PPSC JE 2021: All papers, Junior Engineer (Electrical) / SO (Electrical)
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JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (A–1)
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SECTION A 5. In the circuit shown below for different
values of resistance R, the circuit
1. The current flowing through a circuit
parameters V and I are as follows
element has a DC component of 10 A
and a sinusoidal AC component of
peak value 14·14 A. The average value
of the current is
(a) Zero
(b) 24·14 A
when R = , v = 5 V
(c) 10 A
(d) 14·14 A when R = 0, I = 2·5 A
when R = 3 , the value of V is
2. As compared to a LED display, the (a) 1V
distinct advantage of an LCD display
is that it requires (b) 2V
(a) no illumination (c) 3V
(b) extremely low power (d) 5V
(c) no forward-bias
(d) a solid crystal 6. A1, A2 and A3 are ideal ammeters in
3. Coil 1 has a resistance of R1 and the circuit shown below. If the
inductance L1. Coil 2 has a resistance readings of A1 and A3 are 5 A and 13 A
of R2 and L2. R1 = R2 and L1 L2. If respectively, the reading of A2 will be
the two coils are connected in series,
the time constant of the series
connection of coils is
(a) Sum of the time constant of the
individual coils
(b) Average of the time constants of
the individual coils
(c) Geometric mean of the time (a) 8A
constants of the individual coils (b) 14 A
(d) Product of the time constant of (c) 18 A
the individual coils
(d) 12 A
4. A resistive load when connected to a
DC source draws a source current I. If 7. Avalanche photodiodes are preferred
a 10 resistance is connected parallel
over PIN diodes in optical
to the source, the source current will
be communication systems because of
(a) equal to I (a) speed of operation
(b) greater than I (b) higher sensitivity
(c) less than I (c) larger bandwidth
(d) None of the above (d) larger power handling capacity
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (A–2)
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8. What is the average value of the 12. An ammeter with internal resistance
waveform shown below ? of 100 allows 100 A through it. For
measuring 500 A with the same
ammeter, what is the value of shunt
resistance required (in ohms) ?
(a) 20
(b) 22·22
(a) 4 (c) 25
(b) 6/π (d) 50
(c) 12/π
(d) 14/π 13. A series RLC circuit resonates at
frequency fo Hz. If the value of all the
9. A high frequency signal is applied to a
PMMC instrument. If the RMS value components are doubled, the new
of the AC signal is 2 V, the reading of resonating frequency is
the instrument will be fo
(a)
(a) 0 2
(b) 2 V (b) fo
(c) 2 V (c) 2f o
(d) 4 2 V
fo
(d)
10. The current i = (10 + 10 sin t) A is 4
passed through an ideal moving iron
type ammeter. Its reading will be 14. The power loss in a resistance R when
(a) 0 connected to a current source is 18 W.
(b) 10 A The power loss in the same resistance
(c) 150 A R when connected to voltage source of
same magnitude as that of the current
(d) 20 A
source is 4·5 W. The magnitude of the
11. The X and Y inputs of a CRO are current source and the value of R are
scaled at 0·5 ms/cm and 100 mV/cm
(a) 6 A and 0·5
respectively. The dimension of the
CRO screen is 10 cm 8 cm (X and Y). (b) 4·5 A and 0·5
A sinusoidal signal of frequency (c) 9 A and 2
200 Hz and RMS amplitude of 600 mV (d) 3 A and 2
is being measured in the Y input. The
screen will show 15. The RRRV depends upon the
(a) 1 cycle of undistorted sine wave
(a) Type of the circuit breaker
(b) 2 cycles of undistorted sine wave
(c) 1 cycle of sine wave with clipped (b) Capacitance of the system only
amplitude (c) Inductance of the system only
(d) 2 cycles of sine wave with clipped (d) Inductance and capacitance of the
amplitude system
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (A–3)
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16. A rectangular voltage pulse of 19. Calculate the current drawn by a
magnitude V is applied for a duration 220 V DC motor of armature
T to a resistance R in series with a resistance 0·5 and back emf 200 V.
capacitance C. The maximum voltage
(a) 40 A
developed across the capacitor is
(b) 44 A
T
(a) V 1 – e – (c) 400 A
RC
(d) 440 A
VT
(b)
RC 20. A separately excited DC motor is
rotating with 100 rpm. The motor has
(c) V a torque to current ratio of 2 N-m/A.
Calculate the back emf.
T
(d) V e – (a) 200 V
RC
(b) 42 V
17. The illumination at various points on a
horizontal surface illuminated by the (c) 100 V
same source varies as (d) 21 V
(a) cos θ
(b) cos2 θ 21. The torque current characteristics of
three conceptual DC machines are as
(c) cos3 θ
follows :
1
(d)
cos θ Machine A : I 3
18. A transformer rated 100/400 V, 50 Hz
Machine B : Iα
operates at a flux density of 1·5 T
when supplied from the HV side. If the
Machine C : I α1 / 3
linear dimensions of the core are
doubled and the transformer is
Which machine is best suited for no
energized from the HV side with a
load operation ?
800 V, 50 Hz supply, calculate the flux
density. (a) Machine A
(a) 0·375 T
(b) Machine A and B
(b) 0·75 T
(c) Machine B
(c) 1·5 T
(d) 3T (d) Machine C
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (A–4)
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22. A 50 Hz, 6 pole induction motor runs 25. When the applied voltage per phase is
at 950 rpm reduced to half, the starting torque of
the three-phase squirrel cage induction
(i) The speed of the rotor magnetic motor becomes
field is 950 rpm
1
(ii) The speed of the rotor magnetic (a) of the initial value
2
field with respect to the stator 1
magnetic field is zero (b) of the initial value
4
(iii) The frequency of the rotor (c) Twice of the initial value
current is 2·5 Hz
(d) 4 times of the initial value
Which of these statements is/are 26. A 3-phase, 50 Hz, 4 pole 14 kW
correct ? induction motor is rotating with
(a) (i) and (ii) 1450 rpm at full load. Calculate the
(b) Only (i) rotational losses of the motor if the
copper loss in the rotor circuit is
(c) (i) and (iii)
0·5 kW.
(d) (ii) and (iii)
(a) 0
(b) 0·5 kW
23. If the air gap of an induction motor is (c) 1 kW
increased, which of the following
(d) 2 kW
statement is/are correct ?
27. Choose the correct output waveform
(i) Starting current decreases for the circuit shown below :
(ii) Power factor decreases
(iii) Magnetizing current increases
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii) (a)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i),(ii) and (iii)
(b)
24. The rotor power input of a 3-phase
induction motor is 15 kW and the
corresponding slip is 4%. The rotor
copper loss is (c)
(a) 600 W
(b) 625 W
(c) 650 W (d)
(d) 700 W
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (A–5)
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28. A transistor is said to be in a quiescent 31. A triangle to square wave generator
state when uses
(a) It is unbiased (a) A sine wave oscillation and a
(b) No currents are flowing comparator
(c) Emitter junction bias is equal to (b) An integrator and a comparator
collector junction bias (c) A differentiator and a comparator
(d) No signal is applied to the input (d) A sine wave oscillator and a
clipper
29. In the circuit shown below, the zener
diode has a knee current of 5 mA and a 32. What is the output of the circuit shown
maximum allowed power dissipation of below
240 mW. What are the minimum and
maximum load currents that can be
drawn safely from the circuit, keeping
the output voltage Vo at 6 V ?
(a) 3Vs
1
(a) 0 mA, 180 mA (b) Vs
3
(b) 5 mA, 110 mA
(c) 4Vs
(c) 20 mA, 55 mA
(d) Vs
(d) 60 mA, 180 mA
30. The ripple factor of a power supply is 33. Universal gates are
given by (a) XOR, NAND and OR
(b) OR, NOT and XOR
Pdc
(a) (c) NOR, NAND and XNOR
Pac
(d) NOR and NAND
2
I rms
(b) – 1 34. Minimum number of NAND and NOR
I dc
gates required to implement the
2 function XOR gate, respectively is
I dc
(c) – 1 (a) 5, 4
I rms
(b) 4, 4
I dc (c) 5, 5
(d)
I rms (d) 4, 5
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (A–6)
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35. A full scale output of a DAC is 10 mA. 38. A 3-phase, 11 kV, 50 Hz, 200 kW load
If the resolution is to be less than has a power factor of 0·8 lag. A delta
40 A, the required bits are connected 3 phase capacitor is used to
(a) 4 improve the power factor to unity. The
capacitance per phase of the capacitor
(b) 8
in microfarads is
(c) 10 (a) 3·948
(d) 12 (b) 1·316
(c) 0·439
36. An overhead line having a surge (d) 11·844
impedance of 400 is connected in
series with an underground cable 39. A 10 KVA, 400 V/200 V single phase
having a surge impedance of 100 . If transformer with 10% impedance
a surge of 50 KV travels from the line draws a steady state short circuit line
end towards the line cable junction, current of
the value of the transmitted voltage (a) 50 A
wave at the junction will be (b) 150 A
(a) 30 KV (c) 250 A
(d) 350 A
(b) 20 KV
(c) 80 KV
40. In protection of transformers,
(d) – 30 KV harmonic restraint is used to guard
against
37. In a DC transmission line (a) Magnetizing inrush current
(a) It is necessary for the sending (b) Unbalanced operation
end and the receiving end to be (c) Lightning
operated in synchronism (d) Switching over-voltages
(b) The effects of inductive and
capacitive reactances are greater 41. A 240 V single-phase ac source is
than in an AC transmission line connected to a load with an impedance
of the same rating of 10 60o ohms. A capacitor is
connected in parallel with the load. If
(c) There are no effects due to
the capacitor supplies 1250 VAR, the
inductive and capacitive
real power supplied by the source is
reactances
(a) 3600 W
(d) Power transfer capability is (b) 2880 W
limited by stability (c) 2400 W
considerations
(d) 1200 W
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (A–7)
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42. Which gas is sometimes used in 46. The hysteresis loop of a magnetic
filament lamps ? material has an area of 5 cm2
(a) Nitrogen with scales given as 1 cm = 2 AT and
1 cm = 50 mWb. At 50 Hz, the total
(b) Carbon dioxide
hysteresis loss is
(c) Argon (a) 15 W
(d) Krypton (b) 20 W
(c) 25 W
43. If an unbalanced supply is given to a (d) 50 W
3-phase delta-connected induction
motor, it will cause 47. An electric motor with ‘constant output
(a) Zero sequence currents power’ will have a torque speed
(b) Less heating of the rotor characteristics in the form of a
(a) Straight line through origin
(c) Negative sequence component
current (b) Straight line parallel to speed
axis
(d) All of the above
(c) Circle about the origin
(d) Rectangular hyperbola
44. The magnetizing current in a
transformer is rich in
48. If an energy meter disc makes
(a) 3rd harmonic 10 revolutions in 100 seconds when a
(b) 5th harmonic load of 450 W is connected to it, the
(c) 7th harmonic meter constant (in rev/kWh) is
(a) 1000
(d) 13th harmonic
(b) 500
(c) 1600
45. The compensating winding of a dc
(d) 800
machine
(a) Is located in armature slots for
49. A moving iron ammeter produces a full
compensation of armature
scale torque of 240 μNm with a
reaction
deflection of 120 at a current of 10 A.
(b) Is located on commutating poles The rate of change of
for improving the commutation self-inductance (μH/radian) of the
(c) Is located on pole shoes for instrument at full scale is
avoiding the flashover at (a) 2·0 μH/radian
commutator surface (b) 4·8 μH/radian
(d) Is located on pole shoes for (c) 12·0 μH/radian
compensating armature reaction (d) 114·6 μH/radian
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (A–8)
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50. A voltmeter gives 180 oscillations per 54. Wagner’s earth devices are used in
minute when connected to the rotor of AC bridge circuits for
an induction motor. The stator (a) eliminating the effect of earth
frequency is 60 Hz. The slip of the capacitances
motor is (b) eliminating the effect of
(a) 0·04 inter component capacitances
(b) 0·02 (c) eliminating the effect of stray
(c) 0·06 electrostatic fields
(d) 0·05 (d) shielding the bridge elements
51. For harnessing low variable water 55. Heaviside-Campbell Equal Ratio
head the suitable hydraulic turbine bridge is used for measuring
with reaction and adjustable vanes is (a) self-inductance in terms of
(a) Francis mutual inductance
(b) Impeller (b) capacitance in terms of
inductance
(c) Kaplan
(c) dielectric loss of an imperfect
(d) Pelton
capacitor
(d) phase angle of a coil
52. The standardization of
AC potentiometers is done by
56. In practice, earth is chosen as a place
(a) directly using AC standard
of zero electric potential because it
voltage sources
(a) is non-conducting
(b) using DC standard sources and
transfer instruments (b) is easily available
(c) using DC standard sources and (c) keeps losing and gaining electric
d’Arsonaval galvanometer charge every day
(d) using AC standard sources and (d) has almost constant potential
transfer instruments
57. The reactance offered by a capacitor to
53. A Wheatstone bridge cannot be used alternating current of frequency 50 Hz
for precision measurement because is 10 . If frequency is increased to
errors are introduced on account of 100 Hz, reactance becomes _____ ohm.
(a) resistance of connecting leads (a) 20
(b) thermo electric emfs (b) 5
(c) contact resistances (c) 2·5
(d) All of the above (d) 40
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (A–9)
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58. Which of the following harmonic 62. While starting a 3-phase synchronous
voltage components in a 3-phase motor, its field winding should be
system would be in phase with each (a) Kept open
other ? (b) Short-circuited
(a) 3rd, 9th, 15th, etc. (c) Connected to a DC source
(b) 7th, 13th, 19th, etc. (d) None of the above
(c) 5th, 11th, 17th, etc.
(d) 2nd, 4th, 6th, etc. 63. A synchronous machine has full-pitch
coils having a coil-span of 12 slots.
59. A synchronous generator is feeding a For eliminating third harmonic, the
zero power factor load (lagging) at coil-span should be
rated current. The armature reaction (a) 10 slots
is
(b) 9 slots
(a) Magnetizing
(c) 8 slots
(b) Demagnetizing
(d) 6 slots
(c) Cross magnetizing
(d) Ineffective
64. For eliminating 5th harmonic from the
e.m.f generated in the phase of a
60. In pump storage hydro power plant the
3-phase alternator, the chording angle
electrical machine is made to work
alternatively as generator and motor. should be
The efficiency of the generator working (a) 36 degree
at the same electric power level is (b) 18 degree
(a) Greater than that as motor (c) 30 degree
(b) Equal to that as motor (d) 45 degree
(c) Less than that as motor
(d) Greater or less than that as 65. A DC shunt motor runs at
motor depending on the type of 500 rev/min when 200 V is applied
the machine across it. The armature resistance is
0·5 and the armature current is
61. In a super heater 30 A. Calculate the series resistance
(a) Pressure rises and temperature that must be inserted in series with
drops the armature to reduce the motor
(b) Temperature rises and pressure speed to 300 rpm with same armature
drops current.
(c) Temperature rises and pressure (a) 1·54
remains unchanged
(b) 3·48
(d) Pressure rises and temperature
(c) 1·0
remains the same
(d) 2·46
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( A – 10 )
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66. A single-phase, 22 kVA, 2200 V/ 220 V, 70. If power P available from a
50 Hz, distribution transformer is to hydro-scheme is given by the formula
be connected as an auto-transformer P = 9·81 QH, where Q is the flow rate
to get an output voltage of 2420 V. through the turbine in 1/s and H is the
Its maximum kVA rating as an head in meter, then P will be in unit of
auto-transformer is
(a) W
(a) 220 kVA
(b) HP
(b) 242 kVA
(c) kJ/s
(c) 142 kVA
(d) kWh
(d) 22 kVA
71. The overall efficiency of a thermal
67. Zero voltage regulation in transformer power station is equal to
occurs at (a) that of Rankine cycle
(a) Unity power factor load (b) that of regenerative cycle
(b) No load (c) that of binary vapour cycle
(c) Lagging power load (d) product of boiler efficiency,
(d) Leading power factor load turbine efficiency and generator
efficiency
68. In a DC machine, the demagnetizing
effect of armature reaction is due to 72. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant
(a) Component of armature m.m.f is less than that of a conventional fuel
along field axis fired thermal plant because of
(b) Non-sinusoidal nature of (a) less rejection of heat in condenser
armature m.m.f (b) higher temperature condition
(c) Magnetic saturation in half of the (c) higher pressure conditions
field pole (d) low temperature and pressure
(d) Uneven air-gap length conditions
69. Which of the following equipment is 73. An op-amp shunt regulator differs
used to limit short-circuited current from the series regulator in the sense
level in a substation ? that its control element is connected in
(a) Isolator (a) series with line resistor
(b) Lightning switch (b) parallel with line resistor
(c) Coupling capacitor (c) parallel with load resistor
(d) Series reactor (d) parallel with input voltage
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( A – 11 )
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74. The purpose of coating the fluorescent 79. Hall effect is observed in a specimen
tube from inside with white powder is when it (metal or a semiconductor) is
(a) to improve its life carrying current and is placed in a
(b) to improve the appearance magnetic field. The resultant electric
(c) to change the colour of light field inside the specimen will be in
emitted to white
(a) a direction normal to both current
(d) to increase the light radiations and magnetic field
due to secondary emissions
(b) the direction of current
75. The function of moderator in nuclear
(c) a direction anti-parallel to the
reactor is
magnetic field
(a) to absorb excess neutrons
(b) to increase the energy of the (d) an arbitrary direction depending
neutron upon the conductivity of the
(c) to slow down the neutron specimen
(d) None of the above
80. An industrial consumer has a load
76. If generating station is situated very pattern of 2000 kW, 0·8 lag for
close to the load center, the penalty 12 hours and 1000 kW unity pf for
factor for this unit is 12 hours. The load factor is
(a) Zero
(a) 0·5
(b) Almost unity
(c) Negative (b) 0·75
(d) Very high
(c) 0·6
77. Generators for power plants to supply (d) 2·0
exclusively peak loads are usually
designed for maximum efficiency to
81. A fault current of 2000 A is passing on
occur at
the primary side of a 400/5 C.T. on the
(a) Full load
secondary side of C.T., an inverse time
(b) 50 to 75% full load
over current relay is connected whose
(c) 25 to 50% full load plug setting is set at 50%. The plug
(d) 10% full load setting multiplier will be
78. Zener diodes are used primarily as (a) 25
(a) rectifiers
(b) 50
(b) voltage regulators
(c) oscillators (c) 10
(d) amplifiers (d) 30
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( A – 12 )
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82. In a three-phase Y-Y transformer 86. In the following circuit, i(t) under
connection, neutral is fundamental to steady state is
the
(a) suppression of harmonics
(b) passage of unbalanced currents
due to unbalanced loads
(c) provision of dual electric service
(d) balancing of phase voltages with
respect to line voltages
83. A capacitor that stores a charge of (a) Zero
0·5 C at 10 volts has a capacitance (in (b) 5
terms of farad) (c) 7·07 sin(t)
(a) 5 (d) 7·07 sin(t – 45)
(b) 20
(c) 10
87. In the circuit given below, the value of
(d) 0·05 R required for the transfer of
84. The voltage phasor of a circuit is maximum power to the load having a
10 ∠15 V and the current phasor is resistance of 3 is
2 ∠ – 45 A. The active and reactive
power in the circuit are :
(a) 10 W and 17·32 VAR
6
(b) 5 W and 8·66 VAR 3
(c) 20 W and 60 VAR
(d) 20 2 W and 10 2 VAR
(a) Zero
85. Given two coupled inductors L1 and (b) 3
L2, their mutual inductance M (c) 6
satisfies (d) Infinity
(a) M= L12 L22 88. What will be the voltage (in V) across a
8 H inductor, when the rate of change
(b) M > (L1 + L2)/2
of current in the inductor is 0·5 A/sec ?
(a) 2
(c) M> L1L 2 (b) 4
(c) 6
(d) M≤ L1L 2 (d) 8
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( A – 13 )
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89. What will be the equivalent 92. Determine the intensity of
capacitance (in mF) if three capacitors magnetization(A/m) of a magnet when
are connected in series having it has a pole strength of 60 A–m and a
capacitances of 0·04 mF, 0·08 mF and pole area of 20 m2.
0·02 mF respectively ? (a) 9
(a) 0·026 (b) 4
(b) 0·032 (c) 6
(c) 0·065 (d) 3
(d) 0·011
93. The relative permeability of
90. Calculate the total inductance in H of diamagnetic material is
the circuit shown below. (a) Greater than 1
(b) Less than 1
(c) Greater than 10
(d) Greater than 100
94. Two wires A and B of the same
material and length l and 2l have
radius r and 2r respectively. The ratio
of their specific resistance will be
(a) 1:1
(a) 5·33 (b) 1:2
(b) 8·77 (c) 1:4
(c) 10·5 (d) 1:8
(d) 11·9 95. If the length of a wire of resistance R is
91. Determine the Thevenin’s resistance uniformly stretched to n times its
(in ohm) across the 6 ohm resistor for original value, its new resistance is
given circuit. (a) nR
(b) R/n
(c) n2R
(d) R/n2
96. The core of a transformer is laminated
to reduce
(a) 1·71
(a) Eddy current losses
(b) 2·24
(b) Hysteresis losses
(c) 2·09
(c) Copper losses
(d) 1·01
(d) Core volume
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( A – 14 )
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97. A 500 MW 3-phase, star connected SECTION B
synchronous generator has a rated
voltage of 21.5 kV at 0·8 pf. The line 101. Match the following :
current when operating at full load Navigation Satellite Country
conditions will be approximately System Name
(a) 29 kA A. Global Positioning 1. Russia
System
(b) 30 kA
B. BeiDou 2. India
(c) 16·8 kA
C. GLONASS 3. China
(d) 100 kA
D. GAGAN 4. USA
A B C D
98. The emf induced in the armature of a
(a) 3 1 2 4
shunt generator is 220 V. The
(b) 3 4 2 1
armature resistance is 0·1 ohm. If the
armature current is 20 A, the terminal (c) 4 3 1 2
voltage will be (d) 2 4 1 3
(a) 222 V 102. Who is the Chairman of the fourteenth
(b) 216 V Finance Commission ?
(a) Abhijit Sen
(c) 224 V
(b) A.M. Khusro
(d) 218 V
(c) N.K. Singh
(d) Y.V. Reddy
99. A 250 V DC series motor has armature
and series field resistances of 0·25 ohm 103. Which among the following was the
and 0·15 ohm respectively. The current first State to establish Panchayati
for developing a torque of 80 Nm at Raj ?
1200 rpm is (a) Andhra Pradesh
(a) 86·4 A (b) Kerala
(c) Gujarat
(b) 43·2 A
(d) Rajasthan
(c) 21·6 A
104. The Chenchu people in India have
(d) 10·8 A
been active in protection of wildlife in
which of the following protected areas
100. In a bipolar junction tansistor,
of India ?
IC = 250 mA and IE = 251 mA. The
(a) Nagarjunasagar Srisailam
value of β is (Andhra Pradesh)
(a) 100 (b) Similipal (Odisha)
(b) 500 (c) Indravati, Udanti-Sitanadi
(c) 200 (Chhattisgarh)
(d) 250 (d) Palamu (Jharkhand)
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( A – 15 )
Text of page 16
105. The first-ever Ministerial Conference 109. In which State of India has the first
on Women Empowerment was held in emergency landing facility on National
Highway stretch been established ?
(a) France
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Sweden
(b) Gujarat
(c) The Netherlands
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Italy
(d) Rajasthan
106. The vector responsible for
leishmaniasis is
(a) Mosquito
110. Ryder Cup is associated with which
(b) Fruit flies game/sport ?
(c) Tsetse flies (a) Ice Hockey
(d) Sandflies (b) Polo
(c) Golf
107. Which country has reportedly
conducted Hypersonic Weapon Test ? (d) Chess
(a) Russia
(b) China
111. A dealer paid a car manufacturer
(c) North Korea
< 1,35,000 for a car. What should be
(d) France the selling price of the car, if after
allowing the buyer 10% discount on
108. Covaxin, the vaccine for corona virus, the selling price, he made a profit of
is manufactured by which one of the
8% on his outlay ?
following companies ?
(a) < 1,50,000
(a) Bharat Biotech
(b) < 1,60,000
(b) Pfizer
(c) < 1,62,000
(c) Cadilla Labs
(d) < 1,52,500
(d) Dr. Reddy’s
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( A – 16 )
Text of page 17
112. A, B, C and D play a game of cards. A 114. If F stands second in the ranking, then
says to B, “ If I give you 8 cards, you the position of B is
will have as many as C has and I shall
(a) Third
have 3 less than what C has. Also, if I
take 6 cards from C, I shall have twice (b) Fourth
as many as D has.” If B and D together
(c) Fifth
have 50 cards, how many cards does C
have ? (d) Sixth
(a) 40
(b) 37 115. If B scores the least, the rank of C will
(c) 27 be
(d) 23
(a) Second
113. Choose the alternative which closely (b) Third
resembles the water image of the given (c) Fourth
combination/figure.
ADVANCE (d) Second or third
(a)
116. If E is ranked third, then which one of
(b) the following is correct ?
(c) (a) E gets more marks than C
(d) None of the above
(b) C gets more marks than E
Directions for the following 3 (three) (c) A is ranked fourth
questions :
(d) D is ranked fifth
Read the following information and answer
the three questions that follow : 117. Find the number which replaces the
question mark :
Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared
in several tests. Either C or F scores the
highest. Whenever C scores the highest,
then E scores the least. Whenever F scores
the highest, B scores the least. In all the
tests they got different marks; D scores (a) 15
higher than A, but they are close (b) 25
competitors; A scores higher than B; C
(c) 20
scores higher than A.
(d) 40
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( A – 17 )
Text of page 18
118. Which two signs need to be 120. Two trains of respective lengths 160 m
interchanged to make the given and 200 m travel at the speeds of 48 m
equation correct ? per second and 52 m per second
respectively in opposite direction to
100 ÷ 10 × 100 – 10 + 100 = 910 each other. What is the total time
taken by them to cross each other ?
(a) 3·6 seconds
(a) + and ÷ (b) 4·5 seconds
(b) ÷ and × (c) 4·8 seconds
(c) + and – (d) 5·4 seconds
(d) × and –
119. The ratio of the present ages of Rajiv
and Sanjiv is 2 : 3. After five years,
Rajiv will be 31 years old. What will be
the age of Sanjiv after 3 years ?
(a) 39 years
(b) 29 years
(c) 42 years
(d) 45 years
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( A – 18 )
Text of page 19
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( A – 19 )
Text of page 20
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( A – 20 )
Text of page 21
Booklet Sr. No.
*0B*
Candidate’s Name ________________________________________________________
Father’s Name ____________________________________________________________
Date of Birth :
D D M M Y Y Y Y
OMR Response Sheet No. ____________________________________ Roll No. ___________________________
Candidate’s Signature : Total Questions : 120]
(Please sign in the box) Time Allowed : 2 Hours]
1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time he/she is told to do so by the Invigilation
Staff. However, in the meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and
subsequently fill the appropriate columns given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may
also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet,
supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in the
OMR sheet. Use of ink pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or
illegible or incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for
orthopedically/visually impaired candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, for marking
correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire
booklet to confirm that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly
and there are no blank pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then
the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and
obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.
6. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in
the relevant column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their
record regarding the change in the serial no. of Question booklet.
7. The question paper booklet has 20 pages.
8. The paper consists of total 300 marks. Each question shall carry 2.5 marks. There are four
options for each question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on
the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (0.5 marks for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the
candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before they start
answering the questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (B–1)
Text of page 22
SECTION A 5. A full scale output of a DAC is 10 mA.
If the resolution is to be less than
1. A triangle to square wave generator 40 A, the required bits are
uses (a) 4
(a) A sine wave oscillation and a
(b) 8
comparator
(b) An integrator and a comparator (c) 10
(c) A differentiator and a comparator (d) 12
(d) A sine wave oscillator and a
clipper 6. An overhead line having a surge
impedance of 400 is connected in
2. What is the output of the circuit shown
series with an underground cable
below
having a surge impedance of 100 . If
a surge of 50 KV travels from the line
end towards the line cable junction,
the value of the transmitted voltage
wave at the junction will be
(a) 30 KV
(b) 20 KV
(a) 3Vs
(c) 80 KV
1
(b) Vs (d) – 30 KV
3
(c) 4Vs
7. In a DC transmission line
(d) Vs
(a) It is necessary for the sending
3. Universal gates are end and the receiving end to be
(a) XOR, NAND and OR operated in synchronism
(b) OR, NOT and XOR (b) The effects of inductive and
(c) NOR, NAND and XNOR capacitive reactances are greater
(d) NOR and NAND than in an AC transmission line
of the same rating
4. Minimum number of NAND and NOR
gates required to implement the (c) There are no effects due to
inductive and capacitive
function XOR gate, respectively is
reactances
(a) 5, 4
(b) 4, 4 (d) Power transfer capability is
(c) 5, 5 limited by stability
(d) 4, 5 considerations
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (B–2)
Text of page 23
8. A 3-phase, 11 kV, 50 Hz, 200 kW load 12. Which gas is sometimes used in
has a power factor of 0·8 lag. A delta filament lamps ?
connected 3 phase capacitor is used to (a) Nitrogen
improve the power factor to unity. The
(b) Carbon dioxide
capacitance per phase of the capacitor
in microfarads is (c) Argon
(a) 3·948 (d) Krypton
(b) 1·316
(c) 0·439 13. If an unbalanced supply is given to a
(d) 11·844 3-phase delta-connected induction
motor, it will cause
9. A 10 KVA, 400 V/200 V single phase (a) Zero sequence currents
transformer with 10% impedance (b) Less heating of the rotor
draws a steady state short circuit line
(c) Negative sequence component
current of
current
(a) 50 A
(d) All of the above
(b) 150 A
(c) 250 A
14. The magnetizing current in a
(d) 350 A
transformer is rich in
10. In protection of transformers, (a) 3rd harmonic
harmonic restraint is used to guard (b) 5th harmonic
against (c) 7th harmonic
(a) Magnetizing inrush current
(d) 13th harmonic
(b) Unbalanced operation
(c) Lightning
15. The compensating winding of a dc
(d) Switching over-voltages
machine
(a) Is located in armature slots for
11. A 240 V single-phase ac source is
compensation of armature
connected to a load with an impedance
reaction
of 10 60o ohms. A capacitor is
connected in parallel with the load. If (b) Is located on commutating poles
for improving the commutation
the capacitor supplies 1250 VAR, the
real power supplied by the source is (c) Is located on pole shoes for
(a) 3600 W avoiding the flashover at
commutator surface
(b) 2880 W
(c) 2400 W (d) Is located on pole shoes for
(d) 1200 W compensating armature reaction
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (B–3)
Text of page 24
16. The hysteresis loop of a magnetic 20. A voltmeter gives 180 oscillations per
material has an area of 5 cm2 minute when connected to the rotor of
with scales given as 1 cm = 2 AT and an induction motor. The stator
1 cm = 50 mWb. At 50 Hz, the total frequency is 60 Hz. The slip of the
hysteresis loss is motor is
(a) 15 W (a) 0·04
(b) 20 W (b) 0·02
(c) 25 W (c) 0·06
(d) 50 W (d) 0·05
17. An electric motor with ‘constant output 21. For harnessing low variable water
power’ will have a torque speed head the suitable hydraulic turbine
characteristics in the form of a with reaction and adjustable vanes is
(a) Straight line through origin (a) Francis
(b) Straight line parallel to speed (b) Impeller
axis (c) Kaplan
(c) Circle about the origin (d) Pelton
(d) Rectangular hyperbola
22. The standardization of
18. If an energy meter disc makes AC potentiometers is done by
10 revolutions in 100 seconds when a (a) directly using AC standard
load of 450 W is connected to it, the voltage sources
meter constant (in rev/kWh) is
(b) using DC standard sources and
(a) 1000
transfer instruments
(b) 500
(c) using DC standard sources and
(c) 1600
d’Arsonaval galvanometer
(d) 800
(d) using AC standard sources and
transfer instruments
19. A moving iron ammeter produces a full
scale torque of 240 μNm with a
23. A Wheatstone bridge cannot be used
deflection of 120 at a current of 10 A.
for precision measurement because
The rate of change of
errors are introduced on account of
self-inductance (μH/radian) of the
instrument at full scale is (a) resistance of connecting leads
(a) 2·0 μH/radian (b) thermo electric emfs
(b) 4·8 μH/radian
(c) contact resistances
(c) 12·0 μH/radian
(d) 114·6 μH/radian (d) All of the above
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (B–4)
Text of page 25
24. Wagner’s earth devices are used in 28. Which of the following harmonic
AC bridge circuits for voltage components in a 3-phase
(a) eliminating the effect of earth system would be in phase with each
capacitances other ?
(b) eliminating the effect of (a) 3rd, 9th, 15th, etc.
inter component capacitances (b) 7th, 13th, 19th, etc.
(c) eliminating the effect of stray (c) 5th, 11th, 17th, etc.
electrostatic fields
(d) 2nd, 4th, 6th, etc.
(d) shielding the bridge elements
29. A synchronous generator is feeding a
25. Heaviside-Campbell Equal Ratio zero power factor load (lagging) at
bridge is used for measuring rated current. The armature reaction
(a) self-inductance in terms of is
mutual inductance (a) Magnetizing
(b) capacitance in terms of (b) Demagnetizing
inductance (c) Cross magnetizing
(c) dielectric loss of an imperfect (d) Ineffective
capacitor
(d) phase angle of a coil 30. In pump storage hydro power plant the
electrical machine is made to work
alternatively as generator and motor.
26. In practice, earth is chosen as a place
The efficiency of the generator working
of zero electric potential because it
at the same electric power level is
(a) is non-conducting (a) Greater than that as motor
(b) is easily available (b) Equal to that as motor
(c) keeps losing and gaining electric (c) Less than that as motor
charge every day (d) Greater or less than that as
motor depending on the type of
(d) has almost constant potential
the machine
27. The reactance offered by a capacitor to
31. In a super heater
alternating current of frequency 50 Hz
(a) Pressure rises and temperature
is 10 . If frequency is increased to
drops
100 Hz, reactance becomes _____ ohm.
(b) Temperature rises and pressure
(a) 20 drops
(b) 5 (c) Temperature rises and pressure
remains unchanged
(c) 2·5
(d) Pressure rises and temperature
(d) 40 remains the same
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (B–5)
Text of page 26
32. While starting a 3-phase synchronous 36. A single-phase, 22 kVA, 2200 V/ 220 V,
motor, its field winding should be 50 Hz, distribution transformer is to
(a) Kept open be connected as an auto-transformer
(b) Short-circuited to get an output voltage of 2420 V.
(c) Connected to a DC source Its maximum kVA rating as an
(d) None of the above auto-transformer is
(a) 220 kVA
33. A synchronous machine has full-pitch (b) 242 kVA
coils having a coil-span of 12 slots.
For eliminating third harmonic, the (c) 142 kVA
coil-span should be (d) 22 kVA
(a) 10 slots
(b) 9 slots 37. Zero voltage regulation in transformer
(c) 8 slots occurs at
(d) 6 slots (a) Unity power factor load
(b) No load
34. For eliminating 5th harmonic from the (c) Lagging power load
e.m.f generated in the phase of a (d) Leading power factor load
3-phase alternator, the chording angle
should be 38. In a DC machine, the demagnetizing
(a) 36 degree effect of armature reaction is due to
(b) 18 degree (a) Component of armature m.m.f
(c) 30 degree along field axis
(d) 45 degree (b) Non-sinusoidal nature of
armature m.m.f
35. A DC shunt motor runs at (c) Magnetic saturation in half of the
500 rev/min when 200 V is applied field pole
across it. The armature resistance is (d) Uneven air-gap length
0·5 and the armature current is
30 A. Calculate the series resistance 39. Which of the following equipment is
that must be inserted in series with used to limit short-circuited current
the armature to reduce the motor level in a substation ?
speed to 300 rpm with same armature
(a) Isolator
current.
(a) 1·54 (b) Lightning switch
(b) 3·48 (c) Coupling capacitor
(c) 1·0
(d) Series reactor
(d) 2·46
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (B–6)
Text of page 27
40. If power P available from a 44. The purpose of coating the fluorescent
hydro-scheme is given by the formula tube from inside with white powder is
P = 9·81 QH, where Q is the flow rate (a) to improve its life
through the turbine in 1/s and H is the (b) to improve the appearance
head in meter, then P will be in unit of (c) to change the colour of light
(a) W emitted to white
(d) to increase the light radiations
(b) HP
due to secondary emissions
(c) kJ/s
45. The function of moderator in nuclear
(d) kWh reactor is
(a) to absorb excess neutrons
41. The overall efficiency of a thermal (b) to increase the energy of the
power station is equal to neutron
(a) that of Rankine cycle (c) to slow down the neutron
(b) that of regenerative cycle (d) None of the above
(c) that of binary vapour cycle
(d) product of boiler efficiency, 46. If generating station is situated very
turbine efficiency and generator close to the load center, the penalty
efficiency factor for this unit is
(a) Zero
42. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant (b) Almost unity
is less than that of a conventional fuel (c) Negative
fired thermal plant because of (d) Very high
(a) less rejection of heat in condenser
47. Generators for power plants to supply
(b) higher temperature condition
exclusively peak loads are usually
(c) higher pressure conditions
designed for maximum efficiency to
(d) low temperature and pressure
occur at
conditions
(a) Full load
(b) 50 to 75% full load
43. An op-amp shunt regulator differs
(c) 25 to 50% full load
from the series regulator in the sense
(d) 10% full load
that its control element is connected in
(a) series with line resistor 48. Zener diodes are used primarily as
(a) rectifiers
(b) parallel with line resistor
(b) voltage regulators
(c) parallel with load resistor (c) oscillators
(d) parallel with input voltage (d) amplifiers
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (B–7)
Text of page 28
49. Hall effect is observed in a specimen 52. In a three-phase Y-Y transformer
when it (metal or a semiconductor) is connection, neutral is fundamental to
carrying current and is placed in a the
magnetic field. The resultant electric (a) suppression of harmonics
field inside the specimen will be in (b) passage of unbalanced currents
due to unbalanced loads
(a) a direction normal to both current
and magnetic field (c) provision of dual electric service
(d) balancing of phase voltages with
(b) the direction of current respect to line voltages
(c) a direction anti-parallel to the
magnetic field 53. A capacitor that stores a charge of
0·5 C at 10 volts has a capacitance (in
(d) an arbitrary direction depending terms of farad)
upon the conductivity of the
(a) 5
specimen
(b) 20
(c) 10
50. An industrial consumer has a load
(d) 0·05
pattern of 2000 kW, 0·8 lag for
12 hours and 1000 kW unity pf for 54. The voltage phasor of a circuit is
12 hours. The load factor is 10 ∠15 V and the current phasor is
2 ∠ – 45 A. The active and reactive
(a) 0·5
power in the circuit are :
(b) 0·75 (a) 10 W and 17·32 VAR
(c) 0·6 (b) 5 W and 8·66 VAR
(d) 2·0 (c) 20 W and 60 VAR
(d) 20 2 W and 10 2 VAR
51. A fault current of 2000 A is passing on
55. Given two coupled inductors L1 and
the primary side of a 400/5 C.T. on the
L2, their mutual inductance M
secondary side of C.T., an inverse time
over current relay is connected whose satisfies
plug setting is set at 50%. The plug
setting multiplier will be (a) M= L12 L22
(a) 25 (b) M > (L1 + L2)/2
(b) 50
(c) M> L1L 2
(c) 10
(d) 30
(d) M≤ L1L 2
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (B–8)
Text of page 29
56. In the following circuit, i(t) under 59. What will be the equivalent
steady state is capacitance (in mF) if three capacitors
are connected in series having
capacitances of 0·04 mF, 0·08 mF and
0·02 mF respectively ?
(a) 0·026
(b) 0·032
(c) 0·065
(d) 0·011
60. Calculate the total inductance in H of
(a) Zero the circuit shown below.
(b) 5
(c) 7·07 sin(t)
(d) 7·07 sin(t – 45)
57. In the circuit given below, the value of
R required for the transfer of
maximum power to the load having a
resistance of 3 is
(a) 5·33
(b) 8·77
6 (c) 10·5
3
(d) 11·9
61. Determine the Thevenin’s resistance
(a) Zero (in ohm) across the 6 ohm resistor for
(b) 3 given circuit.
(c) 6
(d) Infinity
58. What will be the voltage (in V) across a
8 H inductor, when the rate of change
of current in the inductor is 0·5 A/sec ?
(a) 1·71
(a) 2
(b) 2·24
(b) 4
(c) 2·09
(c) 6
(d) 1·01
(d) 8
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (B–9)
Text of page 30
62. Determine the intensity of 67. A 500 MW 3-phase, star connected
magnetization(A/m) of a magnet when synchronous generator has a rated
it has a pole strength of 60 A–m and a voltage of 21.5 kV at 0·8 pf. The line
pole area of 20 m2. current when operating at full load
(a) 9 conditions will be approximately
(b) 4 (a) 29 kA
(c) 6 (b) 30 kA
(d) 3 (c) 16·8 kA
(d) 100 kA
63. The relative permeability of
diamagnetic material is
68. The emf induced in the armature of a
(a) Greater than 1
shunt generator is 220 V. The
(b) Less than 1
armature resistance is 0·1 ohm. If the
(c) Greater than 10
armature current is 20 A, the terminal
(d) Greater than 100
voltage will be
64. Two wires A and B of the same (a) 222 V
material and length l and 2l have (b) 216 V
radius r and 2r respectively. The ratio (c) 224 V
of their specific resistance will be (d) 218 V
(a) 1:1
(b) 1:2
69. A 250 V DC series motor has armature
(c) 1:4 and series field resistances of 0·25 ohm
(d) 1:8 and 0·15 ohm respectively. The current
65. If the length of a wire of resistance R is for developing a torque of 80 Nm at
uniformly stretched to n times its 1200 rpm is
original value, its new resistance is (a) 86·4 A
(b) 43·2 A
(a) nR
(c) 21·6 A
(b) R/n
(d) 10·8 A
(c) n2R
(d) R/n2 70. In a bipolar junction tansistor,
IC = 250 mA and IE = 251 mA. The
66. The core of a transformer is laminated
to reduce value of β is
(a) Eddy current losses (a) 100
(b) Hysteresis losses (b) 500
(c) Copper losses (c) 200
(d) Core volume (d) 250
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( B – 10 )
Text of page 31
71. The current flowing through a circuit 75. In the circuit shown below for different
element has a DC component of 10 A values of resistance R, the circuit
and a sinusoidal AC component of
parameters V and I are as follows
peak value 14·14 A. The average value
of the current is
(a) Zero
(b) 24·14 A
(c) 10 A
(d) 14·14 A when R = , v = 5 V
72. As compared to a LED display, the when R = 0, I = 2·5 A
distinct advantage of an LCD display when R = 3 , the value of V is
is that it requires
(a) 1V
(a) no illumination
(b) 2V
(b) extremely low power
(c) 3V
(c) no forward-bias
(d) a solid crystal (d) 5V
73. Coil 1 has a resistance of R1 and 76. A1, A2 and A3 are ideal ammeters in
inductance L1. Coil 2 has a resistance
the circuit shown below. If the
of R2 and L2. R1 = R2 and L1 L2. If
readings of A1 and A3 are 5 A and 13 A
the two coils are connected in series,
respectively, the reading of A2 will be
the time constant of the series
connection of coils is
(a) Sum of the time constant of the
individual coils
(b) Average of the time constants of
the individual coils
(c) Geometric mean of the time
constants of the individual coils (a) 8A
(d) Product of the time constant of (b) 14 A
the individual coils (c) 18 A
(d) 12 A
74. A resistive load when connected to a
DC source draws a source current I. If
a 10 resistance is connected parallel 77. Avalanche photodiodes are preferred
to the source, the source current will over PIN diodes in optical
be
communication systems because of
(a) equal to I (a) speed of operation
(b) greater than I (b) higher sensitivity
(c) less than I (c) larger bandwidth
(d) None of the above (d) larger power handling capacity
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( B – 11 )
Text of page 32
78. What is the average value of the 82. An ammeter with internal resistance
waveform shown below ? of 100 allows 100 A through it. For
measuring 500 A with the same
ammeter, what is the value of shunt
resistance required (in ohms) ?
(a) 20
(b) 22·22
(a) 4 (c) 25
(b) 6/π (d) 50
(c) 12/π
(d) 14/π 83. A series RLC circuit resonates at
frequency fo Hz. If the value of all the
79. A high frequency signal is applied to a
PMMC instrument. If the RMS value components are doubled, the new
of the AC signal is 2 V, the reading of resonating frequency is
the instrument will be fo
(a)
(a) 0 2
(b) 2 V (b) fo
(c) 2 V (c) 2f o
(d) 4 2 V
fo
(d)
80. The current i = (10 + 10 sin t) A is 4
passed through an ideal moving iron
type ammeter. Its reading will be 84. The power loss in a resistance R when
(a) 0 connected to a current source is 18 W.
(b) 10 A The power loss in the same resistance
(c) 150 A R when connected to voltage source of
same magnitude as that of the current
(d) 20 A
source is 4·5 W. The magnitude of the
81. The X and Y inputs of a CRO are current source and the value of R are
scaled at 0·5 ms/cm and 100 mV/cm
(a) 6 A and 0·5
respectively. The dimension of the
CRO screen is 10 cm 8 cm (X and Y). (b) 4·5 A and 0·5
A sinusoidal signal of frequency (c) 9 A and 2
200 Hz and RMS amplitude of 600 mV (d) 3 A and 2
is being measured in the Y input. The
screen will show 85. The RRRV depends upon the
(a) 1 cycle of undistorted sine wave
(a) Type of the circuit breaker
(b) 2 cycles of undistorted sine wave
(c) 1 cycle of sine wave with clipped (b) Capacitance of the system only
amplitude (c) Inductance of the system only
(d) 2 cycles of sine wave with clipped (d) Inductance and capacitance of the
amplitude system
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( B – 12 )
Text of page 33
86. A rectangular voltage pulse of 89. Calculate the current drawn by a
magnitude V is applied for a duration 220 V DC motor of armature
T to a resistance R in series with a resistance 0·5 and back emf 200 V.
capacitance C. The maximum voltage
(a) 40 A
developed across the capacitor is
(b) 44 A
T
(a) V 1 – e – (c) 400 A
RC
(d) 440 A
VT
(b)
RC 90. A separately excited DC motor is
rotating with 100 rpm. The motor has
(c) V a torque to current ratio of 2 N-m/A.
Calculate the back emf.
T
(d) V e – (a) 200 V
RC
(b) 42 V
87. The illumination at various points on a
horizontal surface illuminated by the (c) 100 V
same source varies as (d) 21 V
(a) cos θ
(b) cos2 θ 91. The torque current characteristics of
three conceptual DC machines are as
(c) cos3 θ
follows :
1
(d)
cos θ Machine A : I 3
88. A transformer rated 100/400 V, 50 Hz
Machine B : Iα
operates at a flux density of 1·5 T
when supplied from the HV side. If the
Machine C : I α1 / 3
linear dimensions of the core are
doubled and the transformer is
Which machine is best suited for no
energized from the HV side with a
load operation ?
800 V, 50 Hz supply, calculate the flux
density. (a) Machine A
(a) 0·375 T
(b) Machine A and B
(b) 0·75 T
(c) Machine B
(c) 1·5 T
(d) 3T (d) Machine C
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( B – 13 )
Text of page 34
92. A 50 Hz, 6 pole induction motor runs 95. When the applied voltage per phase is
at 950 rpm reduced to half, the starting torque of
the three-phase squirrel cage induction
(i) The speed of the rotor magnetic motor becomes
field is 950 rpm
1
(ii) The speed of the rotor magnetic (a) of the initial value
2
field with respect to the stator 1
magnetic field is zero (b) of the initial value
4
(iii) The frequency of the rotor (c) Twice of the initial value
current is 2·5 Hz
(d) 4 times of the initial value
Which of these statements is/are 96. A 3-phase, 50 Hz, 4 pole 14 kW
correct ? induction motor is rotating with
(a) (i) and (ii) 1450 rpm at full load. Calculate the
(b) Only (i) rotational losses of the motor if the
copper loss in the rotor circuit is
(c) (i) and (iii)
0·5 kW.
(d) (ii) and (iii)
(a) 0
(b) 0·5 kW
93. If the air gap of an induction motor is (c) 1 kW
increased, which of the following
(d) 2 kW
statement is/are correct ?
97. Choose the correct output waveform
(i) Starting current decreases for the circuit shown below :
(ii) Power factor decreases
(iii) Magnetizing current increases
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii) (a)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i),(ii) and (iii)
(b)
94. The rotor power input of a 3-phase
induction motor is 15 kW and the
corresponding slip is 4%. The rotor
copper loss is (c)
(a) 600 W
(b) 625 W
(c) 650 W (d)
(d) 700 W
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( B – 14 )
Text of page 35
98. A transistor is said to be in a quiescent SECTION B
state when
(a) It is unbiased 101. In which State of India has the first
(b) No currents are flowing emergency landing facility on National
(c) Emitter junction bias is equal to Highway stretch been established ?
collector junction bias
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(d) No signal is applied to the input
(b) Gujarat
99. In the circuit shown below, the zener
diode has a knee current of 5 mA and a (c) Uttar Pradesh
maximum allowed power dissipation of
(d) Rajasthan
240 mW. What are the minimum and
maximum load currents that can be
drawn safely from the circuit, keeping 102. Ryder Cup is associated with which
the output voltage Vo at 6 V ?
game/sport ?
(a) Ice Hockey
(b) Polo
(c) Golf
(a) 0 mA, 180 mA
(b) 5 mA, 110 mA (d) Chess
(c) 20 mA, 55 mA
(d) 60 mA, 180 mA
100. The ripple factor of a power supply is 103. A dealer paid a car manufacturer
given by < 1,35,000 for a car. What should be
Pdc the selling price of the car, if after
(a)
Pac allowing the buyer 10% discount on
2 the selling price, he made a profit of
I rms
(b) – 1 8% on his outlay ?
I dc
(a) < 1,50,000
2
I dc
(c) – 1
(b) < 1,60,000
I rms
I dc (c) < 1,62,000
(d)
I rms
(d) < 1,52,500
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( B – 15 )
Text of page 36
104. A, B, C and D play a game of cards. A 106. If F stands second in the ranking, then
says to B, “ If I give you 8 cards, you the position of B is
will have as many as C has and I shall
(a) Third
have 3 less than what C has. Also, if I
take 6 cards from C, I shall have twice (b) Fourth
as many as D has.” If B and D together
(c) Fifth
have 50 cards, how many cards does C
have ? (d) Sixth
(a) 40
(b) 37 107. If B scores the least, the rank of C will
(c) 27 be
(d) 23
(a) Second
105. Choose the alternative which closely (b) Third
resembles the water image of the given (c) Fourth
combination/figure.
ADVANCE (d) Second or third
(a)
108. If E is ranked third, then which one of
(b) the following is correct ?
(c) (a) E gets more marks than C
(d) None of the above
(b) C gets more marks than E
Directions for the following 3 (three) (c) A is ranked fourth
questions :
(d) D is ranked fifth
Read the following information and answer
the three questions that follow : 109. Find the number which replaces the
question mark :
Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared
in several tests. Either C or F scores the
highest. Whenever C scores the highest,
then E scores the least. Whenever F scores
the highest, B scores the least. In all the
tests they got different marks; D scores (a) 15
higher than A, but they are close (b) 25
competitors; A scores higher than B; C
(c) 20
scores higher than A.
(d) 40
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( B – 16 )
Text of page 37
110. Which two signs need to be 113. Match the following :
interchanged to make the given Navigation Satellite Country
equation correct ? System Name
A. Global Positioning 1. Russia
100 ÷ 10 × 100 – 10 + 100 = 910 System
B. BeiDou 2. India
C. GLONASS 3. China
D. GAGAN 4. USA
(a) + and ÷
A B C D
(b) ÷ and × (a) 3 1 2 4
(c) + and – (b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) × and –
(d) 2 4 1 3
114. Who is the Chairman of the fourteenth
Finance Commission ?
111. The ratio of the present ages of Rajiv
(a) Abhijit Sen
and Sanjiv is 2 : 3. After five years,
(b) A.M. Khusro
Rajiv will be 31 years old. What will be
(c) N.K. Singh
the age of Sanjiv after 3 years ?
(d) Y.V. Reddy
(a) 39 years 115. Which among the following was the
(b) 29 years first State to establish Panchayati
Raj ?
(c) 42 years
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(d) 45 years (b) Kerala
(c) Gujarat
112. Two trains of respective lengths 160 m (d) Rajasthan
and 200 m travel at the speeds of 48 m
per second and 52 m per second 116. The Chenchu people in India have
respectively in opposite direction to been active in protection of wildlife in
each other. What is the total time which of the following protected areas
taken by them to cross each other ? of India ?
(a) 3·6 seconds (a) Nagarjunasagar Srisailam
(Andhra Pradesh)
(b) 4·5 seconds (b) Similipal (Odisha)
(c) 4·8 seconds (c) Indravati, Udanti-Sitanadi
(Chhattisgarh)
(d) 5·4 seconds
(d) Palamu (Jharkhand)
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( B – 17 )
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117. The first-ever Ministerial Conference 119. Which country has reportedly
on Women Empowerment was held in conducted Hypersonic Weapon Test ?
(a) France (a) Russia
(b) Sweden (b) China
(c) The Netherlands (c) North Korea
(d) Italy (d) France
118. The vector responsible for 120. Covaxin, the vaccine for corona virus,
leishmaniasis is is manufactured by which one of the
following companies ?
(a) Mosquito
(a) Bharat Biotech
(b) Fruit flies
(b) Pfizer
(c) Tsetse flies
(c) Cadilla Labs
(d) Sandflies
(d) Dr. Reddy’s
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( B – 18 )
Text of page 39
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( B – 19 )
Text of page 40
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( B – 20 )
Text of page 41
Booklet Sr. No.
*0C*
Candidate’s Name ________________________________________________________
Father’s Name ____________________________________________________________
Date of Birth :
D D M M Y Y Y Y
OMR Response Sheet No. ____________________________________ Roll No. ___________________________
Candidate’s Signature : Total Questions : 120]
(Please sign in the box) Time Allowed : 2 Hours]
1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time he/she is told to do so by the Invigilation
Staff. However, in the meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and
subsequently fill the appropriate columns given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may
also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet,
supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in the
OMR sheet. Use of ink pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or
illegible or incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for
orthopedically/visually impaired candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, for marking
correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire
booklet to confirm that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly
and there are no blank pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then
the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and
obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.
6. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in
the relevant column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their
record regarding the change in the serial no. of Question booklet.
7. The question paper booklet has 20 pages.
8. The paper consists of total 300 marks. Each question shall carry 2.5 marks. There are four
options for each question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on
the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (0.5 marks for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the
candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before they start
answering the questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (C–1)
Text of page 42
SECTION A 5. The hysteresis loop of a magnetic
material has an area of 5 cm2
1. Which gas is sometimes used in with scales given as 1 cm = 2 AT and
filament lamps ? 1 cm = 50 mWb. At 50 Hz, the total
(a) Nitrogen hysteresis loss is
(a) 15 W
(b) Carbon dioxide
(b) 20 W
(c) Argon
(c) 25 W
(d) Krypton (d) 50 W
2. If an unbalanced supply is given to a
3-phase delta-connected induction 6. An electric motor with ‘constant output
motor, it will cause power’ will have a torque speed
characteristics in the form of a
(a) Zero sequence currents
(a) Straight line through origin
(b) Less heating of the rotor
(b) Straight line parallel to speed
(c) Negative sequence component axis
current (c) Circle about the origin
(d) All of the above (d) Rectangular hyperbola
3. The magnetizing current in a
7. If an energy meter disc makes
transformer is rich in
10 revolutions in 100 seconds when a
(a) 3rd harmonic load of 450 W is connected to it, the
(b) 5th harmonic meter constant (in rev/kWh) is
(c) 7th harmonic (a) 1000
(b) 500
(d) 13th harmonic
(c) 1600
4. The compensating winding of a dc (d) 800
machine
(a) Is located in armature slots for 8. A moving iron ammeter produces a full
compensation of armature scale torque of 240 μNm with a
reaction deflection of 120 at a current of 10 A.
(b) Is located on commutating poles The rate of change of
for improving the commutation self-inductance (μH/radian) of the
(c) Is located on pole shoes for instrument at full scale is
avoiding the flashover at (a) 2·0 μH/radian
commutator surface (b) 4·8 μH/radian
(d) Is located on pole shoes for (c) 12·0 μH/radian
compensating armature reaction (d) 114·6 μH/radian
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (C–2)
Text of page 43
9. A voltmeter gives 180 oscillations per 13. Wagner’s earth devices are used in
minute when connected to the rotor of AC bridge circuits for
an induction motor. The stator (a) eliminating the effect of earth
frequency is 60 Hz. The slip of the capacitances
motor is (b) eliminating the effect of
(a) 0·04 inter component capacitances
(b) 0·02 (c) eliminating the effect of stray
(c) 0·06 electrostatic fields
(d) 0·05 (d) shielding the bridge elements
10. For harnessing low variable water 14. Heaviside-Campbell Equal Ratio
head the suitable hydraulic turbine bridge is used for measuring
with reaction and adjustable vanes is (a) self-inductance in terms of
(a) Francis mutual inductance
(b) Impeller (b) capacitance in terms of
inductance
(c) Kaplan
(c) dielectric loss of an imperfect
(d) Pelton
capacitor
(d) phase angle of a coil
11. The standardization of
AC potentiometers is done by
15. In practice, earth is chosen as a place
(a) directly using AC standard
of zero electric potential because it
voltage sources
(a) is non-conducting
(b) using DC standard sources and
transfer instruments (b) is easily available
(c) using DC standard sources and (c) keeps losing and gaining electric
d’Arsonaval galvanometer charge every day
(d) using AC standard sources and (d) has almost constant potential
transfer instruments
16. The reactance offered by a capacitor to
12. A Wheatstone bridge cannot be used alternating current of frequency 50 Hz
for precision measurement because is 10 . If frequency is increased to
errors are introduced on account of 100 Hz, reactance becomes _____ ohm.
(a) resistance of connecting leads (a) 20
(b) thermo electric emfs (b) 5
(c) contact resistances (c) 2·5
(d) All of the above (d) 40
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (C–3)
Text of page 44
17. Which of the following harmonic 21. While starting a 3-phase synchronous
voltage components in a 3-phase motor, its field winding should be
system would be in phase with each (a) Kept open
other ? (b) Short-circuited
(a) 3rd, 9th, 15th, etc. (c) Connected to a DC source
(b) 7th, 13th, 19th, etc. (d) None of the above
(c) 5th, 11th, 17th, etc.
(d) 2nd, 4th, 6th, etc. 22. A synchronous machine has full-pitch
coils having a coil-span of 12 slots.
18. A synchronous generator is feeding a For eliminating third harmonic, the
zero power factor load (lagging) at coil-span should be
rated current. The armature reaction (a) 10 slots
is
(b) 9 slots
(a) Magnetizing
(c) 8 slots
(b) Demagnetizing
(d) 6 slots
(c) Cross magnetizing
(d) Ineffective
23. For eliminating 5th harmonic from the
e.m.f generated in the phase of a
19. In pump storage hydro power plant the
3-phase alternator, the chording angle
electrical machine is made to work
alternatively as generator and motor. should be
The efficiency of the generator working (a) 36 degree
at the same electric power level is (b) 18 degree
(a) Greater than that as motor (c) 30 degree
(b) Equal to that as motor (d) 45 degree
(c) Less than that as motor
(d) Greater or less than that as 24. A DC shunt motor runs at
motor depending on the type of 500 rev/min when 200 V is applied
the machine across it. The armature resistance is
0·5 and the armature current is
20. In a super heater 30 A. Calculate the series resistance
(a) Pressure rises and temperature that must be inserted in series with
drops the armature to reduce the motor
(b) Temperature rises and pressure speed to 300 rpm with same armature
drops current.
(c) Temperature rises and pressure (a) 1·54
remains unchanged
(b) 3·48
(d) Pressure rises and temperature
(c) 1·0
remains the same
(d) 2·46
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (C–4)
Text of page 45
25. A single-phase, 22 kVA, 2200 V/ 220 V, 29. If power P available from a
50 Hz, distribution transformer is to hydro-scheme is given by the formula
be connected as an auto-transformer P = 9·81 QH, where Q is the flow rate
to get an output voltage of 2420 V. through the turbine in 1/s and H is the
Its maximum kVA rating as an head in meter, then P will be in unit of
auto-transformer is
(a) W
(a) 220 kVA
(b) HP
(b) 242 kVA
(c) kJ/s
(c) 142 kVA
(d) kWh
(d) 22 kVA
30. The overall efficiency of a thermal
26. Zero voltage regulation in transformer power station is equal to
occurs at (a) that of Rankine cycle
(a) Unity power factor load (b) that of regenerative cycle
(b) No load (c) that of binary vapour cycle
(c) Lagging power load (d) product of boiler efficiency,
(d) Leading power factor load turbine efficiency and generator
efficiency
27. In a DC machine, the demagnetizing
effect of armature reaction is due to 31. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant
(a) Component of armature m.m.f is less than that of a conventional fuel
along field axis fired thermal plant because of
(b) Non-sinusoidal nature of (a) less rejection of heat in condenser
armature m.m.f (b) higher temperature condition
(c) Magnetic saturation in half of the (c) higher pressure conditions
field pole (d) low temperature and pressure
(d) Uneven air-gap length conditions
28. Which of the following equipment is 32. An op-amp shunt regulator differs
used to limit short-circuited current from the series regulator in the sense
level in a substation ? that its control element is connected in
(a) Isolator (a) series with line resistor
(b) Lightning switch (b) parallel with line resistor
(c) Coupling capacitor (c) parallel with load resistor
(d) Series reactor (d) parallel with input voltage
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (C–5)
Text of page 46
33. The purpose of coating the fluorescent 38. Hall effect is observed in a specimen
tube from inside with white powder is when it (metal or a semiconductor) is
(a) to improve its life carrying current and is placed in a
(b) to improve the appearance magnetic field. The resultant electric
(c) to change the colour of light field inside the specimen will be in
emitted to white
(a) a direction normal to both current
(d) to increase the light radiations and magnetic field
due to secondary emissions
(b) the direction of current
34. The function of moderator in nuclear
(c) a direction anti-parallel to the
reactor is
magnetic field
(a) to absorb excess neutrons
(b) to increase the energy of the (d) an arbitrary direction depending
neutron upon the conductivity of the
(c) to slow down the neutron specimen
(d) None of the above
39. An industrial consumer has a load
35. If generating station is situated very pattern of 2000 kW, 0·8 lag for
close to the load center, the penalty 12 hours and 1000 kW unity pf for
factor for this unit is 12 hours. The load factor is
(a) Zero
(a) 0·5
(b) Almost unity
(c) Negative (b) 0·75
(d) Very high
(c) 0·6
36. Generators for power plants to supply (d) 2·0
exclusively peak loads are usually
designed for maximum efficiency to
40. A fault current of 2000 A is passing on
occur at
the primary side of a 400/5 C.T. on the
(a) Full load
secondary side of C.T., an inverse time
(b) 50 to 75% full load
over current relay is connected whose
(c) 25 to 50% full load plug setting is set at 50%. The plug
(d) 10% full load setting multiplier will be
37. Zener diodes are used primarily as (a) 25
(a) rectifiers
(b) 50
(b) voltage regulators
(c) oscillators (c) 10
(d) amplifiers (d) 30
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (C–6)
Text of page 47
41. In a three-phase Y-Y transformer 45. In the following circuit, i(t) under
connection, neutral is fundamental to steady state is
the
(a) suppression of harmonics
(b) passage of unbalanced currents
due to unbalanced loads
(c) provision of dual electric service
(d) balancing of phase voltages with
respect to line voltages
42. A capacitor that stores a charge of (a) Zero
0·5 C at 10 volts has a capacitance (in (b) 5
terms of farad) (c) 7·07 sin(t)
(a) 5 (d) 7·07 sin(t – 45)
(b) 20
(c) 10
46. In the circuit given below, the value of
(d) 0·05 R required for the transfer of
43. The voltage phasor of a circuit is maximum power to the load having a
10 ∠15 V and the current phasor is resistance of 3 is
2 ∠ – 45 A. The active and reactive
power in the circuit are :
(a) 10 W and 17·32 VAR
6
(b) 5 W and 8·66 VAR 3
(c) 20 W and 60 VAR
(d) 20 2 W and 10 2 VAR
(a) Zero
44. Given two coupled inductors L1 and (b) 3
L2, their mutual inductance M (c) 6
satisfies (d) Infinity
(a) M= L12 L22 47. What will be the voltage (in V) across a
8 H inductor, when the rate of change
(b) M > (L1 + L2)/2
of current in the inductor is 0·5 A/sec ?
(a) 2
(c) M> L1L 2 (b) 4
(c) 6
(d) M≤ L1L 2 (d) 8
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (C–7)
Text of page 48
48. What will be the equivalent 51. Determine the intensity of
capacitance (in mF) if three capacitors magnetization(A/m) of a magnet when
are connected in series having it has a pole strength of 60 A–m and a
capacitances of 0·04 mF, 0·08 mF and pole area of 20 m2.
0·02 mF respectively ? (a) 9
(a) 0·026 (b) 4
(b) 0·032 (c) 6
(c) 0·065 (d) 3
(d) 0·011
52. The relative permeability of
49. Calculate the total inductance in H of diamagnetic material is
the circuit shown below. (a) Greater than 1
(b) Less than 1
(c) Greater than 10
(d) Greater than 100
53. Two wires A and B of the same
material and length l and 2l have
radius r and 2r respectively. The ratio
of their specific resistance will be
(a) 1:1
(a) 5·33 (b) 1:2
(b) 8·77 (c) 1:4
(c) 10·5 (d) 1:8
(d) 11·9 54. If the length of a wire of resistance R is
50. Determine the Thevenin’s resistance uniformly stretched to n times its
(in ohm) across the 6 ohm resistor for original value, its new resistance is
given circuit. (a) nR
(b) R/n
(c) n2R
(d) R/n2
55. The core of a transformer is laminated
to reduce
(a) 1·71
(a) Eddy current losses
(b) 2·24
(b) Hysteresis losses
(c) 2·09
(c) Copper losses
(d) 1·01
(d) Core volume
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (C–8)
Text of page 49
56. A 500 MW 3-phase, star connected 60. The current flowing through a circuit
synchronous generator has a rated element has a DC component of 10 A
and a sinusoidal AC component of
voltage of 21.5 kV at 0·8 pf. The line
peak value 14·14 A. The average value
current when operating at full load of the current is
conditions will be approximately (a) Zero
(a) 29 kA (b) 24·14 A
(b) 30 kA (c) 10 A
(c) 16·8 kA
(d) 14·14 A
(d) 100 kA
61. As compared to a LED display, the
distinct advantage of an LCD display
57. The emf induced in the armature of a is that it requires
shunt generator is 220 V. The (a) no illumination
armature resistance is 0·1 ohm. If the (b) extremely low power
armature current is 20 A, the terminal (c) no forward-bias
voltage will be (d) a solid crystal
(a) 222 V
62. Coil 1 has a resistance of R1 and
(b) 216 V inductance L1. Coil 2 has a resistance
(c) 224 V of R2 and L2. R1 = R2 and L1 L2. If
(d) 218 V the two coils are connected in series,
the time constant of the series
58. A 250 V DC series motor has armature connection of coils is
and series field resistances of 0·25 ohm (a) Sum of the time constant of the
and 0·15 ohm respectively. The current individual coils
for developing a torque of 80 Nm at (b) Average of the time constants of
1200 rpm is the individual coils
(a) 86·4 A (c) Geometric mean of the time
constants of the individual coils
(b) 43·2 A
(d) Product of the time constant of
(c) 21·6 A
the individual coils
(d) 10·8 A
63. A resistive load when connected to a
DC source draws a source current I. If
59. In a bipolar junction tansistor,
a 10 resistance is connected parallel
IC = 250 mA and IE = 251 mA. The to the source, the source current will
value of β is be
(a) 100 (a) equal to I
(b) 500 (b) greater than I
(c) 200 (c) less than I
(d) 250 (d) None of the above
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (C–9)
Text of page 50
64. In the circuit shown below for different 67. What is the average value of the
values of resistance R, the circuit waveform shown below ?
parameters V and I are as follows
(a) 4
when R = , v = 5 V
(b) 6/π
when R = 0, I = 2·5 A
(c) 12/π
when R = 3 , the value of V is
(d) 14/π
(a) 1V
(b) 2V 68. A high frequency signal is applied to a
PMMC instrument. If the RMS value
(c) 3V of the AC signal is 2 V, the reading of
(d) 5V the instrument will be
(a) 0
65. A1, A2 and A3 are ideal ammeters in (b) 2 V
the circuit shown below. If the (c) 2 V
readings of A1 and A3 are 5 A and 13 A (d) 4 2 V
respectively, the reading of A2 will be
69. The current i = (10 + 10 sin t) A is
passed through an ideal moving iron
type ammeter. Its reading will be
(a) 0
(b) 10 A
(c) 150 A
(d) 20 A
(a) 8A
70. The X and Y inputs of a CRO are
(b) 14 A scaled at 0·5 ms/cm and 100 mV/cm
(c) 18 A respectively. The dimension of the
(d) 12 A CRO screen is 10 cm 8 cm (X and Y).
A sinusoidal signal of frequency
200 Hz and RMS amplitude of 600 mV
66. Avalanche photodiodes are preferred is being measured in the Y input. The
over PIN diodes in optical screen will show
communication systems because of (a) 1 cycle of undistorted sine wave
(b) 2 cycles of undistorted sine wave
(a) speed of operation
(c) 1 cycle of sine wave with clipped
(b) higher sensitivity amplitude
(c) larger bandwidth (d) 2 cycles of sine wave with clipped
(d) larger power handling capacity amplitude
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( C – 10 )
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71. An ammeter with internal resistance 75. A rectangular voltage pulse of
of 100 allows 100 A through it. For magnitude V is applied for a duration
measuring 500 A with the same T to a resistance R in series with a
ammeter, what is the value of shunt capacitance C. The maximum voltage
resistance required (in ohms) ? developed across the capacitor is
(a) 20
(b) 22·22 T
(a) V 1 – e –
(c) 25 RC
(d) 50
VT
(b)
72. A series RLC circuit resonates at RC
frequency fo Hz. If the value of all the
(c) V
components are doubled, the new
resonating frequency is
T
fo (d) V e –
(a) RC
2
(b) fo
76. The illumination at various points on a
(c) 2f o horizontal surface illuminated by the
fo same source varies as
(d)
4
(a) cos θ
73. The power loss in a resistance R when (b) cos2 θ
connected to a current source is 18 W.
(c) cos3 θ
The power loss in the same resistance
1
R when connected to voltage source of (d)
cos θ
same magnitude as that of the current
source is 4·5 W. The magnitude of the 77. A transformer rated 100/400 V, 50 Hz
current source and the value of R are operates at a flux density of 1·5 T
(a) 6 A and 0·5 when supplied from the HV side. If the
(b) 4·5 A and 0·5 linear dimensions of the core are
(c) 9 A and 2 doubled and the transformer is
(d) 3 A and 2 energized from the HV side with a
800 V, 50 Hz supply, calculate the flux
74. The RRRV depends upon the
density.
(a) Type of the circuit breaker
(a) 0·375 T
(b) Capacitance of the system only
(b) 0·75 T
(c) Inductance of the system only
(d) Inductance and capacitance of the (c) 1·5 T
system (d) 3T
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( C – 11 )
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78. Calculate the current drawn by a 81. A 50 Hz, 6 pole induction motor runs
220 V DC motor of armature at 950 rpm
resistance 0·5 and back emf 200 V. (i) The speed of the rotor magnetic
field is 950 rpm
(a) 40 A
(ii) The speed of the rotor magnetic
(b) 44 A field with respect to the stator
magnetic field is zero
(c) 400 A
(iii) The frequency of the rotor
(d) 440 A current is 2·5 Hz
Which of these statements is/are
79. A separately excited DC motor is correct ?
rotating with 100 rpm. The motor has (a) (i) and (ii)
a torque to current ratio of 2 N-m/A. (b) Only (i)
Calculate the back emf. (c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
(a) 200 V
(b) 42 V 82. If the air gap of an induction motor is
(c) 100 V increased, which of the following
statement is/are correct ?
(d) 21 V (i) Starting current decreases
(ii) Power factor decreases
80. The torque current characteristics of (iii) Magnetizing current increases
three conceptual DC machines are as
follows :
(a) (i) and (ii)
Machine A : I 3 (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
Machine B : Iα
(d) (i),(ii) and (iii)
Machine C : I α1 / 3
83. The rotor power input of a 3-phase
induction motor is 15 kW and the
Which machine is best suited for no
load operation ? corresponding slip is 4%. The rotor
copper loss is
(a) Machine A
(a) 600 W
(b) Machine A and B (b) 625 W
(c) Machine B (c) 650 W
(d) Machine C (d) 700 W
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( C – 12 )
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84. When the applied voltage per phase is 87. A transistor is said to be in a quiescent
reduced to half, the starting torque of state when
the three-phase squirrel cage induction
motor becomes (a) It is unbiased
1 (b) No currents are flowing
(a) of the initial value
2 (c) Emitter junction bias is equal to
1 collector junction bias
(b) of the initial value
4 (d) No signal is applied to the input
(c) Twice of the initial value
(d) 4 times of the initial value 88. In the circuit shown below, the zener
85. A 3-phase, 50 Hz, 4 pole 14 kW diode has a knee current of 5 mA and a
induction motor is rotating with maximum allowed power dissipation of
1450 rpm at full load. Calculate the
240 mW. What are the minimum and
rotational losses of the motor if the
copper loss in the rotor circuit is maximum load currents that can be
0·5 kW. drawn safely from the circuit, keeping
the output voltage Vo at 6 V ?
(a) 0
(b) 0·5 kW
(c) 1 kW
(d) 2 kW
86. Choose the correct output waveform
for the circuit shown below :
(a) 0 mA, 180 mA
(b) 5 mA, 110 mA
(c) 20 mA, 55 mA
(d) 60 mA, 180 mA
(a)
89. The ripple factor of a power supply is
given by
Pdc
(a)
(b) Pac
2
I rms
(b) – 1
I dc
(c)
2
I dc
(c) – 1
I rms
(d) I dc
(d)
I rms
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90. A triangle to square wave generator 94. A full scale output of a DAC is 10 mA.
uses If the resolution is to be less than
(a) A sine wave oscillation and a 40 A, the required bits are
comparator (a) 4
(b) An integrator and a comparator
(b) 8
(c) A differentiator and a comparator
(d) A sine wave oscillator and a (c) 10
clipper (d) 12
91. What is the output of the circuit shown 95. An overhead line having a surge
below impedance of 400 is connected in
series with an underground cable
having a surge impedance of 100 . If
a surge of 50 KV travels from the line
end towards the line cable junction,
the value of the transmitted voltage
wave at the junction will be
(a) 30 KV
(a) 3Vs
(b) 20 KV
1
(b) Vs (c) 80 KV
3
(c) 4Vs (d) – 30 KV
(d) Vs
96. In a DC transmission line
92. Universal gates are (a) It is necessary for the sending
(a) XOR, NAND and OR end and the receiving end to be
operated in synchronism
(b) OR, NOT and XOR
(c) NOR, NAND and XNOR (b) The effects of inductive and
(d) NOR and NAND capacitive reactances are greater
than in an AC transmission line
of the same rating
93. Minimum number of NAND and NOR
gates required to implement the (c) There are no effects due to
function XOR gate, respectively is inductive and capacitive
(a) 5, 4 reactances
(b) 4, 4 (d) Power transfer capability is
(c) 5, 5 limited by stability
(d) 4, 5 considerations
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97. A 3-phase, 11 kV, 50 Hz, 200 kW load SECTION B
has a power factor of 0·8 lag. A delta
connected 3 phase capacitor is used to 101. The first-ever Ministerial Conference
improve the power factor to unity. The on Women Empowerment was held in
capacitance per phase of the capacitor
in microfarads is (a) France
(a) 3·948
(b) Sweden
(b) 1·316
(c) 0·439 (c) The Netherlands
(d) 11·844
(d) Italy
98. A 10 KVA, 400 V/200 V single phase
102. The vector responsible for
transformer with 10% impedance
leishmaniasis is
draws a steady state short circuit line
current of (a) Mosquito
(a) 50 A
(b) 150 A (b) Fruit flies
(c) 250 A
(c) Tsetse flies
(d) 350 A
(d) Sandflies
99. In protection of transformers,
harmonic restraint is used to guard 103. Which country has reportedly
against conducted Hypersonic Weapon Test ?
(a) Magnetizing inrush current
(a) Russia
(b) Unbalanced operation
(c) Lightning (b) China
(d) Switching over-voltages (c) North Korea
(d) France
100. A 240 V single-phase ac source is
connected to a load with an impedance
104. Covaxin, the vaccine for corona virus,
of 10 60o ohms. A capacitor is
is manufactured by which one of the
connected in parallel with the load. If
following companies ?
the capacitor supplies 1250 VAR, the
real power supplied by the source is (a) Bharat Biotech
(a) 3600 W (b) Pfizer
(b) 2880 W
(c) Cadilla Labs
(c) 2400 W
(d) Dr. Reddy’s
(d) 1200 W
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( C – 15 )
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105. In which State of India has the first 108. A, B, C and D play a game of cards. A
emergency landing facility on National says to B, “ If I give you 8 cards, you
Highway stretch been established ? will have as many as C has and I shall
have 3 less than what C has. Also, if I
(a) Madhya Pradesh take 6 cards from C, I shall have twice
as many as D has.” If B and D together
(b) Gujarat
have 50 cards, how many cards does C
(c) Uttar Pradesh have ?
(a) 40
(d) Rajasthan
(b) 37
(c) 27
(d) 23
106. Ryder Cup is associated with which 109. Choose the alternative which closely
game/sport ? resembles the water image of the given
combination/figure.
(a) Ice Hockey
ADVANCE
(b) Polo
(a)
(c) Golf (b)
(c)
(d) Chess
(d) None of the above
Directions for the following 3 (three)
questions :
107. A dealer paid a car manufacturer
< 1,35,000 for a car. What should be Read the following information and answer
the selling price of the car, if after the three questions that follow :
allowing the buyer 10% discount on Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared
the selling price, he made a profit of in several tests. Either C or F scores the
8% on his outlay ? highest. Whenever C scores the highest,
then E scores the least. Whenever F scores
(a) < 1,50,000
the highest, B scores the least. In all the
(b) < 1,60,000 tests they got different marks; D scores
higher than A, but they are close
(c) < 1,62,000 competitors; A scores higher than B; C
scores higher than A.
(d) < 1,52,500
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( C – 16 )
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110. If F stands second in the ranking, then 114. Which two signs need to be
the position of B is interchanged to make the given
equation correct ?
(a) Third
(b) Fourth 100 ÷ 10 × 100 – 10 + 100 = 910
(c) Fifth
(d) Sixth
(a) + and ÷
111. If B scores the least, the rank of C will (b) ÷ and ×
be
(c) + and –
(a) Second
(d) × and –
(b) Third
(c) Fourth
115. The ratio of the present ages of Rajiv
(d) Second or third and Sanjiv is 2 : 3. After five years,
Rajiv will be 31 years old. What will be
112. If E is ranked third, then which one of the age of Sanjiv after 3 years ?
the following is correct ?
(a) 39 years
(a) E gets more marks than C
(b) 29 years
(b) C gets more marks than E (c) 42 years
(c) A is ranked fourth (d) 45 years
(d) D is ranked fifth
116. Two trains of respective lengths 160 m
113. Find the number which replaces the and 200 m travel at the speeds of 48 m
question mark : per second and 52 m per second
respectively in opposite direction to
each other. What is the total time
taken by them to cross each other ?
(a) 3·6 seconds
(a) 15 (b) 4·5 seconds
(b) 25 (c) 4·8 seconds
(c) 20 (d) 5·4 seconds
(d) 40
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117. Match the following : 119. Which among the following was the
Navigation Satellite Country first State to establish Panchayati
System Name Raj ?
A. Global Positioning 1. Russia (a) Andhra Pradesh
System (b) Kerala
B. BeiDou 2. India
(c) Gujarat
C. GLONASS 3. China
(d) Rajasthan
D. GAGAN 4. USA
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 120. The Chenchu people in India have
(b) 3 4 2 1 been active in protection of wildlife in
(c) 4 3 1 2 which of the following protected areas
(d) 2 4 1 3 of India ?
118. Who is the Chairman of the fourteenth (a) Nagarjunasagar Srisailam
Finance Commission ? (Andhra Pradesh)
(a) Abhijit Sen (b) Similipal (Odisha)
(b) A.M. Khusro (c) Indravati, Udanti-Sitanadi
(c) N.K. Singh (Chhattisgarh)
(d) Y.V. Reddy (d) Palamu (Jharkhand)
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( C – 18 )
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( C – 19 )
Text of page 60
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( C – 20 )
Text of page 61
Booklet Sr. No.
*0D*
Candidate’s Name ________________________________________________________
Father’s Name ____________________________________________________________
Date of Birth :
D D M M Y Y Y Y
OMR Response Sheet No. ____________________________________ Roll No. ___________________________
Candidate’s Signature : Total Questions : 120]
(Please sign in the box) Time Allowed : 2 Hours]
1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time he/she is told to do so by the Invigilation
Staff. However, in the meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and
subsequently fill the appropriate columns given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may
also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet,
supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in the
OMR sheet. Use of ink pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or
illegible or incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for
orthopedically/visually impaired candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, for marking
correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire
booklet to confirm that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly
and there are no blank pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then
the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and
obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.
6. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in
the relevant column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their
record regarding the change in the serial no. of Question booklet.
7. The question paper booklet has 20 pages.
8. The paper consists of total 300 marks. Each question shall carry 2.5 marks. There are four
options for each question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on
the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (0.5 marks for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the
candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before they start
answering the questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (D–1)
Text of page 62
SECTION A 4. In a three-phase Y-Y transformer
connection, neutral is fundamental to
1. Hall effect is observed in a specimen the
when it (metal or a semiconductor) is (a) suppression of harmonics
carrying current and is placed in a (b) passage of unbalanced currents
magnetic field. The resultant electric due to unbalanced loads
field inside the specimen will be in (c) provision of dual electric service
(a) a direction normal to both current (d) balancing of phase voltages with
and magnetic field respect to line voltages
(b) the direction of current
(c) a direction anti-parallel to the 5. A capacitor that stores a charge of
magnetic field 0·5 C at 10 volts has a capacitance (in
(d) an arbitrary direction depending terms of farad)
upon the conductivity of the (a) 5
specimen (b) 20
(c) 10
2. An industrial consumer has a load (d) 0·05
pattern of 2000 kW, 0·8 lag for 6. The voltage phasor of a circuit is
12 hours and 1000 kW unity pf for 10 ∠15 V and the current phasor is
12 hours. The load factor is 2 ∠ – 45 A. The active and reactive
(a) 0·5 power in the circuit are :
(b) 0·75 (a) 10 W and 17·32 VAR
(b) 5 W and 8·66 VAR
(c) 0·6
(c) 20 W and 60 VAR
(d) 2·0
(d) 20 2 W and 10 2 VAR
3. A fault current of 2000 A is passing on 7. Given two coupled inductors L1 and
the primary side of a 400/5 C.T. on the L2, their mutual inductance M
secondary side of C.T., an inverse time satisfies
over current relay is connected whose
plug setting is set at 50%. The plug
setting multiplier will be
(a) M= L12 L22
(b) M > (L1 + L2)/2
(a) 25
(b) 50 (c) M> L1L 2
(c) 10
(d) M≤ L1L 2
(d) 30
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (D–2)
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8. In the following circuit, i(t) under 11. What will be the equivalent
steady state is capacitance (in mF) if three capacitors
are connected in series having
capacitances of 0·04 mF, 0·08 mF and
0·02 mF respectively ?
(a) 0·026
(b) 0·032
(c) 0·065
(d) 0·011
12. Calculate the total inductance in H of
(a) Zero the circuit shown below.
(b) 5
(c) 7·07 sin(t)
(d) 7·07 sin(t – 45)
9. In the circuit given below, the value of
R required for the transfer of
maximum power to the load having a
resistance of 3 is
(a) 5·33
(b) 8·77
6 (c) 10·5
3
(d) 11·9
13. Determine the Thevenin’s resistance
(a) Zero (in ohm) across the 6 ohm resistor for
(b) 3 given circuit.
(c) 6
(d) Infinity
10. What will be the voltage (in V) across a
8 H inductor, when the rate of change
of current in the inductor is 0·5 A/sec ?
(a) 1·71
(a) 2
(b) 2·24
(b) 4
(c) 2·09
(c) 6
(d) 1·01
(d) 8
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (D–3)
Text of page 64
14. Determine the intensity of 19. A 500 MW 3-phase, star connected
magnetization(A/m) of a magnet when synchronous generator has a rated
it has a pole strength of 60 A–m and a voltage of 21.5 kV at 0·8 pf. The line
pole area of 20 m2. current when operating at full load
(a) 9 conditions will be approximately
(b) 4 (a) 29 kA
(c) 6 (b) 30 kA
(d) 3 (c) 16·8 kA
(d) 100 kA
15. The relative permeability of
diamagnetic material is
20. The emf induced in the armature of a
(a) Greater than 1
shunt generator is 220 V. The
(b) Less than 1
armature resistance is 0·1 ohm. If the
(c) Greater than 10
armature current is 20 A, the terminal
(d) Greater than 100
voltage will be
16. Two wires A and B of the same (a) 222 V
material and length l and 2l have (b) 216 V
radius r and 2r respectively. The ratio (c) 224 V
of their specific resistance will be (d) 218 V
(a) 1:1
(b) 1:2
21. A 250 V DC series motor has armature
(c) 1:4 and series field resistances of 0·25 ohm
(d) 1:8 and 0·15 ohm respectively. The current
17. If the length of a wire of resistance R is for developing a torque of 80 Nm at
uniformly stretched to n times its 1200 rpm is
original value, its new resistance is (a) 86·4 A
(b) 43·2 A
(a) nR
(c) 21·6 A
(b) R/n
(d) 10·8 A
(c) n2R
(d) R/n2 22. In a bipolar junction tansistor,
IC = 250 mA and IE = 251 mA. The
18. The core of a transformer is laminated
to reduce value of β is
(a) Eddy current losses (a) 100
(b) Hysteresis losses (b) 500
(c) Copper losses (c) 200
(d) Core volume (d) 250
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (D–4)
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23. The current flowing through a circuit 27. In the circuit shown below for different
element has a DC component of 10 A values of resistance R, the circuit
and a sinusoidal AC component of
parameters V and I are as follows
peak value 14·14 A. The average value
of the current is
(a) Zero
(b) 24·14 A
(c) 10 A
(d) 14·14 A when R = , v = 5 V
24. As compared to a LED display, the when R = 0, I = 2·5 A
distinct advantage of an LCD display when R = 3 , the value of V is
is that it requires
(a) 1V
(a) no illumination
(b) 2V
(b) extremely low power
(c) 3V
(c) no forward-bias
(d) a solid crystal (d) 5V
25. Coil 1 has a resistance of R1 and 28. A1, A2 and A3 are ideal ammeters in
inductance L1. Coil 2 has a resistance
the circuit shown below. If the
of R2 and L2. R1 = R2 and L1 L2. If
readings of A1 and A3 are 5 A and 13 A
the two coils are connected in series,
respectively, the reading of A2 will be
the time constant of the series
connection of coils is
(a) Sum of the time constant of the
individual coils
(b) Average of the time constants of
the individual coils
(c) Geometric mean of the time
constants of the individual coils (a) 8A
(d) Product of the time constant of (b) 14 A
the individual coils (c) 18 A
26. A resistive load when connected to a (d) 12 A
DC source draws a source current I. If
a 10 resistance is connected parallel
29. Avalanche photodiodes are preferred
to the source, the source current will
be over PIN diodes in optical
communication systems because of
(a) equal to I
(a) speed of operation
(b) greater than I
(b) higher sensitivity
(c) less than I
(c) larger bandwidth
(d) None of the above (d) larger power handling capacity
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (D–5)
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30. What is the average value of the 34. An ammeter with internal resistance
waveform shown below ? of 100 allows 100 A through it. For
measuring 500 A with the same
ammeter, what is the value of shunt
resistance required (in ohms) ?
(a) 20
(b) 22·22
(a) 4 (c) 25
(b) 6/π (d) 50
(c) 12/π
(d) 14/π 35. A series RLC circuit resonates at
frequency fo Hz. If the value of all the
31. A high frequency signal is applied to a
PMMC instrument. If the RMS value components are doubled, the new
of the AC signal is 2 V, the reading of resonating frequency is
the instrument will be fo
(a)
(a) 0 2
(b) 2 V (b) fo
(c) 2 V (c) 2f o
(d) 4 2 V
fo
(d)
32. The current i = (10 + 10 sin t) A is 4
passed through an ideal moving iron
type ammeter. Its reading will be 36. The power loss in a resistance R when
(a) 0 connected to a current source is 18 W.
(b) 10 A The power loss in the same resistance
(c) 150 A R when connected to voltage source of
same magnitude as that of the current
(d) 20 A
source is 4·5 W. The magnitude of the
33. The X and Y inputs of a CRO are current source and the value of R are
scaled at 0·5 ms/cm and 100 mV/cm
(a) 6 A and 0·5
respectively. The dimension of the
CRO screen is 10 cm 8 cm (X and Y). (b) 4·5 A and 0·5
A sinusoidal signal of frequency (c) 9 A and 2
200 Hz and RMS amplitude of 600 mV (d) 3 A and 2
is being measured in the Y input. The
screen will show 37. The RRRV depends upon the
(a) 1 cycle of undistorted sine wave
(a) Type of the circuit breaker
(b) 2 cycles of undistorted sine wave
(c) 1 cycle of sine wave with clipped (b) Capacitance of the system only
amplitude (c) Inductance of the system only
(d) 2 cycles of sine wave with clipped (d) Inductance and capacitance of the
amplitude system
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (D–6)
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38. A rectangular voltage pulse of 41. Calculate the current drawn by a
magnitude V is applied for a duration 220 V DC motor of armature
T to a resistance R in series with a resistance 0·5 and back emf 200 V.
capacitance C. The maximum voltage
(a) 40 A
developed across the capacitor is
(b) 44 A
T
(a) V 1 – e – (c) 400 A
RC
(d) 440 A
VT
(b)
RC 42. A separately excited DC motor is
rotating with 100 rpm. The motor has
(c) V a torque to current ratio of 2 N-m/A.
Calculate the back emf.
T
(d) V e – (a) 200 V
RC
(b) 42 V
39. The illumination at various points on a
horizontal surface illuminated by the (c) 100 V
same source varies as (d) 21 V
(a) cos θ
(b) cos2 θ 43. The torque current characteristics of
three conceptual DC machines are as
(c) cos3 θ
follows :
1
(d)
cos θ Machine A : I 3
40. A transformer rated 100/400 V, 50 Hz
Machine B : Iα
operates at a flux density of 1·5 T
when supplied from the HV side. If the
Machine C : I α1 / 3
linear dimensions of the core are
doubled and the transformer is
Which machine is best suited for no
energized from the HV side with a
load operation ?
800 V, 50 Hz supply, calculate the flux
density. (a) Machine A
(a) 0·375 T
(b) Machine A and B
(b) 0·75 T
(c) Machine B
(c) 1·5 T
(d) 3T (d) Machine C
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (D–7)
Text of page 68
44. A 50 Hz, 6 pole induction motor runs 47. When the applied voltage per phase is
at 950 rpm reduced to half, the starting torque of
the three-phase squirrel cage induction
(i) The speed of the rotor magnetic motor becomes
field is 950 rpm
1
(ii) The speed of the rotor magnetic (a) of the initial value
2
field with respect to the stator 1
magnetic field is zero (b) of the initial value
4
(iii) The frequency of the rotor (c) Twice of the initial value
current is 2·5 Hz
(d) 4 times of the initial value
Which of these statements is/are 48. A 3-phase, 50 Hz, 4 pole 14 kW
correct ? induction motor is rotating with
(a) (i) and (ii) 1450 rpm at full load. Calculate the
(b) Only (i) rotational losses of the motor if the
copper loss in the rotor circuit is
(c) (i) and (iii)
0·5 kW.
(d) (ii) and (iii)
(a) 0
(b) 0·5 kW
45. If the air gap of an induction motor is (c) 1 kW
increased, which of the following
(d) 2 kW
statement is/are correct ?
49. Choose the correct output waveform
(i) Starting current decreases for the circuit shown below :
(ii) Power factor decreases
(iii) Magnetizing current increases
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii) (a)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i),(ii) and (iii)
(b)
46. The rotor power input of a 3-phase
induction motor is 15 kW and the
corresponding slip is 4%. The rotor
copper loss is (c)
(a) 600 W
(b) 625 W
(c) 650 W (d)
(d) 700 W
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (D–8)
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50. A transistor is said to be in a quiescent 53. A triangle to square wave generator
state when uses
(a) It is unbiased (a) A sine wave oscillation and a
(b) No currents are flowing comparator
(c) Emitter junction bias is equal to (b) An integrator and a comparator
collector junction bias (c) A differentiator and a comparator
(d) No signal is applied to the input (d) A sine wave oscillator and a
clipper
51. In the circuit shown below, the zener
diode has a knee current of 5 mA and a 54. What is the output of the circuit shown
maximum allowed power dissipation of below
240 mW. What are the minimum and
maximum load currents that can be
drawn safely from the circuit, keeping
the output voltage Vo at 6 V ?
(a) 3Vs
1
(a) 0 mA, 180 mA (b) Vs
3
(b) 5 mA, 110 mA
(c) 4Vs
(c) 20 mA, 55 mA
(d) Vs
(d) 60 mA, 180 mA
52. The ripple factor of a power supply is 55. Universal gates are
given by (a) XOR, NAND and OR
(b) OR, NOT and XOR
Pdc
(a) (c) NOR, NAND and XNOR
Pac
(d) NOR and NAND
2
I rms
(b) – 1 56. Minimum number of NAND and NOR
I dc
gates required to implement the
2 function XOR gate, respectively is
I dc
(c) – 1 (a) 5, 4
I rms
(b) 4, 4
I dc (c) 5, 5
(d)
I rms (d) 4, 5
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 (D–9)
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57. A full scale output of a DAC is 10 mA. 60. A 3-phase, 11 kV, 50 Hz, 200 kW load
If the resolution is to be less than has a power factor of 0·8 lag. A delta
40 A, the required bits are connected 3 phase capacitor is used to
(a) 4 improve the power factor to unity. The
capacitance per phase of the capacitor
(b) 8
in microfarads is
(c) 10 (a) 3·948
(d) 12 (b) 1·316
(c) 0·439
58. An overhead line having a surge (d) 11·844
impedance of 400 is connected in
series with an underground cable 61. A 10 KVA, 400 V/200 V single phase
having a surge impedance of 100 . If transformer with 10% impedance
a surge of 50 KV travels from the line draws a steady state short circuit line
end towards the line cable junction, current of
the value of the transmitted voltage (a) 50 A
wave at the junction will be (b) 150 A
(a) 30 KV (c) 250 A
(d) 350 A
(b) 20 KV
(c) 80 KV
62. In protection of transformers,
(d) – 30 KV harmonic restraint is used to guard
against
59. In a DC transmission line (a) Magnetizing inrush current
(a) It is necessary for the sending (b) Unbalanced operation
end and the receiving end to be (c) Lightning
operated in synchronism (d) Switching over-voltages
(b) The effects of inductive and
capacitive reactances are greater 63. A 240 V single-phase ac source is
than in an AC transmission line connected to a load with an impedance
of the same rating of 10 60o ohms. A capacitor is
connected in parallel with the load. If
(c) There are no effects due to
the capacitor supplies 1250 VAR, the
inductive and capacitive
real power supplied by the source is
reactances
(a) 3600 W
(d) Power transfer capability is (b) 2880 W
limited by stability (c) 2400 W
considerations
(d) 1200 W
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( D – 10 )
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64. Which gas is sometimes used in 68. The hysteresis loop of a magnetic
filament lamps ? material has an area of 5 cm2
(a) Nitrogen with scales given as 1 cm = 2 AT and
1 cm = 50 mWb. At 50 Hz, the total
(b) Carbon dioxide
hysteresis loss is
(c) Argon (a) 15 W
(d) Krypton (b) 20 W
(c) 25 W
65. If an unbalanced supply is given to a (d) 50 W
3-phase delta-connected induction
motor, it will cause 69. An electric motor with ‘constant output
(a) Zero sequence currents power’ will have a torque speed
(b) Less heating of the rotor characteristics in the form of a
(a) Straight line through origin
(c) Negative sequence component
current (b) Straight line parallel to speed
axis
(d) All of the above
(c) Circle about the origin
(d) Rectangular hyperbola
66. The magnetizing current in a
transformer is rich in
70. If an energy meter disc makes
(a) 3rd harmonic 10 revolutions in 100 seconds when a
(b) 5th harmonic load of 450 W is connected to it, the
(c) 7th harmonic meter constant (in rev/kWh) is
(a) 1000
(d) 13th harmonic
(b) 500
(c) 1600
67. The compensating winding of a dc
(d) 800
machine
(a) Is located in armature slots for
71. A moving iron ammeter produces a full
compensation of armature
scale torque of 240 μNm with a
reaction
deflection of 120 at a current of 10 A.
(b) Is located on commutating poles The rate of change of
for improving the commutation self-inductance (μH/radian) of the
(c) Is located on pole shoes for instrument at full scale is
avoiding the flashover at (a) 2·0 μH/radian
commutator surface (b) 4·8 μH/radian
(d) Is located on pole shoes for (c) 12·0 μH/radian
compensating armature reaction (d) 114·6 μH/radian
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( D – 11 )
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72. A voltmeter gives 180 oscillations per 76. Wagner’s earth devices are used in
minute when connected to the rotor of AC bridge circuits for
an induction motor. The stator (a) eliminating the effect of earth
frequency is 60 Hz. The slip of the capacitances
motor is (b) eliminating the effect of
(a) 0·04 inter component capacitances
(b) 0·02 (c) eliminating the effect of stray
(c) 0·06 electrostatic fields
(d) 0·05 (d) shielding the bridge elements
73. For harnessing low variable water 77. Heaviside-Campbell Equal Ratio
head the suitable hydraulic turbine bridge is used for measuring
with reaction and adjustable vanes is (a) self-inductance in terms of
(a) Francis mutual inductance
(b) Impeller (b) capacitance in terms of
inductance
(c) Kaplan
(c) dielectric loss of an imperfect
(d) Pelton
capacitor
(d) phase angle of a coil
74. The standardization of
AC potentiometers is done by
78. In practice, earth is chosen as a place
(a) directly using AC standard
of zero electric potential because it
voltage sources
(a) is non-conducting
(b) using DC standard sources and
transfer instruments (b) is easily available
(c) using DC standard sources and (c) keeps losing and gaining electric
d’Arsonaval galvanometer charge every day
(d) using AC standard sources and (d) has almost constant potential
transfer instruments
79. The reactance offered by a capacitor to
75. A Wheatstone bridge cannot be used alternating current of frequency 50 Hz
for precision measurement because is 10 . If frequency is increased to
errors are introduced on account of 100 Hz, reactance becomes _____ ohm.
(a) resistance of connecting leads (a) 20
(b) thermo electric emfs (b) 5
(c) contact resistances (c) 2·5
(d) All of the above (d) 40
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( D – 12 )
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80. Which of the following harmonic 84. While starting a 3-phase synchronous
voltage components in a 3-phase motor, its field winding should be
system would be in phase with each (a) Kept open
other ? (b) Short-circuited
(a) 3rd, 9th, 15th, etc. (c) Connected to a DC source
(b) 7th, 13th, 19th, etc. (d) None of the above
(c) 5th, 11th, 17th, etc.
(d) 2nd, 4th, 6th, etc. 85. A synchronous machine has full-pitch
coils having a coil-span of 12 slots.
81. A synchronous generator is feeding a For eliminating third harmonic, the
zero power factor load (lagging) at coil-span should be
rated current. The armature reaction (a) 10 slots
is
(b) 9 slots
(a) Magnetizing
(c) 8 slots
(b) Demagnetizing
(d) 6 slots
(c) Cross magnetizing
(d) Ineffective
86. For eliminating 5th harmonic from the
e.m.f generated in the phase of a
82. In pump storage hydro power plant the
3-phase alternator, the chording angle
electrical machine is made to work
alternatively as generator and motor. should be
The efficiency of the generator working (a) 36 degree
at the same electric power level is (b) 18 degree
(a) Greater than that as motor (c) 30 degree
(b) Equal to that as motor (d) 45 degree
(c) Less than that as motor
(d) Greater or less than that as 87. A DC shunt motor runs at
motor depending on the type of 500 rev/min when 200 V is applied
the machine across it. The armature resistance is
0·5 and the armature current is
83. In a super heater 30 A. Calculate the series resistance
(a) Pressure rises and temperature that must be inserted in series with
drops the armature to reduce the motor
(b) Temperature rises and pressure speed to 300 rpm with same armature
drops current.
(c) Temperature rises and pressure (a) 1·54
remains unchanged
(b) 3·48
(d) Pressure rises and temperature
(c) 1·0
remains the same
(d) 2·46
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( D – 13 )
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88. A single-phase, 22 kVA, 2200 V/ 220 V, 92. If power P available from a
50 Hz, distribution transformer is to hydro-scheme is given by the formula
be connected as an auto-transformer P = 9·81 QH, where Q is the flow rate
to get an output voltage of 2420 V. through the turbine in 1/s and H is the
Its maximum kVA rating as an head in meter, then P will be in unit of
auto-transformer is
(a) W
(a) 220 kVA
(b) HP
(b) 242 kVA
(c) kJ/s
(c) 142 kVA
(d) kWh
(d) 22 kVA
93. The overall efficiency of a thermal
89. Zero voltage regulation in transformer power station is equal to
occurs at (a) that of Rankine cycle
(a) Unity power factor load (b) that of regenerative cycle
(b) No load (c) that of binary vapour cycle
(c) Lagging power load (d) product of boiler efficiency,
(d) Leading power factor load turbine efficiency and generator
efficiency
90. In a DC machine, the demagnetizing
effect of armature reaction is due to 94. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant
(a) Component of armature m.m.f is less than that of a conventional fuel
along field axis fired thermal plant because of
(b) Non-sinusoidal nature of (a) less rejection of heat in condenser
armature m.m.f (b) higher temperature condition
(c) Magnetic saturation in half of the (c) higher pressure conditions
field pole (d) low temperature and pressure
(d) Uneven air-gap length conditions
91. Which of the following equipment is 95. An op-amp shunt regulator differs
used to limit short-circuited current from the series regulator in the sense
level in a substation ? that its control element is connected in
(a) Isolator (a) series with line resistor
(b) Lightning switch (b) parallel with line resistor
(c) Coupling capacitor (c) parallel with load resistor
(d) Series reactor (d) parallel with input voltage
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( D – 14 )
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96. The purpose of coating the fluorescent SECTION B
tube from inside with white powder is
101. A, B, C and D play a game of cards. A
(a) to improve its life
says to B, “ If I give you 8 cards, you
(b) to improve the appearance
will have as many as C has and I shall
(c) to change the colour of light
have 3 less than what C has. Also, if I
emitted to white
take 6 cards from C, I shall have twice
(d) to increase the light radiations
as many as D has.” If B and D together
due to secondary emissions
have 50 cards, how many cards does C
97. The function of moderator in nuclear have ?
reactor is (a) 40
(a) to absorb excess neutrons (b) 37
(b) to increase the energy of the (c) 27
neutron (d) 23
(c) to slow down the neutron
102. Choose the alternative which closely
(d) None of the above
resembles the water image of the given
98. If generating station is situated very combination/figure.
close to the load center, the penalty ADVANCE
factor for this unit is
(a)
(a) Zero
(b)
(b) Almost unity
(c) Negative (c)
(d) Very high (d) None of the above
99. Generators for power plants to supply Directions for the following 3 (three)
exclusively peak loads are usually questions :
designed for maximum efficiency to
occur at Read the following information and answer
(a) Full load the three questions that follow :
(b) 50 to 75% full load Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared
(c) 25 to 50% full load in several tests. Either C or F scores the
(d) 10% full load highest. Whenever C scores the highest,
then E scores the least. Whenever F scores
100. Zener diodes are used primarily as
the highest, B scores the least. In all the
(a) rectifiers
tests they got different marks; D scores
(b) voltage regulators
higher than A, but they are close
(c) oscillators
competitors; A scores higher than B; C
(d) amplifiers
scores higher than A.
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( D – 15 )
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103. If F stands second in the ranking, then 107. Which two signs need to be
the position of B is interchanged to make the given
equation correct ?
(a) Third
(b) Fourth 100 ÷ 10 × 100 – 10 + 100 = 910
(c) Fifth
(d) Sixth
(a) + and ÷
104. If B scores the least, the rank of C will (b) ÷ and ×
be
(c) + and –
(a) Second
(d) × and –
(b) Third
(c) Fourth
108. The ratio of the present ages of Rajiv
(d) Second or third and Sanjiv is 2 : 3. After five years,
Rajiv will be 31 years old. What will be
105. If E is ranked third, then which one of the age of Sanjiv after 3 years ?
the following is correct ?
(a) 39 years
(a) E gets more marks than C
(b) 29 years
(b) C gets more marks than E (c) 42 years
(c) A is ranked fourth (d) 45 years
(d) D is ranked fifth
109. Two trains of respective lengths 160 m
106. Find the number which replaces the and 200 m travel at the speeds of 48 m
question mark : per second and 52 m per second
respectively in opposite direction to
each other. What is the total time
taken by them to cross each other ?
(a) 3·6 seconds
(a) 15 (b) 4·5 seconds
(b) 25 (c) 4·8 seconds
(c) 20 (d) 5·4 seconds
(d) 40
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( D – 16 )
Text of page 77
110. Match the following : 114. The first-ever Ministerial Conference
Navigation Satellite Country on Women Empowerment was held in
System Name
(a) France
A. Global Positioning 1. Russia
System
(b) Sweden
B. BeiDou 2. India
C. GLONASS 3. China (c) The Netherlands
D. GAGAN 4. USA
(d) Italy
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
115. The vector responsible for
(b) 3 4 2 1
leishmaniasis is
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 4 1 3 (a) Mosquito
111. Who is the Chairman of the fourteenth
(b) Fruit flies
Finance Commission ?
(a) Abhijit Sen (c) Tsetse flies
(b) A.M. Khusro
(c) N.K. Singh (d) Sandflies
(d) Y.V. Reddy
112. Which among the following was the 116. Which country has reportedly
first State to establish Panchayati conducted Hypersonic Weapon Test ?
Raj ?
(a) Russia
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala (b) China
(c) Gujarat
(c) North Korea
(d) Rajasthan
(d) France
113. The Chenchu people in India have
been active in protection of wildlife in 117. Covaxin, the vaccine for corona virus,
which of the following protected areas is manufactured by which one of the
of India ? following companies ?
(a) Nagarjunasagar Srisailam
(Andhra Pradesh) (a) Bharat Biotech
(b) Similipal (Odisha)
(b) Pfizer
(c) Indravati, Udanti-Sitanadi
(Chhattisgarh) (c) Cadilla Labs
(d) Palamu (Jharkhand)
(d) Dr. Reddy’s
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( D – 17 )
Text of page 78
118. In which State of India has the first
emergency landing facility on National
120. A dealer paid a car manufacturer
Highway stretch been established ?
< 1,35,000 for a car. What should be
(a) Madhya Pradesh the selling price of the car, if after
(b) Gujarat allowing the buyer 10% discount on
the selling price, he made a profit of
(c) Uttar Pradesh
8% on his outlay ?
(d) Rajasthan
(a) < 1,50,000
(b) < 1,60,000
(c) < 1,62,000
119. Ryder Cup is associated with which
game/sport ? (d) < 1,52,500
(a) Ice Hockey
(b) Polo
(c) Golf
(d) Chess
JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( D – 18 )
Text of page 79
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( D – 19 )
Text of page 80
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Electrical)/SO (Electrical) 2021 ( D – 20 )
Text of page 1
PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
RECRUITMENT TO VARIOUS POSTS OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (ELECTRICAL)
IN VARIOUS DEPARTMENTS,GOVERNMENT OF PUNJAB.
JOINT COMPETITIVE EXAM DATE: 19/12/2021 REVISED ANSWER KEY SET - [A]
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 31 C 61 C 91 A
2 B 32 C 62 B 92 D
3 B 33 D 63 C 93 B
4 B 34 D 64 A 94 A
5 C 35 B 65 D 95 C
6 D 36 B 66 B 96 A
7 B 37 C 67 D 97 C
8 A 38 B 68 C 98 D
9 A 39 C 69 D 99 B
10 C 40 A 70 A 100 D
11 C 41 B 71 D 101 C
12 C 42 C 72 D 102 D
13 A 43 C 73 A 103 D
14 D 44 A 74 D 104 A
15 D 45 D 75 C 105 D
16 A 46 C 76 B 106 D
17 C 47 D 77 B 107 B
18 B 48 D 78 B 108 A
19 A 49 B 79 A 109 D
20 D 50 D 80 B 110 C
21 D 51 C 81 C 111 C
22 D 52 B 82 A 112 *
23 B 53 D 83 D 113 B
24 A 54 A 84 A 114 C
25 B 55 A 85 D 115 D
26 B 56 D 86 D 116 B
27 A 57 B 87 A 117 C
28 D 58 A 88 B 118 C
29 C 59 B 89 D 119 C
30 B 60 C 90 B 120 A
Sd/-
DATE : February 02, 2022 SECRETARY [ EXAMINATIONS ]
Text of page 2
PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
RECRUITMENT TO VARIOUS POSTS OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (ELECTRICAL)
IN VARIOUS DEPARTMENTS,GOVERNMENT OF PUNJAB.
JOINT COMPETITIVE EXAM DATE: 19/12/2021 REVISED ANSWER KEY SET - [B]
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 31 C 61 A 91 D
2 C 32 B 62 D 92 D
3 D 33 C 63 B 93 B
4 D 34 A 64 A 94 A
5 B 35 D 65 C 95 B
6 B 36 B 66 A 96 B
7 C 37 D 67 C 97 A
8 B 38 C 68 D 98 D
9 C 39 D 69 B 99 C
10 A 40 A 70 D 100 B
11 B 41 D 71 C 101 D
12 C 42 D 72 B 102 C
13 C 43 A 73 B 103 C
14 A 44 D 74 B 104 *
15 D 45 C 75 C 105 B
16 C 46 B 76 D 106 C
17 D 47 B 77 B 107 D
18 D 48 B 78 A 108 B
19 B 49 A 79 A 109 C
20 D 50 B 80 C 110 C
21 C 51 C 81 C 111 C
22 B 52 A 82 C 112 A
23 D 53 D 83 A 113 C
24 A 54 A 84 D 114 D
25 A 55 D 85 D 115 D
26 D 56 D 86 A 116 A
27 B 57 A 87 C 117 D
28 A 58 B 88 B 118 D
29 B 59 D 89 A 119 B
30 C 60 B 90 D 120 A
Sd/-
DATE : February 02, 2022 SECRETARY [ EXAMINATIONS ]
Text of page 3
PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
RECRUITMENT TO VARIOUS POSTS OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (ELECTRICAL)
IN VARIOUS DEPARTMENTS,GOVERNMENT OF PUNJAB.
JOINT COMPETITIVE EXAM DATE: 19/12/2021 REVISED ANSWER KEY SET - [C]
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 31 D 61 B 91 C
2 C 32 A 62 B 92 D
3 A 33 D 63 B 93 D
4 D 34 C 64 C 94 B
5 C 35 B 65 D 95 B
6 D 36 B 66 B 96 C
7 D 37 B 67 A 97 B
8 B 38 A 68 A 98 C
9 D 39 B 69 C 99 A
10 C 40 C 70 C 100 B
11 B 41 A 71 C 101 D
12 D 42 D 72 A 102 D
13 A 43 A 73 D 103 B
14 A 44 D 74 D 104 A
15 D 45 D 75 A 105 D
16 B 46 A 76 C 106 C
17 A 47 B 77 B 107 C
18 B 48 D 78 A 108 *
19 C 49 B 79 D 109 B
20 C 50 A 80 D 110 C
21 B 51 D 81 D 111 D
22 C 52 B 82 B 112 B
23 A 53 A 83 A 113 C
24 D 54 C 84 B 114 C
25 B 55 A 85 B 115 C
26 D 56 C 86 A 116 A
27 C 57 D 87 D 117 C
28 D 58 B 88 C 118 D
29 A 59 D 89 B 119 D
30 D 60 C 90 C 120 A
Sd/-
DATE : February 02, 2022 SECRETARY [ EXAMINATIONS ]
Text of page 4
PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
RECRUITMENT TO VARIOUS POSTS OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (ELECTRICAL)
IN VARIOUS DEPARTMENTS,GOVERNMENT OF PUNJAB.
JOINT COMPETITIVE EXAM DATE: 19/12/2021 REVISED ANSWER KEY SET - [D]
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 A 31 A 61 C 91 D
2 B 32 C 62 A 92 A
3 C 33 C 63 B 93 D
4 A 34 C 64 C 94 D
5 D 35 A 65 C 95 A
6 A 36 D 66 A 96 D
7 D 37 D 67 D 97 C
8 D 38 A 68 C 98 B
9 A 39 C 69 D 99 B
10 B 40 B 70 D 100 B
11 D 41 A 71 B 101 *
12 B 42 D 72 D 102 B
13 A 43 D 73 C 103 C
14 D 44 D 74 B 104 D
15 B 45 B 75 D 105 B
16 A 46 A 76 A 106 C
17 C 47 B 77 A 107 C
18 A 48 B 78 D 108 C
19 C 49 A 79 B 109 A
20 D 50 D 80 A 110 C
21 B 51 C 81 B 111 D
22 D 52 B 82 C 112 D
23 C 53 C 83 C 113 A
24 B 54 C 84 B 114 D
25 B 55 D 85 C 115 D
26 B 56 D 86 A 116 B
27 C 57 B 87 D 117 A
28 D 58 B 88 B 118 D
29 B 59 C 89 D 119 C
30 A 60 B 90 C 120 C
Sd/-
DATE : February 02, 2022 SECRETARY [ EXAMINATIONS ]Page 1 of 80
Source: Punjab Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Punjab Public Service Commission.