MPPSC AE 2025: State Engineering Service Exam, CIVIL ENGINEERING
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RSAE/2025/C
Question Booklet SI. No.
Series GENERAL STUDIES
AND 3506665
£££6i
CIVIL ENGINEERING
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RSAE/2025/C-A 1
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RSAE/2025/C-A
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SECTION-A
GENERAL STUDIES
1. The Southern Boundary of the 4. In which districts are tropical
Malwa Plateau is defined by which moist deciduous forests fo\md in
geomorphological feature ? Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Vindhyan range (A) Murena, Shivpuri, Gwalior
(B) Satpura range (B) Balaghat, Mandala, Shahdol
(C) Aravali range (G) Panna,Tikamgarh, Chattarpur
(D) Mandsaur, Dhar, Bhind
(D) Deccan plateau
2. The most significant 5. On which river is the Rajghat Dam
geomorphological feature of built ?
the Bundelkhand region in
(A) Narmada
Madhya Pradesh
(B) Betwa - ,
I
(A) Residual hills
(C)-:Smdh
(B) Erosion surfaces
(D) Chambal
(C) Alluvial plains
6. In which of the following districts
(D) Conical hills
of Madhya Pradesh does the Baiga
3. Which element is less in black soil? tribe reside ?
(A) Iron and lime (A) Jhabua
(B) Phosphorus and nitrogen (B) Chindwara
(C) Carbon and hydrogen (C) Hoshangabad
(D) Sulfur and zinc (D) Dindori
RSAE/2025/C-A [P.T.O.
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7. Which of the following is the 11. Which of the following
special backward tribes of e-governance project was started
Madhya Pradesh ? by the Government of
Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Saharia
(A) Lok Mitra
m
(B) Gond
(B) Nai Disha
(C) Bhil (C) Gyandoot
(D) Kol (D) Jan Mitra
8. The Korku tribe is mainly found in 12. Method of data storage consisting
of a loop of flexible celluloid like
(A) Jhabua
material that can store data in the
(B) Betul form of electro-magnetic charges, is
known as "
(C) Shahdol
, (A) Tape Storage(TS)
(D) Guna
(B) Floppy Disks(FD)
9. According to the 2011 Census, (C) Optical Disks,(CD)
the percentage of Scheduled Tribe (D) Hard Disks(HD)
popxdation in the total population of
Madhya Pradesh was 13. With respect to CPU,the computer
(A) 21.09 memory hierarchy is organised as
follows
(B) 22.01
(A). Primary Memory -> Secondary
(C) 21.20 Memory Processor Registers
-> Cache Memory
(D) 22.50
(B) Processor Registers Cache
10. Saharia tribe mainly resides in Memory -> Primary Memory ->
Secondary Memory
which of the following districts ?
(C) Cache Memory ^ Processor
(A) Jhabua Registers, -> Primary Memory
(B) Khargone ■ -> Secondary Memory
(D) Primary Memory -> Cache
(0) Shivpuri
Memory Secondary Memory
(D) Khandwa -> Processor Registers
RSAE/2025/C-A [P.T.O.
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14. Which of the following is not a type 17. At which place did Vrishnag, the
of'Machine Learning'? founder of the Naga dynasty,
established his dynasty ?
(A) Supervised Learning
(A) Ujjaini
(B) Unsupervised Learning (B) Gwahor
(C) Refurbished Learning (C) Vidisha
(D) Jabalpur .. ,
(D) Reinforcement Learning
18. The famous poet arid dramatist
15. With the advancements in Rajashekhar received the patronage
Artificial Intelligence (AI) a new of which Kalchuri king ?
challenging phenomenon has (A) Yuvraj dev
emerged which refer to those audio, (B) Kokalla
video or images that are generated (C) Balharsh
by AI and it never actually existed (D) Kama
in the real world. This is known as
19. Which Muslim commander defeated
(A) Deep fake the Parmar ruler Mahalakdev and
captured Ujjain ?
(B) K — anonymity
(A) Mir Khwaza
(C) L~ diversity
(B) Ain-ul-Mulk
(D) Biases in AI
(C) Husang Shah
(D) Khan Mohammad Shah
16. Which archaeologist discovered the
human skull fossil from Hathnora ? 20. Who was the founder of the Faruki
dsmasty of Nimar ?
(A) Manoranjan Ghosh
(A) Malik Raja
(B) Arun Sonkia
(B) Dilawar Khan
(C) V. S.Wakank^ (C) Nasir Khan
(D) K. D. Vajpai (D) Mohammad Shah
RSAE/2025/C-A [P.T.O.
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21. Who has been awarded the Nobel 24. Who is the author,of the novel, ■
Prize in Literature 2025 ? "Sarag-Narak Yan Che"?
(A) Annie Ernaux (A) Makhanlal Chaturvedi
(B) Han Kang (B) Balkavi Bairagi
(C) Laszlo Krasznahorkai (C) Ram Narayan Upadhyay
(D) Louise Gluck (D) Jagdish Chandra Joshila
22. Who became the first person to 25. In which district of Madhya Pradesh
successfully ski down Mount is India's first Pradhan Mantri
Everest without supplemental Mega Integrated Textile Region
oxygen ? and Apparel(PM MITRA)Park
being established ?
(A) Reinhold Messner
(A) Indore
(B) Andrzej Bargiel
(B) Khargorie '
(C) Bartek Bargiel
(C) Ujjain
(D) Donald Tusk
(D) Dhar
23. In which Indian city has it been
announced that the 2030 26. Which is the combined inter-state
Commonwealth Games will be project of Madhya Pradesh,
Uttar Pradesh and Bihar ?
held ?
(A) New Delhi (A) Harsi Project
(B) Mumbai (B) Bansagar Project
(C) Ahmedabad (C) Rajghat Project
(D) Chennai (D) Sindh Project
RSAE/2025/C-A . [P.T.O.
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27. Where was Chandni thermal power 31; Under which Rule of the Madhya
station established ? Pradesh Panchayat Provisions
(A) Chhindwara (Extension to Scheduled Areas)
Rules 2022(PESA Act), the Gram
(B) Dewas
Sabha has the right to return
(C) Amalai the land of Scheduled Tribes
(D) Nepanagar transferred by fraud ?
(A) Rule ~ 19
28. In which area is Amarkantak
(B) Rule — 20
thermal power plant located ?
(0) Rule-21
(A) Baidhan
(D) Rule — 22
(B) Budhar
(C) Chachai 32. In which year was the State Level
(D) Father Kheda Kol Tribe Development Agency,
whose name has been changed to
29. What is the percentage of urban Kol Tribe Development Authority
population in Madhya Pradesh formed ?
according to the 2011 Census ? (A) Year 2009
(A) 21 to 23 percentage (B) Year 2010
(B) 24 to 26 percentage . (C) Year 2011
(0) 27 to 29 percentage
(D) Year 2012
(D) 30 to 32 percentage
33. How many districts of Madhya
30. Which of the following districts Pradesh were benefited under the
of Madhya Pradesh shares its., Pradhan Mantri Jan Jati Nyay
borders with Uttar Pradesh and Mahaabhiyan (P.M. Janman-2)in
Chhattisgarh both ? the year 2024-25 ?
(A) Anuppur (A) 20
(B) Singrauli (B) 24
(C) Rewa (C) 28
(D) Shahdol (D) 30
RSAE/2025/C-A 11 [P.T.O.
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34. Which Section of the Scheduled 37. Which department was constituted
in the year 2001 for.the purpose
Castes and Scheduled Tribes
of better utilisation of biological
(Prevention of Atrocities) Act (organic) resources in Madhya
Pradesh ? ^
1989 provides for punishment
(A) Madhya Pradesh State
for dereliction of duty by a pubhc
Biodiversity Board
servant who is not a member of
(B) Madhya Pradesh Council of
a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Biotechnology
Tribe ? (C) Madhya Pradesh Biodiversity
Department
(A) Section — 2 (D) Madhya Pradesh Biodiversity
(B) Section - 3 Ministry
(C) Section-4 38. On what basis was the division of
forests done in Madhya Pradesh ?
(D) Section -5 (A) Based on the tropics
(B) Based on vegetation' and
35. What is the total number of geographical region
Chairperson, Vice Chairperson and (C) Based on the forest division
Members prescribed in the Tribal (D) On the basis of forest villages
Advisory Councd ? 39. In the marketing year of 2024-25
which crop is included in price
(A) 10 support scheme first time at
m , minimum support price of earning
(B) 15 value ?
(C) 20 (A) Chickpea(Gram)
(B) Soyabean
(D) 25
(C) Lentil
(D) Mustard
36. Madhya Pradesh Forest ■
Development Corporation 40. What was the Gross State
was established in Domestic Product(GSDP)of
Madhya Pradesh at current prices
(A) 24 July 1975 for the financial year 2024-25 ?
(A) Rs. 13,53,809 crore
(B) 15 August 1984
(B) Rs. 14,00,000 crore
(C) 27 August 2008 (C) Rs. 15,03,395 crore
(D) 10 July 1975 (D) Rs. 16,00,000 crore
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41. Under whose editorship was 46.' The tenure of Up-Lokayukt in
"Dainik Lokmat" started from Madhya Pradesh is
Jabalpur in February 1930 ? (A) 3 ye^s
(A) Madhav Agarkar (B) 4 years
(B) Seth Govind Das (C) 5 years
(C) D.RMishra (D) 6 years
(D) Girija Shankar
47. Who among the following was the
longest serving Chief Secretary of
42. Under what name was Arya Samaj Madhya Pradesh ?
established in Bhopal in 1890 ?
- (A) H. S.Kamath
(A) Jan Sabha
(B) R. P. Naronha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) B. K. Dubey
(C) Jagriti Sabha
(D) K. S. Sharma
(D) Mitra Sabha
48. Which was the first State in India
43. Who is the author of'Tapers to implement Panchayati Raj as per
Relating to the Aboriginal Tribes ■73*^ Constitutional Amendment Act ?
of the Central Provinces" ? (A) Gujarat
(A) Russel (B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh ,
(B) Stephen Hislop
(D) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Hiralal
R. B. Foote
49. ^^ich of the following is not a part
of the committee to select State
Information Commissions ?
44. Which tribe of Madhya Pradesh (A) Chief Minister
mainly worship Meghnath as their (B) Leader of Opposition Legislative
deity ? Assembly
(A) Korku (C) Cabinet Member nominated
by CM
(B) Gond
(D) Chief Justice of High Court
(0) Baiga
(D) Oraon 50. According to 'Madhya Pradesh
Govansh Vadh Pratishedh
Adhiniyam 2004', which of the
45. When was Bhopal State Praja
following is/are included under
Mandal established ?
definition of "Cow progeny ?
(A) 1942 (A) Cows only
(B) 1944 (B) Cows and Calves
(C) Cows, Bulls,.Bullocks and
(0) 1946
Calves
(D) 1938 (D) Cows, Bulls and Calves
RSAE/2025/C-A 15 [P.T.O.
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SECTION-B
CIVIL ENGINEERING
51. Water is flowing through a pipe 54. Hydraulic efficiency of turbine is
1500 m long with a velocity (A) Ratio of power at shaft of
of 0.8m/s. What should be the turbine verses power delivered
diameter of pipe, if the loss of head by water to the turbine
due to friction is'8.7 in ? (B) Ratio of power delivered by
water to the turbine verses
Take f for the pipe as 0.01.
Wim -power at shaft of the turbine
(A) 225 mm <
(C) Ratio of power delivered to
(B) 22.5 mm runner verses power supplied
at inlet
(C) 28.4 mm
(D) Ratio of power supplied at
(D) 284 mm inlet verses power delivered to
runner
52. Which of'the following is not a
minor loss in pipe flow ? 55. In a pressure penstock 4500 m
(A) Sudden loss due to expansion or long water is flowing at 4 m/sec. If
the velocity of the pressure wave
contraction-
travelling in the pipe due to sudden
(B) Loss due to friction complete closure of a valve at the
downstream end is given as
(C) Loss due to bend or pipe fitting
1500 m/sec. Find the maximum
(D) Loss due to obstruction in pipe pressure rise.
(A). 6N/m^
53: Find the valid.assumptions for (B) 6 N/mm^
gradually varied flow equation.
- (C) 6MN/m^
i. There should be zero bed slope.
(D) 6 MN/mm^
ii. Energy correction factor a is
zero.-^, ■ , , .
56. For construction equipments
iii. Discharge is constant, operation, load factor generally
-iv. Channel is prismatic. vary from
(A)'Both i and ii (A) 3 to 7%
(B) Both i and iii ,, (B) 30 to 70%
(C) - Both iii mid iv (C) 13 to 17%
(D),Both i and iv. (D) 13 to 70%
RSAE/2025/C-A 16
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57. Generally, a minimum period of 61. A circular ROC girder has a
days shall be given for rectangular section with a mdth of
submission of open tenders from 500 mm and overall depth 1000 mm.
the date of publication of the
At a particiilar section, the fractured
tender notice or from the date of
uploading of the tender document values of bending and torsional
on the portal, whichever is later. moments are 150 and 30 kNm
(A) 07' respectively. The ultimate shear
SKia force at the section-is.150 kN.
(B) 14
Analyse the design moment and
(0) 21
shear force for which the beam has
(D) 28 to be designed.
58. In M.P. Store Procurement
,(A) 203 kNm and 246 kN
Procedure, RFP, means (B) 215 kNm and 246 kN
(A) Requirement For Procurement (C) 53 kNm and 246 kN
(B) Request For Proposal •
(D) 150 kNm and 246 kN
(C) Requisition For Procurement
(D) Request For Procedure g2. A reinforced concrete beam has a
support section with a width
59. On site, working persons should 250 mm and effective depth
have ample for free 500 mm.The support section is
working. It,makes them free to r
reinforced with 3 bars.of20 mm
work and creates feeling of safety
against any accident. diameter on the tension side and
8 mm diameter 2legged stirrups are
(A) Space
provided at a spacing of200 mm c/c.
(B) Time ;
Using M20 grade concrete and
(C) Knowledge Fe 415 steel, calculate the shear
(D) Food strength of the support section.
(Given x = 0.56 N/mm^for M20
60. was passed in 1948. and p^ = 0.75, Ag^ = 100 mm^)
(A) The Arbitration Act
(A) 160.15 kN
(B) The Minimum Wages Act
(B) 160.26 kN
(C) The Workers Compensation
Act (C) 162.55 kN
(D) The Industrial Dispute Act (D) 161.15 kN
RSAE/2025/C-A 17 [P.T.O.
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63. The effective span *JJ for the 66. The First Indian Remote Sensing
staircase (where G is going, X and Satellite, IRS - lA was launched in
Y are half width of landings) to he
considered according to IS 456 code (A) January, 1988
(A) L = G + X-Y
(B) L = G + X + Y (B) March, 1988
(C) L = G-X-Y (C) August, 1988
(D) L = G-X + Y
64. Determine the area offoundation of (D) December, 1988
a square column carr3dng a service
load of 1000 kN. 67. The provision of contingencies in
The depth of the footing below the
detailed estimate usually in the
ground level is 1.5 m,the gross Q
range of of the estimated
bearing capacity of soil is 100 kN/m ,
Q
cost.
dry density is 17 kN/m and angle
of repose is 29°. (A) 1-2%
2
(A) 21.91 m^ (B) 3-5%
(B) 17.35 m'
(C) 6-8%
(C) 13.87 m^
(D) 18.78 m^ (D) 9-10%
Calculate the A^^(Area of steel) in
I 65.
mm^ for the T-beam having the
68. The figure given below is for
foundation trench. What is the net
following data: centre-line length ?
Width offlange = 750 mm.Breadth
of beam = 250 mm.Effective depth
of beam = 500 mm.Thickness of 0.9 m
10.5 m
E_ B
f
flange = 90 mm.Applied
moment = 130 kNm,Use M20
concrete and Fe 415 steel as shown 0.9
ml
in fig.
6.5 m
$ 750 mm ^
■f
90 mm 0.9
mi
it
500 mm
0.9 m'
D
At
it-250niiiH
(A) 39.60 m
(A) 1364
(B) 40.50 m
(B) 938
(C) 34.00 m
(C) 1154
(D) 1290 (D) 38.70 m
RSAE/2025/C-A 18
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69. Match correctly, units of 71. In brick masonry, which type
measurements of various of bond provides the maximum
construction of Brickwork. structural strength and stability
Brickwork • Units of for wall thicker than VA brick ?
measurements
(A) Stretching bond
a. Brickwork in ' i. r m
(B) Heading bond
foundation, plinth
and super structure (C) English bond
b. Brickwork in . ii. cu m (D) Flemish bond
partition wall
c. Work in corbels, iii. sq m 72. Identify the correct plumbing
cornices and grooves and drainage system from the
(A) a — iii, b — ii, c — i following, where in all the traps are
(B) a — ii, b — i, c — iii .completely ventilated by separate
(C) a — ii, b — iii, c — i SSS ventilating pipes and thus four
(D) a — iii, b — i, c — ii pipes are necessarily required in
the system.
70. A person purchases a plot of land (A) Single stack system
having an area of 5000 m at
(B) One pipe system
Rs. 2,000/- per m^. He then
subdivides the plot and net area of (C) Two pipe system
all sub-plots after making provision (D) Partially ventilated single stack
for service roads and common plot
system'
works out to 4000 m .If he expects
a return of 10% on his investment
73. According to. National Building
and if all sub-plots are likely to be
Code of India, a budding is
sold out in a period of 2 years, at
classified as "T5q)e 3 construction",
what minimum price sub-plots to
where all structural components
sell out without loss ?
have fire resistance.
(A) 2025
(A) 1 - hour
(B) 2500 (B) 2 - hours
(C) 2725 (C) 3 - hours
(D) 3025 (D) 4 - hours
RSAE/2025/C-A 19 [P.T.O.
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74. The type of plastering defect in 77. Which of the following expression
which small patches of plaster was given by Von Karman for
estimation of hydrodjniamic force
swelling out beyond the plaster (P )in gravity dams ?
surface due to improper slaking H = depth of water above the base,
of lime particles in the plaster is cCj^= horizontal acceleration
co-efficient, w = unit wt. of water
known as
and C = dimensionless co-efficient
(A) Cracking depending upon slope of the
upstream face and depth of
(B) Blistering reservoir
(0) Efflorescence (A) 2.555 wH^
(D) Peeling (B) 0.555 wH'
(C) 2 wH^
75. Which tjTJe of wall is generally (D) COj^wH
recommended in a building,
78. The flow duration curve is a plot of
for achieving effective soimd
(A) Accumulated flow against time
insulation in a building ?
(B) Discharge against time in
(A) Scilid Brick Wall chronological order
(C) The base flow against the
(B) Cavity WaU percentage of times the flow is
exceeded
(C) Reinforced Concrete Wall
(D) The stream discharge against
(D) Stone Masonry Wall the percentage of times the
flow is equalled or exceeded
76. The probability that a 100 year
79. Based on the alignment criteria of
flood may not occur at all during constructing a canal in catchment
50 years life of a project is area, the t3q)e of canal having
maximum number of cross
(A) 0.6 drainage work is
(B) 0.5 (A) Watershed / Ridge canal
(B) Side slope canal
(C) 0.75
(C) Contour canal
(D) 0.45 (D) Branch canal
RSAE/2025/C-A 20
Text of page 21
80. Sprinkler irrigation system is' 84. Which of the following repair ■
suitable for techniques can be used to seal
(A) The land gradient is steep and shallow fine to medium-width
soil is easily erodible cracks and prevent concrete
(B) The soil is having low HSiS breaking out at spaUs ?
permeability
(A) Partial depth repairs
(C) The water table is low
(D) The crops to be grown have deep (B) Crack cross stitching
roots (C) Crack sealing with epoxy resin
(D)' Crack and joint resealing with
81. What is design period for state
highways ? flexible sealant
(A) 20 years
(B) 15 years 85. Seven-day, 24-hour traffic volume
(C) 30 years studies were carried out at a
(D) 50 years control count station, and the daily
traffic volumes (in PCUs)from
82. In which road development plan
Monday to Sunday were measured
'Expressway(EW)'is introduced as
as 21000, 23000, 23500, 24000,
a non-urban road tj^je ?
20000,18000 and 16000. The
(A) Third 20-years road plan
traffic volume at a coverage count
(B) Fourth 20-years road plan
station in the influence area of the
(C) Fifth 20-years road plan
control count station was measured
(D) Bombay road plan as 14000 PCU based on 24-hour
volume survey on Thursday of the
83. The Kerbs of all islands located
same week. Calculate the adjusted
in the line of traffic flow are
generally painted with black and ADT (i.e. weekly average)for the
white strips. The width of one strip coverage count station.
generally used is
(A) 15124 PCU
(A) 300 mm
(B) 16124 PCU
(B) 200 mm
(C) 700 mm (C) 12124 PCU
(D) 500 mm (D) 10824 PCU
RSAE/2025/C-A 21 [P.T.O.
Text of page 22
86. Stiffness matrix method is the 89. The crippling load borne by a
matrix version of column with an actual length (1)
(A) Strain energy method with one end fixed and the other
(B) Moment distribution method
end is free
(C) Kani's method
(D) Slope deflection method (A) 4jc^EM^
M
87, A simply supported beam of span "1" (B) ;c^EI/41^
subjected to point load at centre, the
deflection can not be obtained by (C)
(A) Mohr's Moment Area Method
(B) Conjugate Beam Method
(D) 2jc^EI/1^
(0) Macaulay's Method
(D) Shear Centre Method 90. Match List -1 with List- II and
choose the correct answer using the
88. Consider the following statement options given below.
with reference to a continuous
beam supported at A, C and E, List -1 List- II
for which shear force diagram is
shown in the below figure. 1. Slope i. Force method
deflection
method
2. Moment ii. Displacement
distribution method
method
3. Method of
There is
1. A concentrated load acting at three
point B. moments
2. A concentrated load acting at
point D. 4. Castighano's
3. A uniformly distributed load second
acting on the portion CE. theorem
Which of these statements are
correct ? (A) 1 — i, 2 — ii, 3 — i and 4 — ii
(A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 1 — h, 2 — i, 3 — ii and 4 — i
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1-i, 2- i, 3- ii and 4-ii
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only (D) 1-ii, 2-ii, 3-i and 4-i
RSAE/2025/C-A 22
Text of page 23
91. Flxiid pressure can not be 95. Drop of pressure for a given
measured by length (L)of circular pipe in
(A) Bourdon pressure gauge viscous flow determined by
(B) Differential manometer (A) Hagen-Poiseuille formula
(C) Venturimeter (B) Prandtl mixing length formula
(D) Piezometer
(C) N-stokes formula
(D) Lagrangian formula
92. Fluid motion described by which of I
the following methods ?
(A) Lagrangian method and Eulerian 96. As per the provision of National
method Building Code of India, what is the
(B) Lagrangian method and minimum headroom required for
Bernoulli's method a good staircase in a residential
(C) Eulerian method and Bernoulli's building ?
method
(A) 1.50 m
(D) None of the above
(B) 1.8 m
93. For Navier-Stokes equation (G) 1.02 m
(A) Gravity, pressure, viscosity,
turbulence and compressibility (D) 2.1 m
forces are considered
(B) Gravity, pressure and viscosity .97. As per IS 383:1970, what is the
forces are considered maximum particle size for the fine
(C) Gravity, pressure and aggregate used in concrete ?
compressibility forces are (A) 20 mm
considered
(D) Gravity, pressure, viscosity (B) 4.75 mm
and compressibility forces are (C) 10 mm
considered
(D) '2.36 mm
94. For the derivation of Bernoulli's
equation, which of the following 98. Which of the following rock
assumption is wrong ? is primarily formed by the
(A) The liquid is ideal and accumulation of plant or animal
incompressible remains and classified as
(B) The flow is steady and sedimentary rock ?
continuous
(C) The flow is 3-dimensional and (A) Granite
velocity is uniform over (B) Basalt
cross-sectional area
(C) Limestone
(D) Only gravity and pressure forces
are considered (D) Slate
RSAE/2025/C-A 23 [P.T.O.
Text of page 24
99. According to Indian Standard, ' 102. As per IS : 10500 : 2012 acceptable
whicH IS code provides the limit of Aluminium in drinking
water is '
guidelines for proportioning
(A) 0.3 mg/L
, concrete mix of various grade for
(B) 0.03 mg/L
structural application ?
(C) 0.2 mg/L
(A) IS456:200d
(D) 0.02 mg/L
-(B) IS 10262:2019
103. Duties of Ministry of Environment,
(O 18 516:2021; Forest and Climate Change
(D) 18 383:1970 ' . (MoEFCC) in SWM Rules, 2016
India includes
(A) Overall monitoring the
100. Which^^IS code is used for physical
implementation of SWM rules
testing of Hydraulic cement? in Country
(A) IS-456 '■ ' (B) Segregate waste and store
separately and handover to
(B) IS-383 - waste picker for composting
(C) 'IS-4031 ■ ' ■ ■ ' ■ (C) Identification of MSW landfill
sites
(D) IS-516 '
(D) Collection, transportation,
. processing and disposal of
101. Which unit can be used as, a MSW on National scale
secondary treatment method for
104. Which is the code of basic
treatmg wastewater for sinall
requirements for water supply,
communities ?. . drainage and sanitation by Bureau
of Indian Standards ?
(A) Rotating biological contractor
(A) IS 1172 : 1993
(B) Settling tank
(B) IS 2064 : 1993
(C) Reverse osmosis (C) IS 4878 : 1986
(D) None of the above. (D) IS 9668 : 1990
RSAE/2025/C-A 24
Text of page 25
105.. Which of the following pollutants 108. Which of the following is not an
are most responsible for acid rain approach to the task of treating
formation ?
roads with bad road accidents
a. Ozone
records ?
b. Sulphur dioxide
c. Carbon monoxide
(A) Single site scheme
d. Nitrogen dioxide (B) Total action scheme
Choose the correct answer from the (C) Route action scheme
options given below: (D) Mass action scheme
(A) a, b, d
(B) b, c, d 109. As per IS 1944-Part I and 11-1970,
(C) b,d ■- lighting for-bridges and flyovers is
(D) a, b, c classified as which of the following
, groups ?
106. Which of the following statement is
(A) Group D
incorrect related to road drainage ?
(A) Aqueducts culverts are type of (B) Group A
transverse drainage (C) Group E
(B) Kerb channel drain is type of (D) Group B
transverse drainage
(C) Longitudinalinterception drain is
a type of subsurface drainage 110. As per MORTH, granular sub-base
material is classified in how many
(D) Loi^tudinal water tablelowering grades ?
drain is example of subsurface
(A) 4
drainage
(B) 3
107. Select the incorrect statement for (C) 6
Rigid Pavement from the following. (D) 5 ,
■ (A) The spacing ofcontraction joints
should be limited to 4.5 m 111. A line AB measured along sloping
ground, distance between A and B
(B) Longitudinaljoints are required
alongslope is ISm and the difference
in pavements of width greater in elevation between A and B is
than 4.5 m 5 m. What is the horizontal distance
(C) Longitudinaljoints are provided between A and B ?
for transverse contraction and (A) 8 m
. warping
(B) 11.5 m
(D) Expansion joints are provided
(C) 12 m
to prevent top-down cracking
during the night hours (D) 18 m
RSAE/2025/C-A 25 [P.T.O.
Text of page 26
112. The magnetic bearing of a line PQ 115. A square figure of 9 sq.m. is shown,
is S 46°15' E. Calculate the true the contour line of 100 m. elevation
bearing ofPQ,if the magnetic will intersect AB at from A.
declination is 3°15' W. ,
A(98.8) B(100.6)
(A) S3°15'W,
(B),S43°E .
(C) S46°15'W
(D) S49°30'E
D(99.4) 0(99.8)
113. Match the types of EDM
(A) 1.2 m.
'instruments with'wavelength used.
(B) 1.8 m.
Wavelength Type ofEDM
(C) 2.0 m.
instrument
(D> 2.2 m.
a. Microwave' i. Geodiineter
b. Visible light ii. Distomat 116. In the equation of equilibrium for a
slice in Bishop's simplified method,
c. Infrared iii. Tellurometer
which forces are considered ?
(A) a- iii, b — i, c-ii 0Kj0
(A) Only normal forces
, (B) a — i, b -ii, c-iii 0
(P) Vertical and horizontal forces
• (C) a ^ ii, b -iii, c-i without moments
(D) a — iii, b — ii, c — i (G) Normal forces and shear forces
(D) Only shear forces
114. In trigonometric levelling,
horizontal distance between two 117. In Westergaard's theory, compared
stations P and Q is 100 m. The to Boussinesq's theory, the vertical
vertical angle observed from P to stress beneath a point load, for
the target at Q at a height of 5 m is r/z < 1.5, is (where z= depth below
45°. Find out'the RL of Q,if the RL the G.L. and r = radius/distance
of instimnient flYia at P (Horizontal from point load)
line of cbllimation) is 100 m. (A) Always greater at all points
(A) 95 m (B) Always less at all points
(C) Less near the surface, but more
(B) 105 m
at greater depths
(C) 195 m (D) Greater near the axis of
(D) 205 m . loading, but less off-axis
RSAE/2025/C-A 26
Text of page 27
118. A soil sample has preconsolidation 121. The Field Capacity and Optimum
pressure of 200 kPa and present Moisture" Content of a sod having
effective vertical stress of 100 kPa. density of 1.3 g/cc are 28% and 16%
What is the Over Consolidation respectively. If the effective depth
Ratio(OCR)? of rootzone is 70 cm,then water
(A) 0.5 available for evapotranspiration is
(B) 1.0 (A) 22.29 cm
(0) 2.0 (B) 25.4 cm
(D) 0.2 (C) 10.92 cm
(D) 14.56 cm
119. What will be the load carr5dng
capacity(kN)of a ^oup of6 piles
122., Muskingum method is used in
if the individual load carrying
capacity of a pile is 150 kN and (A) Hydrologic Channel Routing
group efficiency is 75% ? (B) Hydraulic Reservoir Routing
(A).642 (C) Hydraulic Channel Routing
(B) 675 ■ ' (D) Hydrologic Reservoir Routing
(0) 575
123. Superpassage is a canal cross
(D) 542
drainage structure in which
120. The gas produced during the (A) Canal water flows under
determination of wa.ter content of pressure below a drain
a soil sample, by calcium carbide
(B) Drain water flows with free
method, is
surface below a canal
(A) CaC^
(C) Drain water flows under
(B) pressure below a canal
(C) CaNg (D) Canal water flows under
(D) gravity below a drain
RSAE/2025/C-A 27 [P.T.O.
Text of page 28
124. A culvert is designed for a flood 127. , is any temporary structure
magnitude of 100 years and a used to support the forms for
useful life of 20 years. The risk concrete.
involved in the design of the • (A) Formwork
►
culvert (in %) is'
(B) Scaffolding
(A) 81.8%
(C) Shoring
(B) 18.2%
(D) Falsework
(C) 50%
(D) 66% 128. Liquidated damage,
(A) It is an amount of compensation
125. An effective rainfall of 2 hrs payable by a contractor to the
duration produced a flood owner due to liquid seepage in
Q
hydrograph peak of 200 m /s. faulty construction
The flood hydrograph has a base . (B) It is an amount of compensation
flow of 20 m^/s. If the spatial payable by a contractor to the
average rainfall in watershed for owner due to delayed construction
the duration of storm is 2 cm and
(C) It is an amount of compensation
the average loss rate is 0.4,cm/hr,
payable by a contractor to
the peak of 2 hrs unit hydrograph
the owner related to all real
(m^/s) is ^ damages
(A) 100 m7s SSia
(D) All of the above
(B). 75m^/s
(C) 150m^/s 129. In construction industry there are
mainly two possible causes for
(D) 300m^/s litigation,
(A) Bad construction or bad
126. For CPM; there are two methods to
contractual arrangements
draw network, they are
- (B) Bad weather or bad material
(A) DON and AON
(C) Quality construction or quality
(B) ABC and CAD
contractual arrangements
(C) PERT and GERT ■ (D) Impartial or un-biassed
(D) AONandAOA arbitrator
RSAE/2025/C-A 28
Text of page 29
130. Roll crushers are ' '' 134. For a flexible forting resting on
(A) Primary crushers a saturated clay soil, the contact
pressure distribution subjected to
(B) Secondary crushers
uniformly distributed load is
(C) Tertiary crushers
(A) Uniform across the base
(D) All round crushers
(B) Maximum at the centre and
minimum at edge
131. Dynamic compaction is most
M (C) Maximum at the edge and
effective for
minimum at centre
(A) Organic soil
(D) None of the above
(B) Fine grained soil
(C) Clayey soil 135^ The negative skin friction in
(D) Granular soil context of pile foundation is
;(A) Soil surrounding a pile settles
132. Taylor stability charts are based on less than the pile
the total stresses using the (B) Uplift force acts along a pile
(A) Friction circle method (C) SoU surrounding a pile settles
(B) Method of slices more than the pile
(0) Effective stress analysis (D) Uplift force acts along soil and a
pile
(D) Considering the equilibrium of
t.
forces and moment
136. Determine the depth of neutral
axis for the section of 230 mm
133. The maximum and minimum void width, 450 mm overall depth
ratio of a granular soil are 0.95 provided with 3 bars of 20 mm
and 0.45. What is in-situ void ratio diameter, having an effective cover
of soU, if relative density of soil is of 50 mm.
80% ? Use M30 grade of concrete and
Fe 500 steel.
(A) 0.45
(A) 165 mm
(B) 0.32 (B) 212 mm
(C) 0.62 (C) 225 mm
(D) 0.55 (D) 236 mm
RSAE/2025/C-A 29 [P.T.O.
Text of page 30
137. The economical depth 'd\of plate. 140. Determine loss of strain due to
girder is given by which of the elastic shortening of prestress in a
following options ? pretensioned prestressed concrete
Where k is constant yield strength beam of8 m span to carry a load of
of steel 5000 N/m.
1/^ HSfjH The beam is prestressed with
(A) d =(Mk / fy) 5 ' 1.8 MN at transfer and the cable
l/o S
(B) d =(Mk/fy)'2 has a parabohc profile with
maximum eccentricity of 10 cm at
(Q d = 0VIk/fy)^'3 the middle of the span.
(D) d =(Mk/fy)^ (A) 2.25 X 10
,-4
,-4
138. The magnitude of shear in beam (B) 2.75 X 10
,-4
column joint is find out by which (C) 3.25 X 10
,-4
one of the following ? (D) 7.25 X 10
'Vj is shear in the joint, ay is steel
stren^h, Ag is area of tension steel 141. The moment of several concurrent
in the beam and V^.pi is shear in coplanar forces about any point"0"
column, .in their plane equals the moment
of their resultant about point "0".
. (A) Vj= ayA3+ V,„i . This is known as
, (B),Vj= ayA3/V,„i (A) Varignon's theorem
(B) Law of parallelogram
(O Vj= ayAi-V<,i:
(C) Law of triangle
(D) Vj = ayA,*V,„i (D) Law of polygon
139. Find the design strength of plate in 142. The modular ratio of any two
joints as shown in fig. below. materials is the ratio of
Use M20 belts of grade 4.6 and (A) Linear stress to linear strain
'Fe 410(E 250) plates are used. (B) Shear stress to shear strain
20 mm (C) Their modulus of elasticities
(D) Their modulus of rigidities
^ 60 mm ''v}'
30 "riTTk
60 mm 143. The strain energy stored by a
ISO mm
60 mm member, when work is done on it to
30 mm
deform it is called
(A) 670.50 kN' (A) Modulus of resilience
(B) 673.05 kN' (B) Proof resilience
(C) 672.12 kN (C) Resihence
(D) 665.70 kN (D) Shear resilience
RSAE/2025/C-A 30
Text of page 31
144. The moment of inertia for a • 147. -Which test is not carried out
rectangular section having width V to determine the physical
and depth "d" about its bottom base characteristics of sewage ?
parallel to X-X axis is
(A) Turbidity
(A) bd®/2
(B) Colour
(B) bd^/12
(C) Odour
(C) bd^/4
(D) bd^/3 (D) pH
145. There are two statements below, 148. Air-binding phenomenon in rapid
one labelled as Statement[I] and the sand filter is an operational
other as Statement [H]. Examine trouble. This may occur due to
which of the statement is correct.
(A) Mud-ball formation
Statement [I]:In a simple
bending theory of a elastic beam, (B) Excessive negative pressure
stress and strain varies linearly
across the beam depth. (C) Low temperature
Statement[H]: As per Hooke's (D) Sand incrustation
law, stress is proportional to strain
within the elastic Limit. 149. Generally, of the used
(A) Both the statements are water may be expected to reach to
individually true and the sewers unless data is available.
Statement[H]is the correct
(A) 50%
explanation of Statement [I]
(B) Both the statements are (B) 65%
individually true but (C) 80%
Statement[H]is not the
correct explanation of (D) 99%
Statement [I]
(C) Statement [I] is true but 150. Which of the following Act is not
Statement[H]is false in preview of the National Green
(D) Statement[H]is true but Tribunal(NOT)-2010?
Statement [I] is false
(A) The Biological Diversity Act,
2002
146. National Clean Air Programme
(NGAP)was launched by (B) The Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
(A) CPCB (C) The Environment (Protection)
(B) PRANA Act, 1986
(0) MoEFCC (D) The Water (Prevention and
(D) NAAQM Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
RSAE/2025/C-A .31 [P.T.O.
Text of page 32
/ROUGH WORK
AL^i^l
-1/ ^1^ ,
/\\ j
RSAE/2025/C-A <IO
Nk- "N \i/
\1^
/|N
Text of page 2
M.P.PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION INDORE
STATE ENGINEERING SERVICE EXAM-2025
Final Answer Key
SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SEt-B SET-C SET-D ANS
16 36 46 21 B 81 116 61 66 A 141 96 56 71 A
22 82 117 62 67 A 142 97 57 72 C
17 37 47 C
18 38 48 23 A 83 118 63 68 D 143 98 58 73 C
19 39 49 24 B 84 119 64 69 C 144 99 59 74 D
20 40 50 25 A 85 120 - 65 70 C 145 100 60 75 B
41 1 16 46 C 106 . 76 126 101 B 86 56 131 111 D
42 2 17 47 D 107 77 127 102 D 87 57 132 112 D
43 3 18 48 B 108 78 128 103 B 88 58 133 113 D
44 4 19 49 A 109 79 129 104 A 89 59 134 114 B
45 5 20 50 D 110 80 130 105 C 90 60 135 115 D
1 16 26 6 A 91 136 101 116 C 61 141 76 86 A
2 17 27 7 B 92 137 102 117 A 62 142 77 87 B
3 18 28 8 B 93 138 103 118 B 63 143 78 88 B
4 19 29 9 B 94 139 104 119 C 64 144 79 89 C
5 20 30 10 B 95 140 105 120 A 65 145 80 90 C
26 31 36 41 B 51 91 146 76 A 136 106 71 131 A
52 92 147 77 B 137 107 72 132 C
27 32 37 42 D
28 33 38 43 C 53 93 148 78 C 138 108 73 133 C
29 34 39 44 C 54 94 149 79 C 139 109 74 134 B
30 35 40 45 B 55 95 150 80 B,C 140 no 75 135 B
46 6 I 26 D 131 126 136 91 D 111 61 91 141 C
47 7 2 27 A 132 127 137 92 A 112 62 92 142 D
48 8 3 28 D 133 128 138 93 D 113 63 93 143 A
49 9 4 29 D 134 129 139 94 A 114 64 94 144 C
50 10 5 30 C 135 130 140 95 C 115 65 95 145 C
36 41 11 16 A 116 146 96 121 C 66 86 111 51 B
117 147 97 122 B 67 87 112 52 B
37 42 12 17 C
38 43 13 18 B 118 148 98 123 C 68 88 113 53 A
44 14 19 B 119 149 99 124 B 69 89 114 54 C
39
40 45 15 20 C 120 150 100 125 B 70 90 115 55 D
6 26 41 36 D 101 111 51 136 A 121 71 81 106 C
7 27 42 37 A 102 112 52 137 B 122 72 82 107 A
8 28 43 38 B 103 113 53 138 A 123 73 83 108 D
9 29 44 39 A 104 114 54 139 A 124 74 84 109 B
10 30 45 40 C 105 115 55 140 C 125 75 85 no C
31 11 21 1 B 146 51 121 96 C 76 121 141 146 A
32 12 22 2 C 147 52 122 97 D 77 122 142 147 B
33 13 23 3 B 148 53 123 98 B 78 123 143 148 D
34 14 24 4 C 149 54 124 99 C 79 124 144 149 C
35 15 25 5 C 150 55 125 100 B 80 125 145 150 A
21 46 31 n C 126 81 106 61 D 96 101 116 81 D
22 47 32 12 B 127 82 107 62 D 97 102 117 82 B
23 48 33 13 C 128 83 108 63 B 98 103 118 83 C
24 49 34 14 D 129 84 109 64 A 99 104 119 84 B
25 50 35 15 D 130 85 no 65 C 100 105 120 85 C
21 6 31 C 56 131 66 126 B 71 66 86 56 C
11
12 22 7 32 A 57 132 67 127 C 72 67 87 57 C
23 8 33 B 58 133 68 128 B 73 68 88 58 B
13
34 59 134 69 129 A 74 69 89 59 B
14 24 9 C
15 25 10 35 A 60 135 70 130 B 75 70 90 60 B
Exam Controller
Text of page 3
M.P.PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION INDORE
STATE ENGINEERING SERVICE EXAM-2025
Final Answer Key
SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS
16 36 46 21 B 66 136 141 131 A 146 56 96 71 A
17 37 47 22 C 67 137 142 132 C 147 57 97 72 D
18 38 48 23 A 68 138 143 133 D 148 58 98 73 D
19 39 49 24 B 69 139 144 134 B 149 59 99 74 B
20 40 50 25 A 70 140 145 135 A 150 60 100 75 D
41 1 16 46 C 81 116 126 111 C 131 141 66 86 B
42 2 17 47 D 82 117 127 112 A 132 142 67 87 D
43 3 18 48 B 83 118 128 113 C 133 143 68 88 C
44 4 19 49 A 84 119 129 114 D 134 144 69 89 B
45 5 20 50 D 85 120 130 115 C ■ 135 145 70 90 A
I 16 26 6 A 96 86 101 136 D 101 121 146 51 B
2 17 27 7 B 97 87 102 137 C 102 122 147 52 A
3 18 28 8 B 98 88 103 138 B 103 123 148 53 C
4 19 29 9 B 99 89 104 139 A 104 124 149 54 B
5 20 30 10 B 100 90 105 140 D 105 125 150 55 D
26 31 36 41 B 111 71 76 56 A 71 91 111 76 C
27 32 37 42 D 112 72 77 57 D 72 92 112 77 D
28 33 38 43 C 113 73 78 58 C 73 93 113 78 D
29 34 39 44 C 114 74 79 59 C 74 94 114 79 A
30 35 40. 45 B 115 75 80 60 D 75 95 115 80 C
46 6 1 26 D 126 51 61 81 A 86 76 56 141 D
47 7 2 27 A 127 52 62 82 C 87 77 57 142 C
48 8 3 28 D 128 53 63 83 B 88 78 58 143 B
49 9 4 29 D 129 54 64 84 B 89 79 59 144 B
50 10 5 30 C 130 55 65 85 C 90 80 60 145 B
36 41 11 16 A 141 146 91 96 C 136 61 131 121 A
37 42 12 17 C 142 147 92 97 D 137 62 132 122 A
38 43 13 18 B 143 148 93 98 C 138 63 133 123 B
39 44 14 19 B 144 149 94 99 B 139 64 134 124 C
40 45 15 20 C 145 150 95 100 C 140 65 135 125 Delete
6 26 41 36 D 56 131 116 106 B 116 106 86 91 B
27 42 37 A 57 132 117 107 C 117 107 87 92 D
7
8 28 43 38 B 58 133 118 108 B 118 108 88 93 C
29 44 39 A 59 134 119 109 A 119 109 89 94 A
9
30 45 40 C 60 135 120 110 C 120 110 90 95 D
10
11 21 1 B 121 101 51 126 A 91 81 121 66 A
31
32 12 22 2 C 122 102 52 127 A 92 82 122 67 C
3 123 103 53 128 A 93 83 123 68 B
33 13 23 B
124 104 54 129 D 94 84 124 69 D
34 14 24 4 C
35 15 25 5 C 125 105 55 130 C 95 85 125 70 B
21 46 31 11 C 76 66 81 61 B 61 126 106 146 C
22 47 32 12 B 77 67 82 62 D 62 127 107 147 B
23 48 33 13 C 78 68 83 63 B 63 128 108 148 C
24 49 34 14 D 79 69 84 64 A 64 129 109 149 A
15 80 70 85 65 D 65 130 110 150 A
25 50 35 D
11 21 6 31 C 51 111 136 116 D 106 96 71 101 D
52 112 137 117 B 107 97 72 102 A
12 22 7 32 A
13 23 8 33 B 53 113 138 118 C 108 98 73 103 A
14 24 9 34 C 54 114 139 119 D 109 99 74 104 C
120 A 110 100 75 J05 C
1 15 25 10 35 A 55 115 140
Exam Controller
Text of page 4
M.P.PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION INDORE
STATE ENGINEERING SERVICE EXAM-2025
Final Answer Key
Subject General Studies & Electrical Engineering
SET-D SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS
16 36 46 21 B 116 126 61 101 c 136 71 106 116 A
17 . 37 47 22 C 117 127 62 102 B 137 72 107 117 B
18 38 48 23 A 118 128 63 103 D 138 73 108 118 Delete
19 39 49 24 B 119 129 64 104 D 139 74 109 119 A
20 40 50 25 A 120 130 65 105 C 140 75 110 120 B
41 1 16 46 C 91 66 131 121 C 81 121 56 66 D
42 2 17 47 D 92 67 132 122 B 82 122 57 67 C
48 93 68 133 123 C 83 123 58 68 D
43 3 18 B
49 94 69 134 124 B 84 124 59 69 C
44 4 19 A
50 95 70 135 125 C 85 125 60 70 B
45 5 20 D
1 16 26 6 A 131 111 81 86 D 56 146 76 51 B
2 17 27 7 B 132 112 82 87 C 57 147 77 52 C
3 18 28 8 B 133 113 83 88 A 58 148 78 53 B
9 134 114 84 89 B 59 149 79 54 B
4 19 29 B
5 20 30 10 B 135 115 85 90 D 60 150 80 55 A
26 31 36 41 B 146 56 91 141 C 126 91 141 146 C
27 32 37 42 D 147 57 92 142 A 127 92 142 147 C
43 148 58 93 143 B 128 93 143 148 C
28 33 38 C
29 34 39 44 C 149 59 94 144 A 129 94 144 149 C
150 60 95 145 B 130 95 145 150 B
30 35 40 45 B
46 6 1 26 D 51 101 116 96 C 76 61 86 111 C
47 7 2 27 A 52 102 117 97 A 77 62 87 112 D
48 8 3 28 D 53 103 118 98 C 78 63 88 113 C
49 9 4 29 D 54 104 119 99 C 79 64 89 114 D
50 10 5 30 C 55 105 120 100 C 80 65 90 115 A
36 41 11 16 A 106 136 66 56 C 96 51 121 76 C
37 42 12 17 C 107 137 67 57 B 97 52 122 77 A
38 43 13 18 B 108 138 68 58 D 98 53 123 78 B
14 19 109 139 69 59 C 99 54 124 79 B
39 44 B
40 45 15 20 C 110 140 70 60 C 100 55 125 80 A
6 26 41 36 D 71 86 51 131 A 111 81 71 136 A,B
7 27 42 37 A 72 87 52 132 D 112 82 72 137 C
8 28 43 38 B 73 88 53 133 D 113 83 73 138 B
9 29 44 39 A 74 89 54 134 A 114 84 74 139 B
40 75 90 55 135 D 115 85 75 140 A
10 30 45 C
1 141 76 111 81 C 66 131 96 106 D
31 11 21 B
2 142 77 112 82 B 67 132 97 107 C
32 12 22 C
33 13 23 3 B 143 78 113 83 A 68 133 98 108 B
34 14 24 4 C 144 79 114 84 A 69 134 99 109 C
35 15 25 5 C 145 80 115 85 B 70 135 100 110 B
11 121 96 146 71 C 101 116 136 61 C
21 46 31 C
32 12 122 97 147 72 B 102 117 137 62 B
22 47 B
23 48 33 13 C 123 98 148 73 D 103 118 138 63 C
34 14 124 99 149 74 D 104 119 139 64 A
24 49 D
15 125 100 150 75 C 105 120 140 65 D
25 50 35 D
31 61 106 126 91 A 86 141 101 126 B
11 21 6 C
32 62 107 127 92 B 87 142 102 127 D
12 22 7 A
33 63 108 128 93 C 88 143 103 128 D
13 23 8 B
34 64 109 129 94 D 89 144 104 129 C
14 24 9 C
25 10 35 A 65 110 130 95 A 90 145 105 130 B
15
Exam Controller
Text of page 5
M.P.PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION INDORE
STATE ENGINEERING SERVICE EXAM-2025
Final Answer Key
SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS SET-A SET-B SET-C SET-D ANS
16 36 46 21 B 111 136 66 106 D 141 56 111 146 A
17 37 47 22 C 112 137 67 107 A 142 57 112 147 D
18 38 48 23 A 113 138 68 108 C 143 58 113 148 A
19 39 49 24 B 114 139 69 109 A 144 59 114 149 D
20 40 50 25 A 115 140 70 110 B 145 60 115 150 B
41 I 16 46 C 91 81 126 71 C 81 101 51 91 B
42 2 17 47 D 92 82 127 72 A 82 102 52 92 C
43 3 18 48 B 93 83 128 73 C 83 103 53 93 C
44 4 19 49 A 94 84 129 74 A 84 104 54 94 C
45 5 20 50 D 95 85 130 75 B 85 105 55 95 A
1 16 26 6 A 146 116 56 96 C 61 146 136 116 A
2 17 27 7 B 147 117 57 97 D 62 147 137 117 A
3 18 28 8 B 148 118 58 98 C 63 148 138 118 C
4 19 29 9 B 149 119 59 99 B 64 149 139 119 C
5 20 30 10 B 150 120 60 100 C 65 150 140 120 B
26 31 36 41 B 71 51 86 136 C 131 86 81 61 C
27 32 37 42 D 72 52 87 137 C 132 87 82 62 B
28 33 38 43 C 73 53 88 138 C 133 88 83 63 A
29 34 39 44 C 74 54 89 139 B 134 89 84 64 D
30 35 40 45 B 75 55 90 140 B 135 90 85 65 D
46 6 1 26 D 101 131 76 81 C 76 126 106 141 C
102 132 77 82 A 77 127 107 142 C
47 7 2 27 A
48 8 3 28 D 103 133 78 83 A 78 128 108 143 A
49 9 4 29 D 104 134 79 84 D 79 129 109 144 C
50 10 5 30 C 105 135 80 85 D 80 130 110 145 A
36 41 11 16 A 56 61 116 121 B 116 66 131 101 C
42 12 17 C 57 62 117 122 C 117 67 132 102 B
37
38 43 13 18 B 58 63 118 123 D 118 68 133 103 A
39 44 14 19 B 59 64 119 124 C 119 69 134 104 C
40 45 15 20 C 60 65 120 125 C 120 70 135 105 D
6 26 41 36 D 126 141 61 56 C 86 96 71 51 D
7 27 42 37 A 127 142 62 57 C 87 97 72 52 B
8 28 43 38 B 128 143 63 58 A 88 98 73 53 D
9 29 44 39 A 129 144 64 59 C 89 99 74 54 B
10 30 45 40 C 130 145 65 60 A 90 100 75 55 C
31 11 21 1 B 96 111 101 131 A 66 106 121 126 C
32 12 22 2 C 97 112 102 132 A 67 107 122 127 B
33 13 23 3 B 98 113 103 133 D 68 108 123 128 B
34 14 24 4 C 99 114 104 134 B 69 109 124 129 C
35 15 25 5 C 100 115 105 135 C 70 110 125 130 D
21 46 31 11 C 106 121 146 86 B 121 71 96 76 D
22 47 32 12 B 107 122 147 87 A 122 72 97 77 C
23 48 33 13 C 108 123 148 88 A 123 73 98 78 A
24 49 34 14 D 109 124 149 89 A 124 74 99 79 B
25 50 35 15 D 110 125 150 90 A 125 75 100 80 D
11 21 6 31 C 51 76 91 66 B 136 91 141 111 B
12 22 7 32 A 52 77 92 67 A 137 92 142 112 B
13 ■ 23 8 33 B 53 78 93 68 C 138 93 143 113 C
14 24 9 34 C 54 79 94 69 A 139 94 144 114 C
15 25 10 35 A 55 80 95 70 A 140 95 145 115 B
Exam ControllerPage 1 of 32
Source: Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission.