sarag-Narak Yan Che"?
(A) Annie Ernaux (A) Makhanlal Chaturvedi
(B) Hah Kang (B) Balkavi Bairagi
(C) Laszlo Krasznahorkai (C) Ram Narayan Upadhyay
(D) Louise Gluck (D) Jagdish Chandra Joshila
22. Who became the first person to 25. In which district of Madhya Pradesh
successfully ski down Mount is India's first Pradhan Mantri
Everest without supplemental * Mega Integrated Textile Region
oxygen ? ' and Apparel(PM MITRA)Park
being established ?
(A) Reinhold Messner
(A) Indore
(B) Andrzej Bargiel
^ (B) Khargone , '
(C) Bartek Bargiel
(C) Ujjain "
(D) Donald Tusk ^
(D) Dhar
• 's * *
23. In which Indian city has it been
26. Which is the conibined initer-state
announced that the 2030
project of Madhya Pradesh,
■ Commonwealth Games will be
Uttar Pradesh and Bihar ?
held ? '
(A) Harsi Project'
(A) New Delhi
(B) Bansagar Project
(B) Mumbai
(C) Ahmedabad (C) Rajghat Project
(D) Chennai (D) Sindh Project
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27. Where was Chandni thermal power 31, Under which Rule of the Madhya
station established ?. Pradesh Panchayat Provisions
(A) Chhindwara (Extension to Scheduled Areas)
Rules 2022(PESA Act),.the Gram
(B) Dewas
Sabha has the right to return
(C) Amalai the land of Scheduled Tribes
(D) Nepanagar •, transferred by fraud ?
(A). Rule —19
28. In which area is Amarkantak
(B) Rule — 20
thermal power plant located ?
(C) Rule-21
(A) Baidhan
(D) Rule — 22
(B) Budhar
(C) Chachai .
32. In which year was the State Level
(D) Father Kheda Kol Tribe Development Agency
whose name has been changed to
29. What is the percentage of urban Kol Tribe Development Authority
population in Madhya Pradesh formed ?
according to the 2011 Census ? (A) Year 2009
(A) 21 to 23 percentage
(B) Year 2010
(B) 24 to 26 percentage
(C) Year 2011
(0) 27 to 29 percentage
(D) Year 2012
(D) 30 to 32 percentage
33. How many districts of Madhya
30. Which of the following districts Pradesh were benefited under the
of Madhya Pradesh shares its Pradh'an Maiitri Jan Jati Nyay
borders with Uttar Pradesh and Mahaabhiyan(P.M. Janman-2)in
Ghhattisgarh both ? the year 2024-25 ?
* , * *
(A) Anuppur (A) 20
(B) Singrauli (B) 24
(0) Rewa (C) 28
(D) Shahdol. (D) 30 -
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34. Which Section of the Scheduled 37. Which department was constituted
Castes and Scheduled Tribes
in the year 2001 for the purpose
of better utihsatiori of biological
(Prevention of Atrocities) Act (organic) resources in Madhya
Pradesh ?
1989 provides for punishment
for derehction of duty by a public
(A) Madhya Pradesh istate
Biodiversity Board
servant who is not a member of
(B) Madhya Pradesh Council of
a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Biotechnology
Tribe ? (C) Madhya Pradesh Bio(hversity
Department
(A) Section -2
(D) Madhya Pradesh Biodiversity
(B) Section — 3 . Ministry
(C) Section — 4 38. On what basis was the division of
forests done in Madhya Pradesh ?
(D) Section — 5 (A) Based on the tropics
(B) Based on vegetation and
geographical region
35. What is the total number of
(C) Based on the forest division
Chairperson, Vice Chairperson and
(D) On the basis offorest villages
Members prescribed in the Tribal
Advisory Council ? 39. In the marketing year of 2024-25
which crop is included in price
(A) 10 support scheme first time at
minimum support price of earning
(B) ,15 value ? : ..
(A) Chickpea(Gram)
(C) 20
(B) Soyabean
(D) 25 (C) Lentil
(D) Mustard
36. Madhya Pradesh Forest 40. What was the Gross State
Development Corporation Domestic Product(GSDP)of
was established in Madhya Pradesh at current prices
for the financial year 2024-25 ?
(A)" 24 July 1975 ' ' (A) Rs. 13,53,809 crore
(B) 15 August 1984 (B) Rs. 14,00,000 crore
(C)- 27 August 2008 (C) Rs. 15,03,395 crore
'I V • -
(D) Rs. 16,00,000 crore
(D) 10 July 1975
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41. Under whose editorship was 46. The tenure of Up-Lokayukt in
"Dainik Lokmat" started from Madhya Pradesh is
Jabalpur in February 1930 ? (A) 3 years
(A) Madhav Agarkar (B) 4 years
(B) Seth Govind Das (C) 5 years
(C) D.RMishra (D) 6 years
(D) Girija Shankar
47. Who among the following was the
longest serving Chief Secretary of
42. Under what name was Arya Samaj Madhya Pradesh ?
established in Bhopal in 1890 ? (A) H. S.Kamath
(A) Jan Sabha (B) R.P. Naronha
(B) Lok Sabha (C) B.KDubey
(C) Jagriti Sabha (D) K. S. Sharma
(D) Mitra Sabha
48. Which was the first State in India
fo implement Panchayati Raj as per
43. Who is the author of"Papers 73^ Constitutional Amendment A^?
Relating to.the Aboriginal Tribes (A) Gujarat
of the Central Provinces"? (B) Maharashtra
(A) Russel (C) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Stephen Hislop (D) Madhya Pradesh
(G) Hiralal
49. Which of the following is not a part
(D) R. B. Foote of the committee to select State
Information Commissions ?
(A) Chief Minister
44. Which tribe of Madhya Pradesh
(B) Leader of Opposition Legislative
mainly worship Meghnath as their
Assembly
deity ?
(C) Cabinet Member nominated
(A) Korku by CM
(B) Gond (D) Chief Justice of High Court
(C) Baiga
50. According to 'Madhya Pradesh
(D) Oraon Govansh Vadh Pratishedh
Adhiniyam 2004', which of the
45. When was Bhopal State Praja following is/are included under
Mandal established ? definition of"Cow progeny" ?
(A) 1942 (A) Cows only
(B) Cows and Calves
(B) 1944 (C) Cows, Bulls, Bullocks and
(C) 1946 Calves
(D) 1938 (D) Cows, Bulls and Calves
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SECTION-B
AGRICULTUEAL ENGINEERING
51. Wliicli pump is suitable for 55. Whatis the range ofJackson Candle
pumping water from deep wells Turbidimeter for short tube ?
and high heads ?
(A) 100-1000
(A) Reciprocating pump
(B) Submersible pump (B) 1100-1200
(C) Centrifugal pump (C) 1400-1500
(D) Artesian wells (D) 700-800
52. Which method is used for 56. Contour bunding used to
estimating safe jdeld of alluvial
basin ? 0i5E (A) Increase slope gradient
(A) Hill method s«-
(B) Reduce runoff and soil erosion
0[
(B) Rill method (C) Increase evaporation
(C) Jacob method (D) Divert water to pond
(D) None of these
57. Non-arable lands in watershed
53. The flow is said to be when management are treated with
its path lines are irregular curves
which continually cross each other. (A) Deep ploughing
(A) Laminar flow (B) Contour cultivation
(B) Steady flow (C) Revegetation
(C) Turbulent flow (D) Intensive fertilizer application
(D) None of these
58. By means of cultural practices,
54. Which method is used for farmers can influence the
estimating approximate well yield ?
(A) Work structure
(A) Bailer Test
(B) Slope structure
(B) Deep Test
(0) Coat Test (C) Rock structure
(D) Rate Test (D) Soil structure
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59. Which slope is causing maximum 62. The effective field capacity of
" tillage equipment is calculated
erosion ?
from
(A) Gentle slope (A) , Actual area covered by the
implement based on its total
(B) Moderate slope
- time consumed and its width
(C) Steep slope (B) Rate of field coverage of the
implement, based on
(D) Depositional slope
100 per cent of time at the
rated speed covering 100 per cent
60. An Increment in cropping intensity of its rated width
resulted into
-(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above-
(A) Increased peak runoff
(B) Reduced infiltration 63. In a standard disc plough, the
angle at which the plane of the
(C) Increased evapotranspiration
cutting edge of the disc is incUned
(D) Decreased soil cover to the vertical line is
(A) Gang angle
(B) Disc angle
61. The plough bottom is the basic
'(0) Tilt angle
unit of a walking plough and is a
(D) None of the above
combination of
(A) Share, mould board, land side 64. Tool that operate at greater depth,
and Frog break the hardpan and do not
pulverize the surface soil
(B) Frog, coulter and jointer (A) Listers
(0) Mould board, bean, shoe and (B) Disc plough
shovel (G) Sub-soiler
(D) MB plough
(D) Both(A)and (B)
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65. The procedure of testing a seed 68. During crop residue burning,
which of the following proportions
drill when it is first built and
of nutrients are lost into the
during its use to ensure the correct atmosphere as gaseous and
seed rate is particulate matter ?
(A) Entire C, 40 - 50% N, 50% P,
(A) Calculation 30% K and 25% S
(B) Calibration (B) Entire C, 80 - 90% N, 25% P,
20% K and 50% S
(C) Metering
(C) 80% C, 60- 70% N, 40% P,
(D) None of these 30% K and 20% S
(D) Entire C, 25% N,80-90% P,
50% K and 20% S
66. When the rate of increase in
Earth's temperature exceeds the 69. National Remote Sensing Centre is
threshold level of 0.1®C per decade located at
due to human activity, it is called (A) New Delhi
(B) Bengaluru
(A) Carbon sequestration
(C) Hyderabad
(B) Climate change (D) Jodhpur
(C) Global warming
70. Choose the correct requirement
(D) Greenhouse effect of precision farming from the
following:
• 1. Ability to identift^ each field
67. Blue baby syndrome is caused location.
due to
II. AbiHty to capture, interpret
(A) Excess fluoride in drinking and analyse agronomic data
at an appropriate scale and
water frequency.
(B) Excess nitrate in drinking III. Abihty to adjust inputs and
farming practices to maximize
water
benefits from each field
location.
(C) Excess arsenic in drinking
(A) Only I
water
(B) Only I and II
(D) Iron deficiency in drinking
(C) Only II and III
water
(D) I,nandin
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71. Which is the major loss caused by 75. Particle size most detachable by
sheet erosion in affected areas ? raindrop impact is
(A) Sub soil (A) < 0.002 mm (less than 0.002 mm)
(B) Gravel particles (B) 0.063-0.250 mm
(C) Organic matter, clay and 00 mm (more than 2 mm)
(C) > 2
nutrients
(D) Gravel size
(D) Stones"
76. Stroke-Bore ratio for tractor engines
72. Bio-engineering methods mainly is about
r'
use
(A). • 0.5
1
(A) Concrete'
(B)"
(B) Steel .
(C) 1.25
(C) Living plant materials
(D) 1.75
(D) Plastics
77. Thermal efficiency of a diesel
73. Which one is the basic objective of
engine varies
rmnwater harvesting ?
(A) 25-28% ..
(A) Increase runoff
(B) 28-30%
(B) Reduce infiltration
(C) 32- 38%
(0) Store excess rainwater for • * I '''
productive use (D) 45-49%
(D) Increase erosion
78. The energy equivalent produced
per kg of bibmass is calculated
74. What is the impact of overgrazing
assuming an energy eqmvalent
on soil ?
(A) 4200 kcal/kg
(A) Soil aggregation
(B) 4200 kJ/kg
(B) Vegetative loss ..
(0) 4200 cal/kg
(C) Increased infiltration
(D) Soil formation
(D) 4206j/k'g - -
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79. Engiae power is transmitted 82. Which reasoning method is
through a series of intermediaries
illustrated by the following
to the driving wheels is called
(A) Power stroke statement ?
(B) Power brake "Given two well-formed formulas
(C) Power trains
(A B)and (B), for any expression
(D) Power steering
A and B,if it is consistent to
80. The device located in between the assume A, do so".
engine fljnvheel and gear box is
called SiSEl (A) Deductive Reasoning
svr-
(A) Clutch
(B) Inductive Reasoning
(B) Governor
(G) Connecting link (C) Abductive Reasoning
(D) Reserve device (D) Resolution
81. Consider the following statements
regarding frames. 83. In Dempster-Shafer theory, the
Statement I: A frame is a plausibility of a hypothesis s is
collection of slots and associated
values that describe some entity in defined in terms of the behef
the world. assigned to its complement.
Statement II: Frames do not
Which of the following expressions
support inheritance and all slot
values must be expHcitly defined. correctly represents the plausibihty
(A) Both Statement I and function ?
Statement II are true
(B) Statement I is true and (A) Pl(s)= Bel(s) + Bel(-.s)
Statement II is false
(B) Pl(s)= 1- Bel(s)
(C) Statement I is false and
Statement 11 is true (C) Pl(s)= l-Bel(-.s)
(D) Both Statement I and
Statement II are false (D) Pl(s)= Bel(s)-Bel(-ns)
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84. Consider the following statements. 86. Precision farming is sometimes
Statement I: The inference
called by which of the following
engine acts as an interpreter that
applies rules from the knowledge name ?
base to solve problems.
Statement II: The knowledge (A) Site-specific farming only
base contains both general domain
knowledge and case specific (B) Variable rate farming only
information.
Which of the following is correct for
rule-based expert systems ?
(C) Site-specific fuming and
(A) Statement I is true and prescription farming only
• Statement'H is false
(B) Statement I is false and (D) Prescription farming,
Statement II is true site-specific farming and
(C) Both Statement I and
Statement 11 ^e true variable rate farming
(D) Both Statement I and
Statement II are false
87. What does the acronym LASER
85. Consider the following statements stand for ?
regarding reinforcement learning.
Statement I:In reinforcement (A) Light Absorbent and Stimulated
learning, an agent learns by
interacting with the environment Emission of Radiations
and receiving rewards or penalties
based on.its actions. (B) Light Amplification by
Statement 11: Q-learning is a
reinforcement learning technique Stimulated Emission of
that learns the optimal action- Radiation
value function without requiring a
model of the environment.
(C) Linear Alternation by
Which of the following is correct ?
(A) Both Statement I and Stimulated Emission of
Statement II are true
Radiation
(B) Statement I is true and
Statement II is false
(D) Laser Amplification by
(C) Statement I is false and
Statement II is true Systematic Emission of
(D) Both Statement I and Radiation
Statement II are false
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88. What is the "4E," principle of 91. Intrinsic capacity of agent to cause
site-specific nutrient management? soil erosion is termed as
(A) Right source, right duration, (A) Erodibility
right depth, right place (B) Land slide
(B) Right soxirce, right crop, right (C) Erosivity
duration, right place
(D) Saltation
(C) Right place, right rate, right
crop, right depth
92. Graded bunds are constructed for
(D) Right product, right rate, right controlling water erosion under
time, right place conditions
(A) High annual rainfall, fine
89. One petagram (Pg)is equal to textured soil
(A) 10^^ grams (B) Low annual rainfall, medium
textured soil
(B) 10^^ grams
(G) Low annual rainfall, coarse
(C) 10^ grams
textured soil
(D) 10^® grams
(D) Moderate annualrainfall, coarse
textured soil
90. DBMS stands for
(A) Data Backup Management
93. Soil erosion caused by wind is also
System
termed as
(B) Database Manipulation
(A) Pluvial erosion
Software
(B) Fluvial erosion
(C) Database Management System
(C) Aeolian erosion
(D) Digital Base Management
(D) Organogenic erosion
System
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94. Cultivable area lost(m )per 97. 'Flood irrigation' method of
hectare of land under bund irrigating fields works best on
construction is calculated as
(A) Level or gently rolling terrain
[B = Bottom width of bund (m);
(B)'" Steeply rolling terrain
S = Land slope in percentage,
VI = Vertical Interval between
(C) Both(A) and (B)
bunds(m); HI = Horizontal (D) None of the above
Interval between bunds(m)]
(A) 100 SBm 9i8. Which one of the following does
not contribute to water logging ?
(B) 100 SB/HI
(A) Inadequate drainage
(G) lOOVI/SB . .
(B) Seepage from unlined canals
(D) 100 HI/SB
(C) Frequent flooding
(D) Excessive tapping of groimd
95. In hilly areas of low rainfall or water
shallow soil depth, most suitable
bench terrace is 99. Available moisture is the highest in
(A) Table top at soil moisture tension
of 4 atmospheres.
(B) Sloping outward
(A) Sand
(0) Sloping inward
(B) Clay
(D) Puerto Rican tj^e terrace (C) Loam
(D) All of the ai3ove
96. The water application efficiency
100. Hooghoudt's formula for drain
does not depend upon
spacing is not apphcable'for
(A) Geometry of the conveyance (A) Steady fLow ■
system ■ ^
(B) Homogeneous soil '
(B), Intake characteristics of soil (C) Permeable layer underhes the
drain
(C) Topography of field
(D) Darcy's law is valid for flow of
(D) Climatic conditions water through soil
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101. A watershed having size of 105. Which of the following practice
1 — 10 km classified into
increases soil moisture retention ?
watershed based on its size.
(A) Macro SI?® (A) Increasing slope gradient
(B) MiUi (B) Deep ploughing across the
(C) Micro
slope
(D) Mini
(C) Removal of vegetation cover
102. Amongst the eight land capability (D) Mulching
classes, which land classes are fit
for cultivation ?
(A) I, II, III, IV 106. The most common depth of filter
(B) V, vi,'vni,vii points in deltaic alluvial formations
(C) I, III, V, VII usually ranges from
(D) ii,iv,vi,vin
(A) 7-9 meter
103. Which vegetative condition falls (B) 10 - 12 meter
under the poor hydrologic condition ?
(C) 14- 16 meter
(A) Heavily grazed or regularly
burnt (D) 13- 15 meter
(B) Grazed but not burnt
(G) Protected from grazing
107. Which one is accurate flow
(D) None of the above
measuring device for flows less
104. An increment of sediment yield than 30 litre/second ?
index is on decrease of
(A) V-notch weir
(A) Area of erosion intensity unit
(B) Weightage of erosion intensity (B) Volumetric method
.unit
(C) Stage discharge curve
(C) Dehvery ratio
(D) Current meters
(D) Area of watershed
RSAE/2025/A-A 24
Text of page 25
108. The water retain under the space 112. Major portion of soil movement
of sediments during its deposition during wind erosion occurs by
and remains entrapped is refers to
process
(A) Connate water
(B) Magmatic water (A) Saltation
(C) Meteoric water (B) Suspension
(D) Available water
(C) Surface creep
•• •• f
109. Which concentrated discharge of (D) Wash load
water appears on ground surface ?
(A) Springs
113. The stage in gully development,
(B) Depression
when vegetation begins to grow
(0) Seepage
(D) None of these in the gully channel and further
erosion ceases is
110. Bored wells are generally referred (A) Formation stage
to as
(A) Small diameter wells (B) Development stage
(B) Medium diameter wells (0) Healing stage
(0) Large diameter wells
(D) Stabilization stage
(D) None of these
111. In areas, where the subsoil is more 114. Construction of contour trenches
resistant to erosion as compared
should be started
to surface soil,- the gully developed
has which of the following shapes ? (A) First in upper area
(A) Trapezoidal
(B) First in lower area
(B) Very irregular
(C) First in side boundaries
(0) U Shape
(D) V Shape (D) Anywhere in the target area
RSAE/2025/A-A 25 [P.T.O.
Text of page 26
115. Ratio of sediment yield of 118. The ratio of output power to the
watershed outlet and gross soil input power for a traction device is
erosion from the watershed is
called
termed as
(A) Tractive efficiency
(A) Relief ratio
(B) Fuel efficiency
(B) Sediment delivery ratio
(C) Net traction coefficient
(C) Bowen ratio
(D) Entrenchment ratio (D) Djmamic load
116. Normally the weight transfer from 119, Full form ofPTO is
the front axle to the rear axle is
(A) Power Torque Off
allowed to
>vr-
(B) Pressure Take Off
(A) 10-20%
(C) Power Take Off
(B) 20-30%
(D) Pressure and Torque Off
(C) 30-40%
(D) 40-50%
120. The measurement of the physical
features and functions of the
117. The pressure of oil in the
lubrication system of a tractor human body is called
engine is around
(A) Metrology
(A) Skg/m-^
(B) Meteorology
(B) 3 kg/cm'
(C) Agronomy
(C) 6kg/m^
(D) Anthropometry
(D) 6 kg/cm'
RSAE/2025/A-A 26
Text of page 27
121. Vacuum filters are limited by the 124. Freezing refers to cold preservation
cost of vacuum generation to a of foods maintained in a frozen
pressure difference of about
condition. Most foods are frozen at
(A) 20 X 10® KPa ®C or lower.
(B) 10 X 10® Pa
(A), -4°C
(C) 200x10® Pa
(B) -18°C
(D) 100x10® Pa
(C) -8°C
122. The mixing time is related to the (D) 0°C
mixing index using
(A)
^'
lnM = Ktm 125. The degree of mixing of solids
(B)
^'
M;=-Ktm depends on
(C) lnM =-Kt
(A) The relative particle size, shape
(D) M = ln(-Kt^) and density of each component
(B)'The tendency ofthe materials to
123. Heat utilization factor of a dr3dng
aggregate
system is the ratio of
(A) Drop in dry bulb temperature of (C) Neither (A) nor(B)
(hying air and increase in dry (D) Both (A) and (B)
bulb temperature of ambient
air
(B) Drop in dry bulb temperature of 126. Discharge Q in a triangular weir
ambient air and increase in dry varies as
t
bulb temperature of drying air (Where H = Depth offlow in
(C) Drop in relative humidity of upstream)
drying air and increase in
rl/2
relative humidity of ambient (A)
air 3/2
(B) H
(D) Drop in relative humidity of 5/2
(C) H
drjdng air and no change in wet
7/2
bulb temperature of ambient (D) H
air
RSAE/2025/A-A 27 [P.T.O.
Text of page 28
127. The modular limit of 130. The relationship between the Duty
'D"in ha/cumec, the water depth
standing wave flumes is
"A"(Delta)in cm, and base period
to avoid the region of transition "B" in days is given by
from the free to submerged-flow 864B
(A) D =
mode. A
864A
(A) 0.25 (B) D =
B
(B) 0.5
8.64A
(C) D =
(C) 0.75 B
(D) 1 8.64B
(D) D =
D
128. Lining of irrigation channels for a 131. The equipment used for placing
seeds in a flow in furrows at a
given discharge is done to xmiform rate and at a controlled
• 11 * ^ ' ,
depth, with or without an
(A) increases command area arrangement for covering them
with soil
(B) increases water logging
(A) Planter
(C) increases charmercross-section (B) Trans-planter
(D) increases chances*of breaching (C) Seed drill
0) AU bf the above
129. Irrigation water is usually applied
when the available soil moisture in 132 Annual depreciation of a
the root zone of the crop is depleted equipment is included in
by what percentage ? (A) Hiring cost
(A) 0-10%
(B) Fixed cost
(B) 10-25%
(C) Variable cost
(C) 50-60%
(D) None of the above
(D) 100%
RSAE/2025/A-A 28
Text of page 29
133. The tj^e of furrow opener 136. Which separator separates the
recommended for working well grains as per their roundness ?
in poorly prepared seedbeds or in
trashy soils is (A) Indented cylinder separator
(A) Shoe type (B) Spiral separator
(B) Hoe type (C) Specific gravity separator
(C) Chisel point type
(D) Stone separator
(D) Inverted T-tjrpe
137. Rate of filtration is
134. Threshing is the removal of
grain from the plant and can be (A) Inversely proportional to the
accomplished by the following pressure difference across
methods filter
(A) Rubbing action only •
(B) Directly proportional to the
(B) Impact action only pressure difference across
(C) Stripping action only filter
(D) Any ofthe above actions or their
(C) Directly proportional to the
combination
resistance to flow' •
135. A power-operated groundnut (D) Both (A) and (C)
decorticator performs the following
functions
138. 500 kg of paddy at 22% moisture
i. Groundnut feeding in to the content(wb)is dried to 14%
decorticator
moisture content(wb)for milling.
ii. Groundnut shelling
How much moisture is removed
iii. Cleaning the nuts from the during drying ?
mixture '•
(A) 40.51 kg
(A) Only i and ii
Only ii and iii (B) 42.51kg
(C) Only i and iii (C) 46.51kg '■
(D) i, ii and iii (D) 44.51kg
RSAE/2025/A-A 29 [ P.T.O.
Text of page 30
139. One rat consumes nearly, 142. Which of the following search
kg of grains in a year
strategies belongs to the category
and contaminates more than
of blind search ?
times what it actually
eats, with its'urine and excreta.
(A) Best-first search
(A) 5 kg,5 times
(B) A* se^ch
(B) 5 kg, ib'^^times
(C) 10 kg, 10 times (C) Hill climbing search
■ t ''';
(D) 10 kg,5 times
(D) Breadth-first search
140. Banana fruits are generally stored
at (Recommended Temp.
143. Which ofthe following conditions
" andRH) '
guarantees that the A* algorithm
(A) 3-7°Cand85-90%RH
wiQ always find the optimal
(B) 13-15°C and 90-95% RH
solution, provided a solution exists ?
(C) 4°Cand9p-95%,RH
(D) None of the abpvej (A) The heuristic function used is
, ^ .admissible
141. In the early.days of Artificial • -
(B) The search,space is large and
intelligence, wMch among the
given,programming lan^ages finite
became the dominant one for
' • j ; I
(C) The algorithm expands nodes
symbolic AI,and expert,systems ?
in a depth-first manner
(A) LISP
(B) Java (D) The cost of all actions in the
(C) Pjrthon ■ , problem is uniform
(D) C++ , : .
RSAE/2025/A-A , 30
Text of page 31
144. Identify the false statement 147. Which Gullies classification is refer
regarding the minimax search when depth greater than 9 meters ?
algorithm.
(A) G-1 HiSH
(A) Alpha-beta pruning improves
the efficiency of the minimax (B) G-2 igi
search (C) G-3
(B) Minimax search assumes that
(D) G-4
the opponent always plays
optimally
(C) Minimax search is 148. How contour farming will help in
implemented as a depth-first, soil conservation ?
depth united search procedure
(A) By increasing slope length
(D) In minimax, terminal node
values are obtained using (B) By increasing runoff velocity
rule-based inference (C) By holding water in furrows
(D) By removing crop residues
145. Which of the following correctly
describes the two search strategies
that are combined in simiilated 149. Which erosion process involves
annealing ? lifting of fine particles into the air
(A) Depth-first search and for long distances ?
Breadth-first search (A) Saltation
(B) HiU climbing and random walk (B) Suspension
(C) Hill climbing and beam search
(0) Surface creep
(D) Genetic algorithm and hill
climbing (D) Splash
146. What kind of soil erosion is caused 150. Which is the first stage of water
under natural conditions ? erosion ?
(A) Wind erosion (A) Sheet erosion
(B) Accelerated erosion (B) Rill erosion
(G) Geologic erosion
(0) Splash erosion
(D) Gully erosion
(D) GuUy erosion
RSAE/2025/A-A 31 [P.T.O.
Text of page 32
/ROUGH WORK
^ ''' I
RSAE/2025/A-A

Text of page 2
M.P.PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION INDORE
STATE ENGINEERING SERVICE EXAM-2025
Final Answer Key
SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SEt-B SET-C SET-D ANS
16 36 46 21 B 81 116 61 66 A 141 96 56 71 A
22 82 117 62 67 A 142 97 57 72 C
17 37 47 C
18 38 48 23 A 83 118 63 68 D 143 98 58 73 C
19 39 49 24 B 84 119 64 69 C 144 99 59 74 D
20 40 50 25 A 85 120 - 65 70 C 145 100 60 75 B
41 1 16 46 C 106 . 76 126 101 B 86 56 131 111 D
42 2 17 47 D 107 77 127 102 D 87 57 132 112 D
43 3 18 48 B 108 78 128 103 B 88 58 133 113 D
44 4 19 49 A 109 79 129 104 A 89 59 134 114 B
45 5 20 50 D 110 80 130 105 C 90 60 135 115 D
1 16 26 6 A 91 136 101 116 C 61 141 76 86 A
2 17 27 7 B 92 137 102 117 A 62 142 77 87 B
3 18 28 8 B 93 138 103 118 B 63 143 78 88 B
4 19 29 9 B 94 139 104 119 C 64 144 79 89 C
5 20 30 10 B 95 140 105 120 A 65 145 80 90 C
26 31 36 41 B 51 91 146 76 A 136 106 71 131 A
52 92 147 77 B 137 107 72 132 C
27 32 37 42 D
28 33 38 43 C 53 93 148 78 C 138 108 73 133 C
29 34 39 44 C 54 94 149 79 C 139 109 74 134 B
30 35 40 45 B 55 95 150 80 B,C 140 no 75 135 B
46 6 I 26 D 131 126 136 91 D 111 61 91 141 C
47 7 2 27 A 132 127 137 92 A 112 62 92 142 D
48 8 3 28 D 133 128 138 93 D 113 63 93 143 A
49 9 4 29 D 134 129 139 94 A 114 64 94 144 C
50 10 5 30 C 135 130 140 95 C 115 65 95 145 C
36 41 11 16 A 116 146 96 121 C 66 86 111 51 B
117 147 97 122 B 67 87 112 52 B
37 42 12 17 C
38 43 13 18 B 118 148 98 123 C 68 88 113 53 A
44 14 19 B 119 149 99 124 B 69 89 114 54 C
39
40 45 15 20 C 120 150 100 125 B 70 90 115 55 D
6 26 41 36 D 101 111 51 136 A 121 71 81 106 C
7 27 42 37 A 102 112 52 137 B 122 72 82 107 A
8 28 43 38 B 103 113 53 138 A 123 73 83 108 D
9 29 44 39 A 104 114 54 139 A 124 74 84 109 B
10 30 45 40 C 105 115 55 140 C 125 75 85 no C
31 11 21 1 B 146 51 121 96 C 76 121 141 146 A
32 12 22 2 C 147 52 122 97 D 77 122 142 147 B
33 13 23 3 B 148 53 123 98 B 78 123 143 148 D
34 14 24 4 C 149 54 124 99 C 79 124 144 149 C
35 15 25 5 C 150 55 125 100 B 80 125 145 150 A
21 46 31 n C 126 81 106 61 D 96 101 116 81 D
22 47 32 12 B 127 82 107 62 D 97 102 117 82 B
23 48 33 13 C 128 83 108 63 B 98 103 118 83 C
24 49 34 14 D 129 84 109 64 A 99 104 119 84 B
25 50 35 15 D 130 85 no 65 C 100 105 120 85 C
21 6 31 C 56 131 66 126 B 71 66 86 56 C
11
12 22 7 32 A 57 132 67 127 C 72 67 87 57 C
23 8 33 B 58 133 68 128 B 73 68 88 58 B
13
34 59 134 69 129 A 74 69 89 59 B
14 24 9 C
15 25 10 35 A 60 135 70 130 B 75 70 90 60 B
Exam Controller
Text of page 3
M.P.PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION INDORE
STATE ENGINEERING SERVICE EXAM-2025
Final Answer Key
SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS
16 36 46 21 B 66 136 141 131 A 146 56 96 71 A
17 37 47 22 C 67 137 142 132 C 147 57 97 72 D
18 38 48 23 A 68 138 143 133 D 148 58 98 73 D
19 39 49 24 B 69 139 144 134 B 149 59 99 74 B
20 40 50 25 A 70 140 145 135 A 150 60 100 75 D
41 1 16 46 C 81 116 126 111 C 131 141 66 86 B
42 2 17 47 D 82 117 127 112 A 132 142 67 87 D
43 3 18 48 B 83 118 128 113 C 133 143 68 88 C
44 4 19 49 A 84 119 129 114 D 134 144 69 89 B
45 5 20 50 D 85 120 130 115 C ■ 135 145 70 90 A
I 16 26 6 A 96 86 101 136 D 101 121 146 51 B
2 17 27 7 B 97 87 102 137 C 102 122 147 52 A
3 18 28 8 B 98 88 103 138 B 103 123 148 53 C
4 19 29 9 B 99 89 104 139 A 104 124 149 54 B
5 20 30 10 B 100 90 105 140 D 105 125 150 55 D
26 31 36 41 B 111 71 76 56 A 71 91 111 76 C
27 32 37 42 D 112 72 77 57 D 72 92 112 77 D
28 33 38 43 C 113 73 78 58 C 73 93 113 78 D
29 34 39 44 C 114 74 79 59 C 74 94 114 79 A
30 35 40. 45 B 115 75 80 60 D 75 95 115 80 C
46 6 1 26 D 126 51 61 81 A 86 76 56 141 D
47 7 2 27 A 127 52 62 82 C 87 77 57 142 C
48 8 3 28 D 128 53 63 83 B 88 78 58 143 B
49 9 4 29 D 129 54 64 84 B 89 79 59 144 B
50 10 5 30 C 130 55 65 85 C 90 80 60 145 B
36 41 11 16 A 141 146 91 96 C 136 61 131 121 A
37 42 12 17 C 142 147 92 97 D 137 62 132 122 A
38 43 13 18 B 143 148 93 98 C 138 63 133 123 B
39 44 14 19 B 144 149 94 99 B 139 64 134 124 C
40 45 15 20 C 145 150 95 100 C 140 65 135 125 Delete
6 26 41 36 D 56 131 116 106 B 116 106 86 91 B
27 42 37 A 57 132 117 107 C 117 107 87 92 D
7
8 28 43 38 B 58 133 118 108 B 118 108 88 93 C
29 44 39 A 59 134 119 109 A 119 109 89 94 A
9
30 45 40 C 60 135 120 110 C 120 110 90 95 D
10
11 21 1 B 121 101 51 126 A 91 81 121 66 A
31
32 12 22 2 C 122 102 52 127 A 92 82 122 67 C
3 123 103 53 128 A 93 83 123 68 B
33 13 23 B
124 104 54 129 D 94 84 124 69 D
34 14 24 4 C
35 15 25 5 C 125 105 55 130 C 95 85 125 70 B
21 46 31 11 C 76 66 81 61 B 61 126 106 146 C
22 47 32 12 B 77 67 82 62 D 62 127 107 147 B
23 48 33 13 C 78 68 83 63 B 63 128 108 148 C
24 49 34 14 D 79 69 84 64 A 64 129 109 149 A
15 80 70 85 65 D 65 130 110 150 A
25 50 35 D
11 21 6 31 C 51 111 136 116 D 106 96 71 101 D
52 112 137 117 B 107 97 72 102 A
12 22 7 32 A
13 23 8 33 B 53 113 138 118 C 108 98 73 103 A
14 24 9 34 C 54 114 139 119 D 109 99 74 104 C
120 A 110 100 75 J05 C
1 15 25 10 35 A 55 115 140
Exam Controller
Text of page 4
M.P.PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION INDORE
STATE ENGINEERING SERVICE EXAM-2025
Final Answer Key
Subject General Studies & Electrical Engineering
SET-D SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS
16 36 46 21 B 116 126 61 101 c 136 71 106 116 A
17 . 37 47 22 C 117 127 62 102 B 137 72 107 117 B
18 38 48 23 A 118 128 63 103 D 138 73 108 118 Delete
19 39 49 24 B 119 129 64 104 D 139 74 109 119 A
20 40 50 25 A 120 130 65 105 C 140 75 110 120 B
41 1 16 46 C 91 66 131 121 C 81 121 56 66 D
42 2 17 47 D 92 67 132 122 B 82 122 57 67 C
48 93 68 133 123 C 83 123 58 68 D
43 3 18 B
49 94 69 134 124 B 84 124 59 69 C
44 4 19 A
50 95 70 135 125 C 85 125 60 70 B
45 5 20 D
1 16 26 6 A 131 111 81 86 D 56 146 76 51 B
2 17 27 7 B 132 112 82 87 C 57 147 77 52 C
3 18 28 8 B 133 113 83 88 A 58 148 78 53 B
9 134 114 84 89 B 59 149 79 54 B
4 19 29 B
5 20 30 10 B 135 115 85 90 D 60 150 80 55 A
26 31 36 41 B 146 56 91 141 C 126 91 141 146 C
27 32 37 42 D 147 57 92 142 A 127 92 142 147 C
43 148 58 93 143 B 128 93 143 148 C
28 33 38 C
29 34 39 44 C 149 59 94 144 A 129 94 144 149 C
150 60 95 145 B 130 95 145 150 B
30 35 40 45 B
46 6 1 26 D 51 101 116 96 C 76 61 86 111 C
47 7 2 27 A 52 102 117 97 A 77 62 87 112 D
48 8 3 28 D 53 103 118 98 C 78 63 88 113 C
49 9 4 29 D 54 104 119 99 C 79 64 89 114 D
50 10 5 30 C 55 105 120 100 C 80 65 90 115 A
36 41 11 16 A 106 136 66 56 C 96 51 121 76 C
37 42 12 17 C 107 137 67 57 B 97 52 122 77 A
38 43 13 18 B 108 138 68 58 D 98 53 123 78 B
14 19 109 139 69 59 C 99 54 124 79 B
39 44 B
40 45 15 20 C 110 140 70 60 C 100 55 125 80 A
6 26 41 36 D 71 86 51 131 A 111 81 71 136 A,B
7 27 42 37 A 72 87 52 132 D 112 82 72 137 C
8 28 43 38 B 73 88 53 133 D 113 83 73 138 B
9 29 44 39 A 74 89 54 134 A 114 84 74 139 B
40 75 90 55 135 D 115 85 75 140 A
10 30 45 C
1 141 76 111 81 C 66 131 96 106 D
31 11 21 B
2 142 77 112 82 B 67 132 97 107 C
32 12 22 C
33 13 23 3 B 143 78 113 83 A 68 133 98 108 B
34 14 24 4 C 144 79 114 84 A 69 134 99 109 C
35 15 25 5 C 145 80 115 85 B 70 135 100 110 B
11 121 96 146 71 C 101 116 136 61 C
21 46 31 C
32 12 122 97 147 72 B 102 117 137 62 B
22 47 B
23 48 33 13 C 123 98 148 73 D 103 118 138 63 C
34 14 124 99 149 74 D 104 119 139 64 A
24 49 D
15 125 100 150 75 C 105 120 140 65 D
25 50 35 D
31 61 106 126 91 A 86 141 101 126 B
11 21 6 C
32 62 107 127 92 B 87 142 102 127 D
12 22 7 A
33 63 108 128 93 C 88 143 103 128 D
13 23 8 B
34 64 109 129 94 D 89 144 104 129 C
14 24 9 C
25 10 35 A 65 110 130 95 A 90 145 105 130 B
15
Exam Controller
Text of page 5
M.P.PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION INDORE
STATE ENGINEERING SERVICE EXAM-2025
Final Answer Key
SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS
16 36 46 21 B 111 136 66 106 D 141 56 111 146 A
17 37 47 22 C 112 137 67 107 A 142 57 112 147 D
18 38 48 23 A 113 138 68 108 C 143 58 113 148 A
19 39 49 24 B 114 139 69 109 A 144 59 114 149 D
20 40 50 25 A 115 140 70 110 B 145 60 115 150 B
41 I 16 46 C 91 81 126 71 C 81 101 51 91 B
42 2 17 47 D 92 82 127 72 A 82 102 52 92 C
43 3 18 48 B 93 83 128 73 C 83 103 53 93 C
44 4 19 49 A 94 84 129 74 A 84 104 54 94 C
45 5 20 50 D 95 85 130 75 B 85 105 55 95 A
1 16 26 6 A 146 116 56 96 C 61 146 136 116 A
2 17 27 7 B 147 117 57 97 D 62 147 137 117 A
3 18 28 8 B 148 118 58 98 C 63 148 138 118 C
4 19 29 9 B 149 119 59 99 B 64 149 139 119 C
5 20 30 10 B 150 120 60 100 C 65 150 140 120 B
26 31 36 41 B 71 51 86 136 C 131 86 81 61 C
27 32 37 42 D 72 52 87 137 C 132 87 82 62 B
28 33 38 43 C 73 53 88 138 C 133 88 83 63 A
29 34 39 44 C 74 54 89 139 B 134 89 84 64 D
30 35 40 45 B 75 55 90 140 B 135 90 85 65 D
46 6 1 26 D 101 131 76 81 C 76 126 106 141 C
102 132 77 82 A 77 127 107 142 C
47 7 2 27 A
48 8 3 28 D 103 133 78 83 A 78 128 108 143 A
49 9 4 29 D 104 134 79 84 D 79 129 109 144 C
50 10 5 30 C 105 135 80 85 D 80 130 110 145 A
36 41 11 16 A 56 61 116 121 B 116 66 131 101 C
42 12 17 C 57 62 117 122 C 117 67 132 102 B
37
38 43 13 18 B 58 63 118 123 D 118 68 133 103 A
39 44 14 19 B 59 64 119 124 C 119 69 134 104 C
40 45 15 20 C 60 65 120 125 C 120 70 135 105 D
6 26 41 36 D 126 141 61 56 C 86 96 71 51 D
7 27 42 37 A 127 142 62 57 C 87 97 72 52 B
8 28 43 38 B 128 143 63 58 A 88 98 73 53 D
9 29 44 39 A 129 144 64 59 C 89 99 74 54 B
10 30 45 40 C 130 145 65 60 A 90 100 75 55 C
31 11 21 1 B 96 111 101 131 A 66 106 121 126 C
32 12 22 2 C 97 112 102 132 A 67 107 122 127 B
33 13 23 3 B 98 113 103 133 D 68 108 123 128 B
34 14 24 4 C 99 114 104 134 B 69 109 124 129 C
35 15 25 5 C 100 115 105 135 C 70 110 125 130 D
21 46 31 11 C 106 121 146 86 B 121 71 96 76 D
22 47 32 12 B 107 122 147 87 A 122 72 97 77 C
23 48 33 13 C 108 123 148 88 A 123 73 98 78 A
24 49 34 14 D 109 124 149 89 A 124 74 99 79 B
25 50 35 15 D 110 125 150 90 A 125 75 100 80 D
11 21 6 31 C 51 76 91 66 B 136 91 141 111 B
12 22 7 32 A 52 77 92 67 A 137 92 142 112 B
13 ■ 23 8 33 B 53 78 93 68 C 138 93 143 113 C
14 24 9 34 C 54 79 94 69 A 139 94 144 114 C
15 25 10 35 A 55 80 95 70 A 140 95 145 115 B
Exam ControllerPage 1 of 32
Source: Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission.