PPSC JE 2021: All papers, Junior Engineer (Mechanical)
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JE (Mechanical) 2021 (A–1)
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SECTION A 6. Zn and Mg have the following crystal
structure
1. The length in isometric drawing of line
is 25 cm. What is the true length of it ? (a) B.C.C.
(a) 33·77 cm
(b) F.C.C.
(b) 32·45 cm
(c) Diamond Cubic
(c) 30·68 cm
(d) 24·53 cm (d) H.C.P
2. What type of material is Gold ?
(a) Ferroelectric 7. A block of mass m rests on an inclined
(b) Ferromagnetic plane and is attached by a string to the
(c) Diamagnetic wall as shown in the figure. The
coefficient of static friction between the
(d) Paramagnetic
plane and the block is 0·5. The string
3. Austenite decomposes into ferrite and can withstand a maximum force of
cementite at a temperature of 30 N. What is the maximum value of
(a) 727 C mass (m) for which the string will not
break and the block will be in static
(b) 1148 C
equilibrium ?
(c) 1495 C
cos θ = 0.8, sin θ = 0·6, g = 10 m/s2.
(d) 1539 C
4. A steel with 0·8% carbon and
100% pearlite is called
(a) Eutectoid steel
(b) Hypo-eutectoid steel
(c) Hyper eutectoid steel
(d) Pro-eutectoid steel
5. Brass is an alloy of (a) 5 kg
(a) Copper and Zinc
(b) 10 kg
(b) Copper and Tin
(c) Copper, Tin and Zinc (c) 15 kg
(d) None of the above (d) 20 kg
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (A–2)
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8. A stone of mass m at the end of a 12. Pyrometer is used to measure the
string of length Ɩ is whirled in a temperature of
vertical circle at a constant speed. The (a) Furnace
tension in the string will be maximum
(b) Human body
when the stone is
(c) Environment
(a) At the top of the circle (d) Ice
(b) Half way down from the top
13. Swaging is an operation of
(c) Quarter way down from the top
(a) Hot rolling
(d) At the bottom of the circle
(b) Forging
(c) Extrusion
9. A radius gauge is also known as
(d) Piercing
(a) Fillet gauge
(b) Snap gauge 14. The operation of producing cup shaped
parts from flat sheet metal blanks by
(c) Feeler gauge
bending and plastic flow of metal is
(d) Slip gauge known as
(a) Coining
10. An error of 5% occurred during the
(b) Planishing
measurement of the dia of a cylindrical
(c) Squeezing
part. The likely error in the calculated
weight of the part is approximately (d) Drawing
(a) 10%
15. Pinch effect in welding is the result of
(b) 5% (a) Surface tension of the molten
(c) 1% metal
(b) Shielding
(d) 7·5%
(c) Expansion of gases in the arc
11. The algebraic difference between (d) Electromagnetic forces
upper and lower range value of the
instrument is called 16. The distance from the joint root to the
toe of the weld is called
(a) Span
(a) Face
(b) Range
(b) Leg
(c) Error (c) Effective throat
(d) Sensitivity (d) Actual throat
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (A–3)
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17. A plate 50 mm wide and 12.5 mm thick 21. A straight teeth slab milling cutter of
is to be welded to another plate by 100 mm diameter and 10 teeth
means of parallel fillet welds. The rotating at 200 r.p.m. is used to
plates are subjected to a load of 50 kN. remove a layer of 3 mm thickness from
If allowable shear strength is to be a steel bar. If the table feed is
56 MPa, then the length of the weld 400 mm/minute, the feed per tooth in
will be this operation will be
(a) 51·5 mm
(a) 0.2 mm
(b) 50·5 mm
(c) 49·5 mm (b) 0.4 mm
(d) 52·5 mm (c) 0.5 mm
18. In arc welding operation, the current (d) 0.6 mm
value is decided by
(a) Thickness of plate 22. The gauge pressure inside a raindrop
(b) Length of welded portion of diameter d1 and surface tension σ1 is
(c) Voltage across the arc P1. For the same gauge pressure inside
(d) Size of the electrode a drop of diameter d2 = 2d1, what will
be the value of surface tension σ2 ?
19. Two stainless steel foils of 0·1 mm (a) σ1 = σ2
thickness are to be joined. Which of the
following would be best suited ? (b) σ1 = 2σ2
(a) Gas welding
(c) 2σ1 = σ2
(b) TIG welding
(c) MIG welding (d) 4σ1 = σ2
(d) Plasma welding
23. When can a piezometer not be used for
20. Find the tool life equation, if a tool life pressure measurement in pipes ?
at 80 min is obtained at a cutting
speed of 30 m/min and 8 min at (a) The pressure difference is low
60 m/min
(b) The velocity is high
(a) VT0·3 = C
(c) The fluid in the pipe is a gas
(b) VT0·7 = C
(c) VT0·5 = C (d) The fluid in the pipe is highly
(d) VT0·4 = C viscous
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (A–4)
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24. Impulse turbines are 28. Two beams, one having square
(a) Low head and low specific speed cross-section and another circular
turbine cross-section, are subjected to the
same amount of bending moment. If
(b) Low head and high specific speed
the cross-sectional area as well as the
turbine
material of both the beams are the
(c) High head and high specific speed same then
turbine (a) Maximum bending stress
(d) High head and low specific speed developed in both the beams is
turbine the same
(b) The circular beam experiences
25. The discharge through a single acting more bending stress than the
reciprocating pump is square one
(c) The square beam experiences
(a) Q = ALN
more bending stress than the
(b) Q = ALN/60 circular one
(c) Q = 2ALN/60 (d) As the material is same both the
beams will experience same
(d) Q = 2ALN deformation
26. In terms of Poisson’s ratio (µ), the ratio 29. A solid circular shaft of 5 cm diameter
of Young’s Modulus (E) to Shear transmits a torque of 1·5 kNm. The
Modulus (G) of elastic materials is value of maximum shear stress
(a) 2 (1 – µ) developed is
(b) 2 (1 + µ) (a) 37·72 MPa
1 (b) 52·47 MPa
(c) (1 + µ)
2 (c) 61·12 MPa
1 (d) 76·72 MPa
(d) (1 – µ)
2
27. A shaft with a circular cross-section is 30. At which point on stress-strain graph,
subjected to pure twisting moment. does the specimen undergo an
The ratio of the maximum shear stress appreciable increase in length without
to the largest principal stress is further increase in load ?
(a) 2·0 (a) Limit of proportionality point
(b) Yield point
(b) 1·0
(c) Elastic limit point
(c) 0·5
(d) Ultimate stress point
(d) 0
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (A–5)
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31. Rankine’s formula applicable to any 35. Under stable equilibrium, no
column is substance can exist in the liquid state
(a) PR = PC + PE (a) At temperature below the triple
point temperature
(b) PR = 1/(PC + PE) (b) At pressure below the triple point
pressure
(c) (1/PR) = (1/PC) + (1/PE)
(c) At pressure above the triple point
(d) 1/PR = (1/PC) + PE pressure
(d) At temperature above the triple
point temperature
32. For steady incompressible flow
through an insulated horizontal
constant diameter pipe, which of the 36. Forced draught fans of a large steam
following properties remains constant? generator have
(a) Backward curved blades
(a) Volume
(b) Forward curved blades
(b) Enthalpy (c) Straight or radial blades
(c) Entropy (d) Double curved blades
(d) Internal energy
37. Match List-I (Boilers) with List-II
(Type/Description) and select the
33. The number of components (C),
correct answer using the codes given
phases (P) and degree of freedom (F)
below.
are related by Gibbs’s phase as
List-I List-II
(a) P–F=C–2
(Boiler) (Type/Description )
(b) P+F=C–2 A. Lancashire 1. Horizontal straight
tube, fire-tube boiler
(c) P+F+C=2 B. Benson 2. Horizontal straight
tube, water-tube
(d) P=C–F+2 boiler
C. Babcock and 3. Bent tube, water tube
Wilcox boiler
34. The specific volume of water when
D. Stirling 4. High pressure boiler
heated from 273·15 K
(a) First increases and then
Codes :
decreases
A B C D
(b) First decreases and then
(a) 4 2 1 3
increases
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) Steadily increases
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) Steadily decreases (d) 1 4 3 2
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (A–6)
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38. Which of the following are boiler 41. The two reference fuels used for cetane
mountings ? rating are
1. Fusible plug (a) Cetane and iso-octane
2. Blow-off valve (b) Cetane and tetraethyl lead
3. Steam trap (c) Cetane and n-heptane
4. Feed check valve
(d) Cetane and α-methyl
Select the correct answer using the naphthalene
code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4 42. By higher octane number of SI fuel, it
is meant that the fuel has
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(a) Higher heating value
(d) 1, 2 and 4
(b) Higher flash point
(c) Lower volatility
39. Thermal boundary layer is a region
where (d) Longer ignition delay
(a) Heat dissipation is negligible
(b) Heat dissipation is infinity
43. Diesel knock can be reduced by
(c) Inertia and convection are of the
same order of magnitude 1. Increasing the compression ratio
(d) Convection and dissipation terms 2. Increasing the engine speed
are of the same order of 3. Increasing the injection retard
magnitude 4. Decreasing the inlet air
temperature
Which of these statements are
40. What is the value of Nusselt number correct ?
at the entry of a heated plate ?
(a) Only 2 and 4
(a) Zero
(b) Only 1, 2 and 3
(b) 4·36
(c) 3·66 (c) Only 1 and 3
(d) Infinity (d) All of the above
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (A–7)
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44. In a pulley and belt drive, the velocity 47. If two nodes are observed at a
of belt for maximum power frequency of 900 rpm during whirling
transmission is of simply supported long slender
rotating shaft, the first critical speed of
T the shaft in rpm is
(a)
m
(a) 100
m (b) 200
(b)
T
(c) 300
T (d) 400
(c)
3m
48. A differential gear in an automobile is
3m
(d) a/an
T
(a) Simple gear train
(b) Speed reducer
45. The equilibrium speed of a governor (c) Compound gear train
varies from 35 rpm to 25 rpm. Find the
(d) Epicyclic gear train
sensitiveness of the governor.
(a) 0·13 49. Calculate the length of the scale
required to measure up to 25 km with
(b) 0·23
the representative factor 1 : 50000.
(c) 0·33
(a) 5 10–4 cm
(d) 0·43 (b) 50 cm
(c) 5 cm
46. A vibratory system consists of a mass (d) 0·5 cm
12 kg, a spring of stiffness 1200 N/m,
and a dashpot with damping 50. The side view, top view and front view
coefficient of 12 Ns/m. The value of of a regular pentagonal prism placed
critical damping (Ns/m) and damping axis perpendicular to vertical plane
ratio respectively of the system are are
(a) 0·24 and 0·04 (a) rectangle, rectangle and pentagon
(b) pentagon, rectangle and rectangle
(b) 24 and 0·04
(c) pentagon, rectangle and pentagon
(c) 240 and 0·05
(d) rectangle, pentagon and rectangle
(d) 2400 and 0·05
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (A–8)
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51. The soft solder used for soldering 55. An object of mass 2 kg is sliding with a
process contains _________ percent of constant velocity of 4 m/s on a
lead. frictionless horizontal table. The force
(a) 50 required to keep the object moving
with the same velocity is
(b) 75
(a) 32 N
(c) 99
(d) 30 (b) 8N
(c) 16 N
52. For hypoeutectoid steels, the
normalizing process is done by heating (d) 0N
the steel __________ its upper critical
temperature.
56. With what principle does the
(a) 30C – 40C above
Taylor-Hobson-Talysurf tester work
(b) 30C – 40C below for the measurement of surface
(c) 50C – 60C above roughness ?
(d) 50C – 60C below (a) Capacitive demodulating
principle
53. Thermosetting plastics are formed by
(b) Intensity modulating principle
(a) Step polymerization
(c) Inductive modulating principle
(b) Suspension polymerization
(c) Emulsion polymerization (d) Carrier modulating principle
(d) Co-ordination polymerization
57. Under optimal conditions of the
54. If the tension in a cable supporting a
process the temperature experienced
lift moving upwards is twice the
by a copper work piece in fusion
tension when the lift is moving
welding, brazing and soldering are
downwards, the acceleration of the lift
such that
in terms of acceleration due to gravity
‘g’ is given by (a) Twelding > Tsoldering > Tbrazing
(a) g (b) Tsoldering > Twelding > Tbrazing
(b) g/2 (c) Twelding > Tbrazing > Tsoldering
(c) g/3
(d) Tbrazing > Tsoldering > Twelding
(d) g/4
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (A–9)
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58. The type of metal forming process used 62. A body is subjected to a tensile stress
for making the short length tubes like of 1200 MPa on one plane and another
tooth paste tube and gun shells are tensile stress of 600 MPa on a plane at
manufactured by right angles to the former. It is also
(a) Hydrostatic extrusion subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa
on the same planes. The maximum
(b) Indirect extrusion
normal stress will be
(c) Direct extrusion
(a) 400 MPa
(d) Continuous extrusion
(b) 500 MPa
(c) 900 MPa
59. What is the range of percent of the
(d) 1400 MPa
abrasives recommended in general for
abrasive slurry during ultrasonic 63. The expression EI d2y/dx2 at a section
machining process ? of a member represents for analyzing
(a) 10 – 15% the beams
(b) 15 – 20% (a) Shearing force
(c) 25 – 30% (b) Rate of loading
(d) 30 – 35% (c) Bending moment
(d) Slope
60. Mercury is considered as the best
liquid to be used for pressure 64. The equation for polytropic index can
measuring device manometers because be calculated by
it has
(a) ln(P2/P1)/ln(V2/V1)
(a) low vapour pressure and high
density (b) ln(V2/V1)/ln(P2/P1)
(b) high vapour pressure and high (c) ln(P1/P2)/ln(V2/V1)
density
(d) ln(V2/V1)/ln(P1/P2)
(c) low surface tension
(d) high density and low viscosity 65. An inventor claims that his heat
engine has the following specifications:
Power developed = 50 kW; Fuel burnt
61. The mean effective pressure of diesel
per hour = 3 kg; Temperature
cycle for the fixed compression ratio
limits = 627C and 27C. The engine
will increase if the cut off ratio
operation is
(a) Increases first and then decreases
(a) Possible
(b) Decreases (b) Impossible
(c) Remains same (c) Ideal
(d) Increases (d) Expensive
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( A – 10 )
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66. The following is considered as best 70. The un-sprung mass in a vehicle
antifreeze solution system is mainly composed of
(a) Ethylene glycol
(a) Axle and the parts attached to it
(b) Distilled glycerine
(c) Methanol (b) Gear box and propeller shaft
(d) Denatured alcohol
(c) Engine and its associated parts
67. If the rotating mass of a rim type (d) The frame assembly
flywheel is distributed on another rim
type flywheel whose radius is half the
mean radius of the former, then energy 71. Dimension line is
stored in the latter at the same speed
(a) Chain thin
will be
(a) four times the first one (b) Continuous thick
(b) same as the first one (c) Zigzag
(c) one-fourth of the first one
(d) Continuous thin
(d) one and half times of the first one
68. In a vibrating system the spring
stiffness has 32 N/m and the mass is 72. Hatching lines are drawn at an angle
2 kg. The system is having a damper of _______ degree to the main outline
whose coefficient of damping is of the section.
8 N-s/m. Then the system is said to be (a) 45
(a) Over damped system
(b) Under damped system (b) 60
(c) Undamped system (c) 75
(d) Critical damped system
(d) 15
69. The most and important function of a
suspension system in the automobile is
to 73. Grey cast iron has carbon percentage
(a) Ensure that the steering wheel in the range
can deliver the required steering
(a) 9 to 10 percent
(b) Ensure that wheel alignment is
not disturbed during driving
(b) 3 to 4 percent
(c) Automatically correct the effects
of over steering (c) 6 to 7 percent
(d) Absorb vibration and impact
forces from the road surface (d) 1 to 2 percent
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( A – 11 )
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74. The area under stress-strain curve up 78. Gimlet is a
to elastic limit indicates which
(a) Striking tool
mechanical property ?
(b) Boring tool
(a) Toughness
(c) Reaming tool
(b) Ductility
(d) Holding tool
(c) Resilience
(d) None of the above
79. The commonly used welding method
75. The resultant of two forces P and 2P, for welding of plastics is
acting at a point, is perpendicular to P. (a) Electron beam welding
The angle between the forces is
(b) Resistance welding
__________ degrees.
(a) 120 (c) Ultrasonic welding
(b) 90 (d) Arc welding
(c) 45
(d) 135
80. Difficulty faced during welding of
aluminium is mainly due to
76. The dimensions of shaft and hole are
40 00..010 0.020 (a) Low density
000 and 40 0.000 respectively.
The assembly will result in (b) High tendency of oxidation
(a) Drive fit (c) High thermal conductivity
(b) Transition fit
(d) Low melting point
(c) Interference fit
(d) Clearance fit
81. Helix angle of fast helix drill is
normally
77. Friction at the tool-chip interface can
be reduced by (a) 5 degrees
(a) Increasing the cutting speed (b) 35 degrees
(b) Increasing the depth of cut
(c) 90 degrees
(c) Decreasing the rake angle
(d) Decreasing the cutting speed (d) 60 degrees
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( A – 12 )
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82. The three types of hydraulic turbines, 85. The second moment of a circular area
in ascending order of flow rate are about the diameter is given by (D is
the diameter)
(a) Pelton, Francis, Kaplan
π D4
(b) Francis, Kaplan, Pelton (a)
64
(c) Pelton, Kaplan, Francis πD 4
(b)
(d) Kaplan, Francis, Pelton 16
πD 4
(c)
83. The pressure of a liquid flowing 32
through a pump is raised from 1 bar to πD 4
(d)
30 bar. The density of the liquid is 4
990 kg/m3. The isoentropic specific
work done by the pump in kJ/kg is 86. A thin cylinder of inner diameter
1000 mm and thickness 10 mm is
(a) 0·30
subjected to an internal pressure of
(b) 2·50 5 MPa. The average hoop stress in
(c) 2·93 MPa is
(a) 500
(d) 0·10
(b) 250
84. A beam is made up of two identical (c) 1000
bars AB and BC by hinging them at B. (d) 200
Ends A and C are simply supported.
With load P acting as shown, the 87. The maximum theoretical value of
bending moment at B is Poisson’s ratio is
(a) Infinity
(b) 1
(c) 0·707
(d) 0·5
88. The stress induced in a body due to
suddenly applied load compared to
when it is applied gradually is
(a) PL/4
(a) Same
(b) Zero (b) Half
(c) 3PL/4 (c) Two times
(d) PL (d) 2 times
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( A – 13 )
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89. Euler’s buckling theory is applicable 94. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good
for steam power plant is in the range of
(a) Medium long columns (a) 10% – 15%
(b) 55% – 60%
(b) Long columns
(c) 75% – 80%
(c) Short columns (d) 35% – 45%
(d) All of the above
95. The initial position and velocity of a
90. If the length of a column is doubled, simple harmonic oscillator are x0 = 4 m
the critical load becomes and v0 = 3 m/sec respectively. If the
(a) 1/4 of the original value amplitude is 5 m, then the angular
frequency of oscillation is ____ rad/sec.
(b) 1/16 of the original value
(a) 1
(c) 1/2 of the original value (b) 2
(d) 1/8 of the original value (c) 3
(d) Zero
91. Gas Turbine commonly works on
(a) Carnot cycle 96. The natural frequency of an undamped
vibrating system is 10 rad/sec. A
(b) Brayton cycle
damper with a damping factor of 0·6 is
(c) Otto cycle introduced into the system. The
(d) None of the above frequency of the damped system, in
rad/sec, is
92. Lancashire boiler is (a) 8
(b) 6
(a) Fire tube boiler
(c) 10
(b) Water tube boiler (d) 4
(c) Locomotive boiler
(d) High pressure boiler 97. A shaft runs at 40 rpm and drives
another shaft at 75 rpm through belt
drive. The diameter of the driving
93. Compression ratio for diesel engine
pulley is 600 mm. Neglecting belt
may have a range of
thickness and belt slip, the diameter of
(a) 16 to 20 the driven pulley is ____ mm.
(b) 10 to 15 (a) 160
(b) 320
(c) 8 to 10
(c) 640
(d) 6 to 8
(d) None of the above
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( A – 14 )
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98. The velocity ratio of two pulleys SECTION B
connected by an open belt or crossed
belt is 101. Match the following :
Nuclear Power State
(a) Inversely proportional to the Project
square of their diameters A. Narora 1. Uttar Pradesh
B. Kakrapar 2. Karnataka
(b) Directly proportional to the C. Kudankulam 3. Gujarat
square of their diameters D. Kaiga 4. Tamil Nadu
(c) Inversely proportional to their Codes :
A B C D
diameters
(a) 1 4 2 3
(d) Directly proportional to their (b) 1 3 4 2
diameters (c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 1 3 2 4
102. Banks classify the Non-Performing
99. In a spring mass system, if the mass is Assets (NPAs) in which of the
halved and the spring stiffness is following categories ?
doubled, the natural frequency is 1. Substandard assets
2. Doubtful assets
(a) Halved
3. Loss asset
(b) Doubled 4. Risky asset
Select the correct answer from the
(c) Unchanged code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Quadrupled
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
100. The type of gear train used in an
automobile differential is 103. The establishment of three-tier
Panchayati Raj System was originally
(a) Simple recommended by :
(a) Ashok Mehta Committee
(b) Compound
(b) The Royal Commission on
(c) Epicyclic Decentralization
(c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(d) Reverted (d) V.N. Gadgil Committee
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( A – 15 )
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104. What is “oilzapper” ? 107. The slogan “Complex Past: Diverse
(a) It is an eco-friendly technology Future” is with reference to
for the remediation of oily sludge (a) National Culture Day
and oil spills (b) National Ekta Divas
(b) It is the latest technology (c) World Heritage Day
developed for under-sea oil (d) Tourism Day
exploration
(c) It is a genetically engineered high 108. The first Indian woman cricketer to
biofuel-yielding maize variety score a century in Australia was
(d) It is the latest technology to (a) Mithali Raj
control the accidentally caused
(b) Deepti Sharma
flames from oil wells
(c) Smriti Mandhana
105. Consider the following statements: (d) Harmanpreet Kaur
Statement I :
The Bluetooth technology is a wireless 109. Harpoon, an all weather, anti-ship
alternative to data cables by missile system is sold to India by
exchanging data using radio (a) France
transmission. (b) Russia
Statement II :
(c) Israel
The second generation or 2G allowed
(d) USA
for the introduction of analog phones
such as SMS and email.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are 110. In which of the following activities are
correct ? Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites
used ?
(a) Only II
1. Telecommunications
(b) Only I
2. Traffic control
(c) Neither I nor II
3. Mineral exploration
(d) Both I and II
4. Locating ground water resources
5. Assessment of crop productivity
106. Which of the following diseases is/are
Select the correct answer from the
not caused by bacteria ?
code given below.
(a) Typhoid
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) Poliomyelitis (b) 4 and 5 only
(c) Tuberculosis (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) All of the above (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( A – 16 )
Text of page 17
111. A dealer paid a car manufacturer Directions for the following 3 (three)
< 1,35,000 for a car. What should be questions :
the selling price of the car, if after
allowing a buyer 10% discount on the Read the following information and answer
selling price, he made a profit of 8% on the three questions that follow :
his outlay ?
Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared
(a) < 1,50,000
in several tests. Either C or F score the
(b) < 1,60,000 highest. Whenever C scores the highest,
then E scores the least. Whenever F scores
(c) < 1,62,000 the highest, B scores the least. In all the
(d) < 1,52,500 tests they got different marks — D scores
higher than A, but they are close
competitors; A scores higher than B; C
112. A, B, C and D play a game of cards. A scores higher than A.
says to B, “ If I give you 8 cards, you
will have as many as C has and I shall 114. If F stands second in the ranking, then
have 3 less than what C has. Also, if I the position of B is
take 6 cards from C, I shall have twice (a) Third
as many as D has.” If B and D together (b) Fourth
have 50 cards, how many cards does C
(c) Fifth
have ?
(d) Sixth
(a) 40
(b) 37 115. If B scores the least, the rank of C will
be
(c) 27
(a) Second
(d) 23
(b) Third
(c) Fourth
113. Choose the alternative which closely
(d) Second or third
resembles the water image of the given
combination/figure.
116. If E is ranked third, then which one of
ADVANCE the following is correct ?
(a) (a) E gets more marks than C
(b) (b) C gets more marks than E
(c) (c) A is ranked fourth
(d) None of the above (d) D is ranked fifth
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( A – 17 )
Text of page 18
117. Find the number which replaces the 119. There are two numbers. When 20% of
question mark : the first number is added to the second
number, the resultant number is
1·4 times the first number. What is the
ratio between the two numbers ?
(a) 7:8
(a) 15
(b) 25 (b) 6:7
(c) 20 (c) 4:5
(d) 40 (d) 5:6
118. A bus leaves Amritsar at 5 am and 120. Select the option that will fill in the
reaches Chandigarh at 9 am. Another blank and complete the given series.
bus leaves Chandigarh at 7 am and 7, 26, 63, 124, 215, 342, 511, 728, ____.
reaches Amritsar at 10:30 am. At what
(a) 990
time do the buses cross each other ?
(a) 7:56 am (b) 1000
(b) 7 am (c) 1001
(c) 6:56 am (d) 999
(d) 6:24 am
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( A – 18 )
Text of page 19
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( A – 19 )
Text of page 20
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( A – 20 )
Text of page 21
Booklet Sr. No.
*0B*
Candidate’s Name ________________________________________________________
Father’s Name ____________________________________________________________
Date of Birth :
D D M M Y Y Y Y
OMR Response Sheet No. ____________________________________ Roll No. ___________________________
Candidate’s Signature : Total Questions : 120]
(Please sign in the box) Time Allowed : 2 Hours]
1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time he/she is told to do so by the Invigilation
Staff. However, in the meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and
subsequently fill the appropriate columns given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may
also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet,
supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in the
OMR sheet. Use of ink pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or
illegible or incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for
orthopedically/visually impaired candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, for marking
correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire
booklet to confirm that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly
and there are no blank pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then
the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and
obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.
6. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in
the relevant column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their
record regarding the change in the serial no. of Question booklet.
7. The question paper booklet has 20 pages.
8. The paper consists of total 300 marks. Each question shall carry 2.5 marks. There are four
options for each question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on
the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (0.5 marks for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the
candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before they start
answering the questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (B–1)
Text of page 22
SECTION A 5. Two beams, one having square
cross-section and another circular
1. Impulse turbines are cross-section, are subjected to the
same amount of bending moment. If
(a) Low head and low specific speed
turbine the cross-sectional area as well as the
material of both the beams are the
(b) Low head and high specific speed
same then
turbine
(a) Maximum bending stress
(c) High head and high specific speed developed in both the beams is
turbine the same
(d) High head and low specific speed (b) The circular beam experiences
turbine more bending stress than the
square one
2. The discharge through a single acting
(c) The square beam experiences
reciprocating pump is
more bending stress than the
(a) Q = ALN circular one
(b) Q = ALN/60 (d) As the material is same both the
beams will experience same
(c) Q = 2ALN/60
deformation
(d) Q = 2ALN
3. In terms of Poisson’s ratio (µ), the ratio 6. A solid circular shaft of 5 cm diameter
of Young’s Modulus (E) to Shear transmits a torque of 1·5 kNm. The
Modulus (G) of elastic materials is value of maximum shear stress
(a) 2 (1 – µ) developed is
(a) 37·72 MPa
(b) 2 (1 + µ)
1 (b) 52·47 MPa
(c) (1 + µ)
2 (c) 61·12 MPa
1 (d) 76·72 MPa
(d) (1 – µ)
2
4. A shaft with a circular cross-section is 7. At which point on stress-strain graph,
subjected to pure twisting moment. does the specimen undergo an
The ratio of the maximum shear stress appreciable increase in length without
to the largest principal stress is further increase in load ?
(a) 2·0 (a) Limit of proportionality point
(b) 1·0 (b) Yield point
(c) 0·5 (c) Elastic limit point
(d) Ultimate stress point
(d) 0
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (B–2)
Text of page 23
8. Rankine’s formula applicable to any 12. Under stable equilibrium, no
column is substance can exist in the liquid state
(a) PR = PC + PE (a) At temperature below the triple
point temperature
(b) PR = 1/(PC + PE) (b) At pressure below the triple point
pressure
(c) (1/PR) = (1/PC) + (1/PE)
(c) At pressure above the triple point
(d) 1/PR = (1/PC) + PE pressure
(d) At temperature above the triple
point temperature
9. For steady incompressible flow
through an insulated horizontal
constant diameter pipe, which of the 13. Forced draught fans of a large steam
following properties remains constant? generator have
(a) Backward curved blades
(a) Volume
(b) Forward curved blades
(b) Enthalpy (c) Straight or radial blades
(c) Entropy (d) Double curved blades
(d) Internal energy
14. Match List-I (Boilers) with List-II
(Type/Description) and select the
10. The number of components (C),
correct answer using the codes given
phases (P) and degree of freedom (F)
below.
are related by Gibbs’s phase as
List-I List-II
(a) P–F=C–2
(Boiler) (Type/Description )
(b) P+F=C–2 A. Lancashire 1. Horizontal straight
tube, fire-tube boiler
(c) P+F+C=2 B. Benson 2. Horizontal straight
tube, water-tube
(d) P=C–F+2 boiler
C. Babcock and 3. Bent tube, water tube
Wilcox boiler
11. The specific volume of water when
D. Stirling 4. High pressure boiler
heated from 273·15 K
(a) First increases and then
Codes :
decreases
A B C D
(b) First decreases and then
(a) 4 2 1 3
increases
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) Steadily increases
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) Steadily decreases (d) 1 4 3 2
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (B–3)
Text of page 24
15. Which of the following are boiler 18. The two reference fuels used for cetane
mountings ? rating are
1. Fusible plug (a) Cetane and iso-octane
2. Blow-off valve (b) Cetane and tetraethyl lead
3. Steam trap (c) Cetane and n-heptane
4. Feed check valve
(d) Cetane and α-methyl
Select the correct answer using the naphthalene
code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4 19. By higher octane number of SI fuel, it
is meant that the fuel has
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(a) Higher heating value
(d) 1, 2 and 4
(b) Higher flash point
(c) Lower volatility
16. Thermal boundary layer is a region
where (d) Longer ignition delay
(a) Heat dissipation is negligible
(b) Heat dissipation is infinity
20. Diesel knock can be reduced by
(c) Inertia and convection are of the
same order of magnitude 1. Increasing the compression ratio
(d) Convection and dissipation terms 2. Increasing the engine speed
are of the same order of 3. Increasing the injection retard
magnitude 4. Decreasing the inlet air
temperature
Which of these statements are
17. What is the value of Nusselt number correct ?
at the entry of a heated plate ?
(a) Only 2 and 4
(a) Zero
(b) Only 1, 2 and 3
(b) 4·36
(c) 3·66 (c) Only 1 and 3
(d) Infinity (d) All of the above
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (B–4)
Text of page 25
21. In a pulley and belt drive, the velocity 24. If two nodes are observed at a
of belt for maximum power frequency of 900 rpm during whirling
transmission is of simply supported long slender
rotating shaft, the first critical speed of
T the shaft in rpm is
(a)
m
(a) 100
m (b) 200
(b)
T
(c) 300
T (d) 400
(c)
3m
25. A differential gear in an automobile is
3m
(d) a/an
T
(a) Simple gear train
(b) Speed reducer
22. The equilibrium speed of a governor (c) Compound gear train
varies from 35 rpm to 25 rpm. Find the
(d) Epicyclic gear train
sensitiveness of the governor.
(a) 0·13 26. Calculate the length of the scale
required to measure up to 25 km with
(b) 0·23
the representative factor 1 : 50000.
(c) 0·33
(a) 5 10–4 cm
(d) 0·43 (b) 50 cm
(c) 5 cm
23. A vibratory system consists of a mass (d) 0·5 cm
12 kg, a spring of stiffness 1200 N/m,
and a dashpot with damping 27. The side view, top view and front view
coefficient of 12 Ns/m. The value of of a regular pentagonal prism placed
critical damping (Ns/m) and damping axis perpendicular to vertical plane
ratio respectively of the system are are
(a) 0·24 and 0·04 (a) rectangle, rectangle and pentagon
(b) pentagon, rectangle and rectangle
(b) 24 and 0·04
(c) pentagon, rectangle and pentagon
(c) 240 and 0·05
(d) rectangle, pentagon and rectangle
(d) 2400 and 0·05
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (B–5)
Text of page 26
28. The soft solder used for soldering 32. An object of mass 2 kg is sliding with a
process contains _________ percent of constant velocity of 4 m/s on a
lead. frictionless horizontal table. The force
(a) 50 required to keep the object moving
with the same velocity is
(b) 75
(a) 32 N
(c) 99
(d) 30 (b) 8N
(c) 16 N
29. For hypoeutectoid steels, the
normalizing process is done by heating (d) 0N
the steel __________ its upper critical
temperature.
33. With what principle does the
(a) 30C – 40C above
Taylor-Hobson-Talysurf tester work
(b) 30C – 40C below for the measurement of surface
(c) 50C – 60C above roughness ?
(d) 50C – 60C below (a) Capacitive demodulating
principle
30. Thermosetting plastics are formed by
(b) Intensity modulating principle
(a) Step polymerization
(c) Inductive modulating principle
(b) Suspension polymerization
(c) Emulsion polymerization (d) Carrier modulating principle
(d) Co-ordination polymerization
34. Under optimal conditions of the
31. If the tension in a cable supporting a
process the temperature experienced
lift moving upwards is twice the
by a copper work piece in fusion
tension when the lift is moving
welding, brazing and soldering are
downwards, the acceleration of the lift
such that
in terms of acceleration due to gravity
‘g’ is given by (a) Twelding > Tsoldering > Tbrazing
(a) g (b) Tsoldering > Twelding > Tbrazing
(b) g/2 (c) Twelding > Tbrazing > Tsoldering
(c) g/3
(d) Tbrazing > Tsoldering > Twelding
(d) g/4
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (B–6)
Text of page 27
35. The type of metal forming process used 39. A body is subjected to a tensile stress
for making the short length tubes like of 1200 MPa on one plane and another
tooth paste tube and gun shells are tensile stress of 600 MPa on a plane at
manufactured by right angles to the former. It is also
(a) Hydrostatic extrusion subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa
on the same planes. The maximum
(b) Indirect extrusion
normal stress will be
(c) Direct extrusion
(a) 400 MPa
(d) Continuous extrusion
(b) 500 MPa
(c) 900 MPa
36. What is the range of percent of the
(d) 1400 MPa
abrasives recommended in general for
abrasive slurry during ultrasonic 40. The expression EI d2y/dx2 at a section
machining process ? of a member represents for analyzing
(a) 10 – 15% the beams
(b) 15 – 20% (a) Shearing force
(c) 25 – 30% (b) Rate of loading
(d) 30 – 35% (c) Bending moment
(d) Slope
37. Mercury is considered as the best
liquid to be used for pressure 41. The equation for polytropic index can
measuring device manometers because be calculated by
it has
(a) ln(P2/P1)/ln(V2/V1)
(a) low vapour pressure and high
density (b) ln(V2/V1)/ln(P2/P1)
(b) high vapour pressure and high (c) ln(P1/P2)/ln(V2/V1)
density
(d) ln(V2/V1)/ln(P1/P2)
(c) low surface tension
(d) high density and low viscosity 42. An inventor claims that his heat
engine has the following specifications:
Power developed = 50 kW; Fuel burnt
38. The mean effective pressure of diesel
per hour = 3 kg; Temperature
cycle for the fixed compression ratio
limits = 627C and 27C. The engine
will increase if the cut off ratio
operation is
(a) Increases first and then decreases
(a) Possible
(b) Decreases (b) Impossible
(c) Remains same (c) Ideal
(d) Increases (d) Expensive
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (B–7)
Text of page 28
43. The following is considered as best 47. The un-sprung mass in a vehicle
antifreeze solution system is mainly composed of
(a) Ethylene glycol
(a) Axle and the parts attached to it
(b) Distilled glycerine
(c) Methanol (b) Gear box and propeller shaft
(d) Denatured alcohol
(c) Engine and its associated parts
44. If the rotating mass of a rim type (d) The frame assembly
flywheel is distributed on another rim
type flywheel whose radius is half the
mean radius of the former, then energy 48. Dimension line is
stored in the latter at the same speed
(a) Chain thin
will be
(a) four times the first one (b) Continuous thick
(b) same as the first one (c) Zigzag
(c) one-fourth of the first one
(d) Continuous thin
(d) one and half times of the first one
45. In a vibrating system the spring
stiffness has 32 N/m and the mass is 49. Hatching lines are drawn at an angle
2 kg. The system is having a damper of _______ degree to the main outline
whose coefficient of damping is of the section.
8 N-s/m. Then the system is said to be (a) 45
(a) Over damped system
(b) Under damped system (b) 60
(c) Undamped system (c) 75
(d) Critical damped system
(d) 15
46. The most and important function of a
suspension system in the automobile is
to 50. Grey cast iron has carbon percentage
(a) Ensure that the steering wheel in the range
can deliver the required steering
(a) 9 to 10 percent
(b) Ensure that wheel alignment is
not disturbed during driving
(b) 3 to 4 percent
(c) Automatically correct the effects
of over steering (c) 6 to 7 percent
(d) Absorb vibration and impact
forces from the road surface (d) 1 to 2 percent
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (B–8)
Text of page 29
51. The area under stress-strain curve up 55. Gimlet is a
to elastic limit indicates which
(a) Striking tool
mechanical property ?
(b) Boring tool
(a) Toughness
(c) Reaming tool
(b) Ductility
(d) Holding tool
(c) Resilience
(d) None of the above
56. The commonly used welding method
52. The resultant of two forces P and 2P, for welding of plastics is
acting at a point, is perpendicular to P. (a) Electron beam welding
The angle between the forces is
(b) Resistance welding
__________ degrees.
(a) 120 (c) Ultrasonic welding
(b) 90 (d) Arc welding
(c) 45
(d) 135
57. Difficulty faced during welding of
aluminium is mainly due to
53. The dimensions of shaft and hole are
40 00..010 0.020 (a) Low density
000 and 40 0.000 respectively.
The assembly will result in (b) High tendency of oxidation
(a) Drive fit (c) High thermal conductivity
(b) Transition fit
(d) Low melting point
(c) Interference fit
(d) Clearance fit
58. Helix angle of fast helix drill is
normally
54. Friction at the tool-chip interface can
be reduced by (a) 5 degrees
(a) Increasing the cutting speed (b) 35 degrees
(b) Increasing the depth of cut
(c) 90 degrees
(c) Decreasing the rake angle
(d) Decreasing the cutting speed (d) 60 degrees
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (B–9)
Text of page 30
59. The three types of hydraulic turbines, 62. The second moment of a circular area
in ascending order of flow rate are about the diameter is given by (D is
the diameter)
(a) Pelton, Francis, Kaplan
π D4
(b) Francis, Kaplan, Pelton (a)
64
(c) Pelton, Kaplan, Francis πD 4
(b)
(d) Kaplan, Francis, Pelton 16
πD 4
(c)
60. The pressure of a liquid flowing 32
through a pump is raised from 1 bar to πD 4
(d)
30 bar. The density of the liquid is 4
990 kg/m3. The isoentropic specific
work done by the pump in kJ/kg is 63. A thin cylinder of inner diameter
1000 mm and thickness 10 mm is
(a) 0·30
subjected to an internal pressure of
(b) 2·50 5 MPa. The average hoop stress in
(c) 2·93 MPa is
(a) 500
(d) 0·10
(b) 250
61. A beam is made up of two identical (c) 1000
bars AB and BC by hinging them at B. (d) 200
Ends A and C are simply supported.
With load P acting as shown, the 64. The maximum theoretical value of
bending moment at B is Poisson’s ratio is
(a) Infinity
(b) 1
(c) 0·707
(d) 0·5
65. The stress induced in a body due to
suddenly applied load compared to
when it is applied gradually is
(a) PL/4
(a) Same
(b) Zero (b) Half
(c) 3PL/4 (c) Two times
(d) PL (d) 2 times
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( B – 10 )
Text of page 31
66. Euler’s buckling theory is applicable 71. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good
for steam power plant is in the range of
(a) Medium long columns (a) 10% – 15%
(b) 55% – 60%
(b) Long columns
(c) 75% – 80%
(c) Short columns (d) 35% – 45%
(d) All of the above
72. The initial position and velocity of a
67. If the length of a column is doubled, simple harmonic oscillator are x0 = 4 m
the critical load becomes and v0 = 3 m/sec respectively. If the
(a) 1/4 of the original value amplitude is 5 m, then the angular
frequency of oscillation is ____ rad/sec.
(b) 1/16 of the original value
(a) 1
(c) 1/2 of the original value (b) 2
(d) 1/8 of the original value (c) 3
(d) Zero
68. Gas Turbine commonly works on
(a) Carnot cycle 73. The natural frequency of an undamped
vibrating system is 10 rad/sec. A
(b) Brayton cycle
damper with a damping factor of 0·6 is
(c) Otto cycle introduced into the system. The
(d) None of the above frequency of the damped system, in
rad/sec, is
69. Lancashire boiler is (a) 8
(b) 6
(a) Fire tube boiler
(c) 10
(b) Water tube boiler (d) 4
(c) Locomotive boiler
(d) High pressure boiler 74. A shaft runs at 40 rpm and drives
another shaft at 75 rpm through belt
drive. The diameter of the driving
70. Compression ratio for diesel engine
pulley is 600 mm. Neglecting belt
may have a range of
thickness and belt slip, the diameter of
(a) 16 to 20 the driven pulley is ____ mm.
(b) 10 to 15 (a) 160
(b) 320
(c) 8 to 10
(c) 640
(d) 6 to 8
(d) None of the above
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( B – 11 )
Text of page 32
75. The velocity ratio of two pulleys 78. The length in isometric drawing of line
connected by an open belt or crossed is 25 cm. What is the true length of it ?
belt is (a) 33·77 cm
(b) 32·45 cm
(a) Inversely proportional to the
square of their diameters (c) 30·68 cm
(d) 24·53 cm
(b) Directly proportional to the
square of their diameters 79. What type of material is Gold ?
(a) Ferroelectric
(c) Inversely proportional to their
diameters (b) Ferromagnetic
(c) Diamagnetic
(d) Directly proportional to their (d) Paramagnetic
diameters
80. Austenite decomposes into ferrite and
cementite at a temperature of
76. In a spring mass system, if the mass is (a) 727 C
halved and the spring stiffness is (b) 1148 C
doubled, the natural frequency is (c) 1495 C
(a) Halved (d) 1539 C
(b) Doubled 81. A steel with 0·8% carbon and
100% pearlite is called
(c) Unchanged
(a) Eutectoid steel
(d) Quadrupled
(b) Hypo-eutectoid steel
(c) Hyper eutectoid steel
77. The type of gear train used in an (d) Pro-eutectoid steel
automobile differential is
82. Brass is an alloy of
(a) Simple
(a) Copper and Zinc
(b) Compound
(b) Copper and Tin
(c) Epicyclic
(c) Copper, Tin and Zinc
(d) Reverted (d) None of the above
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( B – 12 )
Text of page 33
83. Zn and Mg have the following crystal 85. A stone of mass m at the end of a
structure string of length Ɩ is whirled in a
vertical circle at a constant speed. The
(a) B.C.C. tension in the string will be maximum
when the stone is
(b) F.C.C.
(a) At the top of the circle
(c) Diamond Cubic
(b) Half way down from the top
(d) H.C.P
(c) Quarter way down from the top
(d) At the bottom of the circle
84. A block of mass m rests on an inclined
plane and is attached by a string to the 86. A radius gauge is also known as
wall as shown in the figure. The (a) Fillet gauge
coefficient of static friction between the (b) Snap gauge
plane and the block is 0·5. The string
(c) Feeler gauge
can withstand a maximum force of
30 N. What is the maximum value of (d) Slip gauge
mass (m) for which the string will not
break and the block will be in static 87. An error of 5% occurred during the
measurement of the dia of a cylindrical
equilibrium ?
part. The likely error in the calculated
cos θ = 0.8, sin θ = 0·6, g = 10 m/s2.
weight of the part is approximately
(a) 10%
(b) 5%
(c) 1%
(d) 7·5%
88. The algebraic difference between
upper and lower range value of the
instrument is called
(a) 5 kg
(a) Span
(b) 10 kg
(b) Range
(c) 15 kg (c) Error
(d) 20 kg (d) Sensitivity
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( B – 13 )
Text of page 34
89. Pyrometer is used to measure the 94. A plate 50 mm wide and 12.5 mm thick
temperature of is to be welded to another plate by
(a) Furnace means of parallel fillet welds. The
plates are subjected to a load of 50 kN.
(b) Human body
If allowable shear strength is to be
(c) Environment
56 MPa, then the length of the weld
(d) Ice will be
(a) 51·5 mm
90. Swaging is an operation of
(b) 50·5 mm
(a) Hot rolling
(c) 49·5 mm
(b) Forging
(d) 52·5 mm
(c) Extrusion
(d) Piercing
95. In arc welding operation, the current
value is decided by
91. The operation of producing cup shaped
(a) Thickness of plate
parts from flat sheet metal blanks by
bending and plastic flow of metal is (b) Length of welded portion
known as (c) Voltage across the arc
(a) Coining (d) Size of the electrode
(b) Planishing
(c) Squeezing 96. Two stainless steel foils of 0·1 mm
(d) Drawing thickness are to be joined. Which of the
following would be best suited ?
92. Pinch effect in welding is the result of (a) Gas welding
(a) Surface tension of the molten (b) TIG welding
metal (c) MIG welding
(b) Shielding (d) Plasma welding
(c) Expansion of gases in the arc
(d) Electromagnetic forces 97. Find the tool life equation, if a tool life
at 80 min is obtained at a cutting
93. The distance from the joint root to the speed of 30 m/min and 8 min at
toe of the weld is called 60 m/min
(a) Face (a) VT0·3 = C
(b) Leg (b) VT0·7 = C
(c) Effective throat (c) VT0·5 = C
(d) Actual throat (d) VT0·4 = C
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( B – 14 )
Text of page 35
98. A straight teeth slab milling cutter of SECTION B
100 mm diameter and 10 teeth
101. The slogan “Complex Past: Diverse
rotating at 200 r.p.m. is used to
Future” is with reference to
remove a layer of 3 mm thickness from
a steel bar. If the table feed is (a) National Culture Day
400 mm/minute, the feed per tooth in (b) National Ekta Divas
this operation will be (c) World Heritage Day
(d) Tourism Day
(a) 0.2 mm
102. The first Indian woman cricketer to
(b) 0.4 mm
score a century in Australia was
(c) 0.5 mm (a) Mithali Raj
(b) Deepti Sharma
(d) 0.6 mm
(c) Smriti Mandhana
(d) Harmanpreet Kaur
99. The gauge pressure inside a raindrop
103. Harpoon, an all weather, anti-ship
of diameter d1 and surface tension σ1 is
missile system is sold to India by
P1. For the same gauge pressure inside
(a) France
a drop of diameter d2 = 2d1, what will
(b) Russia
be the value of surface tension σ2 ?
(c) Israel
(a) σ1 = σ2
(d) USA
(b) σ1 = 2σ2 104. In which of the following activities are
Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites
(c) 2σ1 = σ2
used ?
(d) 4σ1 = σ2 1. Telecommunications
2. Traffic control
3. Mineral exploration
100. When can a piezometer not be used for
pressure measurement in pipes ? 4. Locating ground water resources
5. Assessment of crop productivity
(a) The pressure difference is low
Select the correct answer from the
(b) The velocity is high code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) The fluid in the pipe is a gas
(b) 4 and 5 only
(d) The fluid in the pipe is highly (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
viscous (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( B – 15 )
Text of page 36
105. A dealer paid a car manufacturer Directions for the following 3 (three)
< 1,35,000 for a car. What should be questions :
the selling price of the car, if after
allowing a buyer 10% discount on the Read the following information and answer
selling price, he made a profit of 8% on the three questions that follow :
his outlay ?
Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared
(a) < 1,50,000
in several tests. Either C or F score the
(b) < 1,60,000 highest. Whenever C scores the highest,
then E scores the least. Whenever F scores
(c) < 1,62,000 the highest, B scores the least. In all the
(d) < 1,52,500 tests they got different marks — D scores
higher than A, but they are close
competitors; A scores higher than B; C
106. A, B, C and D play a game of cards. A scores higher than A.
says to B, “ If I give you 8 cards, you
will have as many as C has and I shall 108. If F stands second in the ranking, then
have 3 less than what C has. Also, if I the position of B is
take 6 cards from C, I shall have twice (a) Third
as many as D has.” If B and D together (b) Fourth
have 50 cards, how many cards does C
(c) Fifth
have ?
(d) Sixth
(a) 40
(b) 37 109. If B scores the least, the rank of C will
be
(c) 27
(a) Second
(d) 23
(b) Third
(c) Fourth
107. Choose the alternative which closely
(d) Second or third
resembles the water image of the given
combination/figure.
110. If E is ranked third, then which one of
ADVANCE the following is correct ?
(a) (a) E gets more marks than C
(b) (b) C gets more marks than E
(c) (c) A is ranked fourth
(d) None of the above (d) D is ranked fifth
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( B – 16 )
Text of page 37
111. Find the number which replaces the 114. Select the option that will fill in the
question mark : blank and complete the given series.
7, 26, 63, 124, 215, 342, 511, 728, ____.
(a) 990
(b) 1000
(a) 15
(c) 1001
(b) 25
(d) 999
(c) 20
(d) 40
115. Match the following :
Nuclear Power State
Project
A. Narora 1. Uttar Pradesh
112. A bus leaves Amritsar at 5 am and B. Kakrapar 2. Karnataka
reaches Chandigarh at 9 am. Another C. Kudankulam 3. Gujarat
bus leaves Chandigarh at 7 am and
D. Kaiga 4. Tamil Nadu
reaches Amritsar at 10:30 am. At what
time do the buses cross each other ? Codes :
A B C D
(a) 7:56 am
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 7 am (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 6:56 am (c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 1 3 2 4
(d) 6:24 am
116. Banks classify the Non-Performing
Assets (NPAs) in which of the
113. There are two numbers. When 20% of following categories ?
the first number is added to the second 1. Substandard assets
number, the resultant number is
2. Doubtful assets
1·4 times the first number. What is the
3. Loss asset
ratio between the two numbers ?
4. Risky asset
(a) 7:8 Select the correct answer from the
code given below.
(b) 6:7 (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 4:5 (c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 5:6
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( B – 17 )
Text of page 38
117. The establishment of three-tier 119. Consider the following statements:
Panchayati Raj System was originally Statement I :
recommended by : The Bluetooth technology is a wireless
(a) Ashok Mehta Committee alternative to data cables by
(b) The Royal Commission on exchanging data using radio
Decentralization transmission.
(c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Statement II :
(d) V.N. Gadgil Committee The second generation or 2G allowed
for the introduction of analog phones
such as SMS and email.
118. What is “oilzapper” ?
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
(a) It is an eco-friendly technology correct ?
for the remediation of oily sludge
and oil spills (a) Only II
(b) It is the latest technology (b) Only I
developed for under-sea oil (c) Neither I nor II
exploration
(d) Both I and II
(c) It is a genetically engineered high
biofuel-yielding maize variety
120. Which of the following diseases is/are
(d) It is the latest technology to not caused by bacteria ?
control the accidentally caused
(a) Typhoid
flames from oil wells
(b) Poliomyelitis
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) All of the above
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( B – 18 )
Text of page 39
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( B – 19 )
Text of page 40
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( B – 20 )
Text of page 41
Booklet Sr. No.
*0C*
Candidate’s Name ________________________________________________________
Father’s Name ____________________________________________________________
Date of Birth :
D D M M Y Y Y Y
OMR Response Sheet No. ____________________________________ Roll No. ___________________________
Candidate’s Signature : Total Questions : 120]
(Please sign in the box) Time Allowed : 2 Hours]
1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time he/she is told to do so by the Invigilation
Staff. However, in the meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and
subsequently fill the appropriate columns given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may
also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet,
supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in the
OMR sheet. Use of ink pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or
illegible or incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for
orthopedically/visually impaired candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, for marking
correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire
booklet to confirm that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly
and there are no blank pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then
the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and
obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.
6. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in
the relevant column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their
record regarding the change in the serial no. of Question booklet.
7. The question paper booklet has 20 pages.
8. The paper consists of total 300 marks. Each question shall carry 2.5 marks. There are four
options for each question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on
the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (0.5 marks for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the
candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before they start
answering the questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (C–1)
Text of page 42
SECTION A 4. In a pulley and belt drive, the velocity
of belt for maximum power
1. The two reference fuels used for cetane transmission is
rating are
T
(a)
(a) Cetane and iso-octane m
(b) Cetane and tetraethyl lead m
(b)
T
(c) Cetane and n-heptane
(d) Cetane and α-methyl T
(c)
naphthalene 3m
3m
(d)
2. By higher octane number of SI fuel, it T
is meant that the fuel has
(a) Higher heating value
5. The equilibrium speed of a governor
(b) Higher flash point varies from 35 rpm to 25 rpm. Find the
sensitiveness of the governor.
(c) Lower volatility
(a) 0·13
(d) Longer ignition delay
(b) 0·23
(c) 0·33
3. Diesel knock can be reduced by (d) 0·43
1. Increasing the compression ratio
2. Increasing the engine speed
6. A vibratory system consists of a mass
3. Increasing the injection retard 12 kg, a spring of stiffness 1200 N/m,
4. Decreasing the inlet air and a dashpot with damping
temperature coefficient of 12 Ns/m. The value of
Which of these statements are critical damping (Ns/m) and damping
correct ? ratio respectively of the system are
(a) Only 2 and 4 (a) 0·24 and 0·04
(b) Only 1, 2 and 3 (b) 24 and 0·04
(c) Only 1 and 3 (c) 240 and 0·05
(d) All of the above (d) 2400 and 0·05
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (C–2)
Text of page 43
7. If two nodes are observed at a 11. The soft solder used for soldering
frequency of 900 rpm during whirling process contains _________ percent of
of simply supported long slender lead.
rotating shaft, the first critical speed of (a) 50
the shaft in rpm is
(b) 75
(a) 100
(c) 99
(b) 200
(d) 30
(c) 300
(d) 400
12. For hypoeutectoid steels, the
normalizing process is done by heating
8. A differential gear in an automobile is
the steel __________ its upper critical
a/an
temperature.
(a) Simple gear train
(a) 30C – 40C above
(b) Speed reducer
(b) 30C – 40C below
(c) Compound gear train
(c) 50C – 60C above
(d) Epicyclic gear train
(d) 50C – 60C below
9. Calculate the length of the scale
required to measure up to 25 km with 13. Thermosetting plastics are formed by
the representative factor 1 : 50000. (a) Step polymerization
(a) 5 10–4 cm (b) Suspension polymerization
(b) 50 cm (c) Emulsion polymerization
(c) 5 cm (d) Co-ordination polymerization
(d) 0·5 cm
14. If the tension in a cable supporting a
lift moving upwards is twice the
10. The side view, top view and front view
of a regular pentagonal prism placed tension when the lift is moving
axis perpendicular to vertical plane downwards, the acceleration of the lift
are in terms of acceleration due to gravity
‘g’ is given by
(a) rectangle, rectangle and pentagon
(a) g
(b) pentagon, rectangle and rectangle
(b) g/2
(c) pentagon, rectangle and pentagon
(c) g/3
(d) rectangle, pentagon and rectangle
(d) g/4
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (C–3)
Text of page 44
15. An object of mass 2 kg is sliding with a 18. The type of metal forming process used
constant velocity of 4 m/s on a for making the short length tubes like
frictionless horizontal table. The force tooth paste tube and gun shells are
required to keep the object moving manufactured by
with the same velocity is (a) Hydrostatic extrusion
(a) 32 N (b) Indirect extrusion
(c) Direct extrusion
(b) 8N
(d) Continuous extrusion
(c) 16 N
(d) 0N 19. What is the range of percent of the
abrasives recommended in general for
abrasive slurry during ultrasonic
16. With what principle does the machining process ?
Taylor-Hobson-Talysurf tester work (a) 10 – 15%
for the measurement of surface (b) 15 – 20%
roughness ? (c) 25 – 30%
(a) Capacitive demodulating (d) 30 – 35%
principle
20. Mercury is considered as the best
(b) Intensity modulating principle liquid to be used for pressure
measuring device manometers because
(c) Inductive modulating principle it has
(d) Carrier modulating principle (a) low vapour pressure and high
density
(b) high vapour pressure and high
17. Under optimal conditions of the density
process the temperature experienced (c) low surface tension
by a copper work piece in fusion (d) high density and low viscosity
welding, brazing and soldering are
such that 21. The mean effective pressure of diesel
(a) Twelding > Tsoldering > Tbrazing cycle for the fixed compression ratio
will increase if the cut off ratio
(b) Tsoldering > Twelding > Tbrazing
(a) Increases first and then decreases
(c) Twelding > Tbrazing > Tsoldering (b) Decreases
(d) Tbrazing > Tsoldering > Twelding (c) Remains same
(d) Increases
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (C–4)
Text of page 45
22. A body is subjected to a tensile stress 26. The following is considered as best
of 1200 MPa on one plane and another antifreeze solution
tensile stress of 600 MPa on a plane at (a) Ethylene glycol
right angles to the former. It is also (b) Distilled glycerine
subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa (c) Methanol
on the same planes. The maximum (d) Denatured alcohol
normal stress will be
(a) 400 MPa 27. If the rotating mass of a rim type
(b) 500 MPa flywheel is distributed on another rim
type flywheel whose radius is half the
(c) 900 MPa
mean radius of the former, then energy
(d) 1400 MPa
stored in the latter at the same speed
23. The expression EI d2y/dx2 at a section will be
of a member represents for analyzing (a) four times the first one
the beams (b) same as the first one
(a) Shearing force (c) one-fourth of the first one
(b) Rate of loading (d) one and half times of the first one
(c) Bending moment
28. In a vibrating system the spring
(d) Slope stiffness has 32 N/m and the mass is
2 kg. The system is having a damper
24. The equation for polytropic index can
whose coefficient of damping is
be calculated by
8 N-s/m. Then the system is said to be
(a) ln(P2/P1)/ln(V2/V1)
(a) Over damped system
(b) ln(V2/V1)/ln(P2/P1) (b) Under damped system
(c) Undamped system
(c) ln(P1/P2)/ln(V2/V1)
(d) Critical damped system
(d) ln(V2/V1)/ln(P1/P2)
29. The most and important function of a
25. An inventor claims that his heat suspension system in the automobile is
engine has the following specifications: to
Power developed = 50 kW; Fuel burnt (a) Ensure that the steering wheel
per hour = 3 kg; Temperature can deliver the required steering
limits = 627C and 27C. The engine
(b) Ensure that wheel alignment is
operation is not disturbed during driving
(a) Possible (c) Automatically correct the effects
(b) Impossible of over steering
(c) Ideal (d) Absorb vibration and impact
(d) Expensive forces from the road surface
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (C–5)
Text of page 46
30. The un-sprung mass in a vehicle 34. The area under stress-strain curve up
system is mainly composed of to elastic limit indicates which
mechanical property ?
(a) Axle and the parts attached to it
(a) Toughness
(b) Gear box and propeller shaft
(b) Ductility
(c) Engine and its associated parts
(c) Resilience
(d) The frame assembly
(d) None of the above
31. Dimension line is
35. The resultant of two forces P and 2P,
(a) Chain thin acting at a point, is perpendicular to P.
(b) Continuous thick The angle between the forces is
__________ degrees.
(c) Zigzag
(a) 120
(d) Continuous thin
(b) 90
(c) 45
32. Hatching lines are drawn at an angle (d) 135
of _______ degree to the main outline
of the section.
36. The dimensions of shaft and hole are
(a) 45 40 00..010 0.020
000 and 40 0.000 respectively.
(b) 60 The assembly will result in
(c) 75 (a) Drive fit
(b) Transition fit
(d) 15
(c) Interference fit
(d) Clearance fit
33. Grey cast iron has carbon percentage
in the range
37. Friction at the tool-chip interface can
(a) 9 to 10 percent be reduced by
(a) Increasing the cutting speed
(b) 3 to 4 percent
(b) Increasing the depth of cut
(c) 6 to 7 percent
(c) Decreasing the rake angle
(d) 1 to 2 percent (d) Decreasing the cutting speed
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (C–6)
Text of page 47
38. Gimlet is a 42. The three types of hydraulic turbines,
in ascending order of flow rate are
(a) Striking tool
(a) Pelton, Francis, Kaplan
(b) Boring tool
(b) Francis, Kaplan, Pelton
(c) Reaming tool
(c) Pelton, Kaplan, Francis
(d) Holding tool
(d) Kaplan, Francis, Pelton
43. The pressure of a liquid flowing
39. The commonly used welding method
through a pump is raised from 1 bar to
for welding of plastics is
30 bar. The density of the liquid is
(a) Electron beam welding 990 kg/m3. The isoentropic specific
work done by the pump in kJ/kg is
(b) Resistance welding
(a) 0·30
(c) Ultrasonic welding
(b) 2·50
(d) Arc welding
(c) 2·93
(d) 0·10
40. Difficulty faced during welding of
aluminium is mainly due to 44. A beam is made up of two identical
bars AB and BC by hinging them at B.
(a) Low density Ends A and C are simply supported.
(b) High tendency of oxidation With load P acting as shown, the
bending moment at B is
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) Low melting point
41. Helix angle of fast helix drill is
normally
(a) 5 degrees
(a) PL/4
(b) 35 degrees
(b) Zero
(c) 90 degrees
(c) 3PL/4
(d) 60 degrees
(d) PL
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (C–7)
Text of page 48
45. The second moment of a circular area 49. Euler’s buckling theory is applicable
about the diameter is given by (D is for
the diameter) (a) Medium long columns
4
πD (b) Long columns
(a)
64
(c) Short columns
πD 4
(b) (d) All of the above
16
πD 4
(c) 50. If the length of a column is doubled,
32
the critical load becomes
πD 4
(d) (a) 1/4 of the original value
4
(b) 1/16 of the original value
46. A thin cylinder of inner diameter
(c) 1/2 of the original value
1000 mm and thickness 10 mm is
subjected to an internal pressure of (d) 1/8 of the original value
5 MPa. The average hoop stress in
MPa is 51. Gas Turbine commonly works on
(a) 500 (a) Carnot cycle
(b) 250 (b) Brayton cycle
(c) 1000 (c) Otto cycle
(d) 200
(d) None of the above
47. The maximum theoretical value of
52. Lancashire boiler is
Poisson’s ratio is
(a) Infinity (a) Fire tube boiler
(b) 1 (b) Water tube boiler
(c) 0·707 (c) Locomotive boiler
(d) 0·5 (d) High pressure boiler
48. The stress induced in a body due to
53. Compression ratio for diesel engine
suddenly applied load compared to
may have a range of
when it is applied gradually is
(a) Same (a) 16 to 20
(b) Half (b) 10 to 15
(c) Two times (c) 8 to 10
(d) 2 times (d) 6 to 8
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (C–8)
Text of page 49
54. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good 58. The velocity ratio of two pulleys
steam power plant is in the range of connected by an open belt or crossed
(a) 10% – 15% belt is
(b) 55% – 60%
(c) 75% – 80% (a) Inversely proportional to the
(d) 35% – 45% square of their diameters
(b) Directly proportional to the
55. The initial position and velocity of a
simple harmonic oscillator are x0 = 4 m square of their diameters
and v0 = 3 m/sec respectively. If the
(c) Inversely proportional to their
amplitude is 5 m, then the angular
diameters
frequency of oscillation is ____ rad/sec.
(a) 1 (d) Directly proportional to their
(b) 2 diameters
(c) 3
(d) Zero
56. The natural frequency of an undamped 59. In a spring mass system, if the mass is
vibrating system is 10 rad/sec. A halved and the spring stiffness is
damper with a damping factor of 0·6 is doubled, the natural frequency is
introduced into the system. The
(a) Halved
frequency of the damped system, in
rad/sec, is (b) Doubled
(a) 8
(b) 6 (c) Unchanged
(c) 10
(d) Quadrupled
(d) 4
57. A shaft runs at 40 rpm and drives
another shaft at 75 rpm through belt 60. The type of gear train used in an
drive. The diameter of the driving automobile differential is
pulley is 600 mm. Neglecting belt
thickness and belt slip, the diameter of (a) Simple
the driven pulley is ____ mm.
(b) Compound
(a) 160
(b) 320 (c) Epicyclic
(c) 640
(d) Reverted
(d) None of the above
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (C–9)
Text of page 50
61. The length in isometric drawing of line 66. Zn and Mg have the following crystal
is 25 cm. What is the true length of it ? structure
(a) 33·77 cm
(a) B.C.C.
(b) 32·45 cm
(b) F.C.C.
(c) 30·68 cm
(d) 24·53 cm (c) Diamond Cubic
(d) H.C.P
62. What type of material is Gold ?
(a) Ferroelectric
(b) Ferromagnetic
67. A block of mass m rests on an inclined
(c) Diamagnetic plane and is attached by a string to the
(d) Paramagnetic wall as shown in the figure. The
coefficient of static friction between the
63. Austenite decomposes into ferrite and plane and the block is 0·5. The string
cementite at a temperature of
can withstand a maximum force of
(a) 727 C 30 N. What is the maximum value of
(b) 1148 C mass (m) for which the string will not
(c) 1495 C break and the block will be in static
(d) 1539 C equilibrium ?
cos θ = 0.8, sin θ = 0·6, g = 10 m/s2.
64. A steel with 0·8% carbon and
100% pearlite is called
(a) Eutectoid steel
(b) Hypo-eutectoid steel
(c) Hyper eutectoid steel
(d) Pro-eutectoid steel
65. Brass is an alloy of
(a) Copper and Zinc (a) 5 kg
(b) Copper and Tin (b) 10 kg
(c) Copper, Tin and Zinc (c) 15 kg
(d) None of the above
(d) 20 kg
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( C – 10 )
Text of page 51
68. A stone of mass m at the end of a 72. Pyrometer is used to measure the
string of length Ɩ is whirled in a temperature of
vertical circle at a constant speed. The (a) Furnace
tension in the string will be maximum
(b) Human body
when the stone is
(c) Environment
(a) At the top of the circle (d) Ice
(b) Half way down from the top
73. Swaging is an operation of
(c) Quarter way down from the top
(a) Hot rolling
(d) At the bottom of the circle
(b) Forging
(c) Extrusion
69. A radius gauge is also known as
(d) Piercing
(a) Fillet gauge
(b) Snap gauge 74. The operation of producing cup shaped
parts from flat sheet metal blanks by
(c) Feeler gauge
bending and plastic flow of metal is
(d) Slip gauge known as
(a) Coining
70. An error of 5% occurred during the
(b) Planishing
measurement of the dia of a cylindrical
(c) Squeezing
part. The likely error in the calculated
weight of the part is approximately (d) Drawing
(a) 10%
75. Pinch effect in welding is the result of
(b) 5% (a) Surface tension of the molten
(c) 1% metal
(b) Shielding
(d) 7·5%
(c) Expansion of gases in the arc
71. The algebraic difference between (d) Electromagnetic forces
upper and lower range value of the
instrument is called 76. The distance from the joint root to the
toe of the weld is called
(a) Span
(a) Face
(b) Range
(b) Leg
(c) Error (c) Effective throat
(d) Sensitivity (d) Actual throat
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( C – 11 )
Text of page 52
77. A plate 50 mm wide and 12.5 mm thick 81. A straight teeth slab milling cutter of
is to be welded to another plate by 100 mm diameter and 10 teeth
means of parallel fillet welds. The rotating at 200 r.p.m. is used to
plates are subjected to a load of 50 kN. remove a layer of 3 mm thickness from
If allowable shear strength is to be a steel bar. If the table feed is
56 MPa, then the length of the weld 400 mm/minute, the feed per tooth in
will be this operation will be
(a) 51·5 mm
(a) 0.2 mm
(b) 50·5 mm
(c) 49·5 mm (b) 0.4 mm
(d) 52·5 mm (c) 0.5 mm
78. In arc welding operation, the current (d) 0.6 mm
value is decided by
(a) Thickness of plate 82. The gauge pressure inside a raindrop
(b) Length of welded portion of diameter d1 and surface tension σ1 is
(c) Voltage across the arc P1. For the same gauge pressure inside
(d) Size of the electrode a drop of diameter d2 = 2d1, what will
be the value of surface tension σ2 ?
79. Two stainless steel foils of 0·1 mm (a) σ1 = σ2
thickness are to be joined. Which of the
following would be best suited ? (b) σ1 = 2σ2
(a) Gas welding
(c) 2σ1 = σ2
(b) TIG welding
(c) MIG welding (d) 4σ1 = σ2
(d) Plasma welding
83. When can a piezometer not be used for
80. Find the tool life equation, if a tool life pressure measurement in pipes ?
at 80 min is obtained at a cutting
speed of 30 m/min and 8 min at (a) The pressure difference is low
60 m/min
(b) The velocity is high
(a) VT0·3 = C
(c) The fluid in the pipe is a gas
(b) VT0·7 = C
(c) VT0·5 = C (d) The fluid in the pipe is highly
(d) VT0·4 = C viscous
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( C – 12 )
Text of page 53
84. Impulse turbines are 88. Two beams, one having square
(a) Low head and low specific speed cross-section and another circular
turbine cross-section, are subjected to the
same amount of bending moment. If
(b) Low head and high specific speed
the cross-sectional area as well as the
turbine
material of both the beams are the
(c) High head and high specific speed same then
turbine (a) Maximum bending stress
(d) High head and low specific speed developed in both the beams is
turbine the same
(b) The circular beam experiences
85. The discharge through a single acting more bending stress than the
reciprocating pump is square one
(c) The square beam experiences
(a) Q = ALN
more bending stress than the
(b) Q = ALN/60 circular one
(c) Q = 2ALN/60 (d) As the material is same both the
beams will experience same
(d) Q = 2ALN deformation
86. In terms of Poisson’s ratio (µ), the ratio 89. A solid circular shaft of 5 cm diameter
of Young’s Modulus (E) to Shear transmits a torque of 1·5 kNm. The
Modulus (G) of elastic materials is value of maximum shear stress
(a) 2 (1 – µ) developed is
(b) 2 (1 + µ) (a) 37·72 MPa
1 (b) 52·47 MPa
(c) (1 + µ)
2 (c) 61·12 MPa
1 (d) 76·72 MPa
(d) (1 – µ)
2
87. A shaft with a circular cross-section is 90. At which point on stress-strain graph,
subjected to pure twisting moment. does the specimen undergo an
The ratio of the maximum shear stress appreciable increase in length without
to the largest principal stress is further increase in load ?
(a) 2·0 (a) Limit of proportionality point
(b) Yield point
(b) 1·0
(c) Elastic limit point
(c) 0·5
(d) Ultimate stress point
(d) 0
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( C – 13 )
Text of page 54
91. Rankine’s formula applicable to any 95. Under stable equilibrium, no
column is substance can exist in the liquid state
(a) PR = PC + PE (a) At temperature below the triple
point temperature
(b) PR = 1/(PC + PE) (b) At pressure below the triple point
pressure
(c) (1/PR) = (1/PC) + (1/PE)
(c) At pressure above the triple point
(d) 1/PR = (1/PC) + PE pressure
(d) At temperature above the triple
point temperature
92. For steady incompressible flow
through an insulated horizontal
constant diameter pipe, which of the 96. Forced draught fans of a large steam
following properties remains constant? generator have
(a) Backward curved blades
(a) Volume
(b) Forward curved blades
(b) Enthalpy (c) Straight or radial blades
(c) Entropy (d) Double curved blades
(d) Internal energy
97. Match List-I (Boilers) with List-II
(Type/Description) and select the
93. The number of components (C),
correct answer using the codes given
phases (P) and degree of freedom (F)
below.
are related by Gibbs’s phase as
List-I List-II
(a) P–F=C–2
(Boiler) (Type/Description )
(b) P+F=C–2 A. Lancashire 1. Horizontal straight
tube, fire-tube boiler
(c) P+F+C=2 B. Benson 2. Horizontal straight
tube, water-tube
(d) P=C–F+2 boiler
C. Babcock and 3. Bent tube, water tube
Wilcox boiler
94. The specific volume of water when
D. Stirling 4. High pressure boiler
heated from 273·15 K
(a) First increases and then
Codes :
decreases
A B C D
(b) First decreases and then
(a) 4 2 1 3
increases
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) Steadily increases
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) Steadily decreases (d) 1 4 3 2
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( C – 14 )
Text of page 55
98. Which of the following are boiler SECTION B
mountings ?
101. A dealer paid a car manufacturer
1. Fusible plug
< 1,35,000 for a car. What should be
2. Blow-off valve the selling price of the car, if after
3. Steam trap allowing a buyer 10% discount on the
selling price, he made a profit of 8% on
4. Feed check valve his outlay ?
Select the correct answer using the (a) < 1,50,000
code given below : (b) < 1,60,000
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) < 1,62,000
(d) < 1,52,500
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 102. A, B, C and D play a game of cards. A
(d) 1, 2 and 4 says to B, “ If I give you 8 cards, you
will have as many as C has and I shall
have 3 less than what C has. Also, if I
99. Thermal boundary layer is a region take 6 cards from C, I shall have twice
where as many as D has.” If B and D together
(a) Heat dissipation is negligible have 50 cards, how many cards does C
have ?
(b) Heat dissipation is infinity
(a) 40
(c) Inertia and convection are of the
same order of magnitude (b) 37
(d) Convection and dissipation terms (c) 27
are of the same order of (d) 23
magnitude
103. Choose the alternative which closely
resembles the water image of the given
100. What is the value of Nusselt number combination/figure.
at the entry of a heated plate ? ADVANCE
(a) Zero (a)
(b) 4·36 (b)
(c) 3·66 (c)
(d) Infinity (d) None of the above
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( C – 15 )
Text of page 56
Directions for the following 3 (three) 107. Find the number which replaces the
questions : question mark :
Read the following information and answer
the three questions that follow :
Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared
in several tests. Either C or F score the (a) 15
highest. Whenever C scores the highest,
(b) 25
then E scores the least. Whenever F scores
the highest, B scores the least. In all the (c) 20
tests they got different marks — D scores (d) 40
higher than A, but they are close
competitors; A scores higher than B; C
scores higher than A.
108. A bus leaves Amritsar at 5 am and
104. If F stands second in the ranking, then
reaches Chandigarh at 9 am. Another
the position of B is
bus leaves Chandigarh at 7 am and
(a) Third reaches Amritsar at 10:30 am. At what
(b) Fourth time do the buses cross each other ?
(c) Fifth (a) 7:56 am
(d) Sixth (b) 7 am
(c) 6:56 am
105. If B scores the least, the rank of C will (d) 6:24 am
be
(a) Second
(b) Third 109. There are two numbers. When 20% of
(c) Fourth the first number is added to the second
number, the resultant number is
(d) Second or third
1·4 times the first number. What is the
ratio between the two numbers ?
106. If E is ranked third, then which one of
the following is correct ? (a) 7:8
(a) E gets more marks than C (b) 6:7
(b) C gets more marks than E (c) 4:5
(c) A is ranked fourth
(d) 5:6
(d) D is ranked fifth
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( C – 16 )
Text of page 57
110. Select the option that will fill in the 113. The establishment of three-tier
blank and complete the given series. Panchayati Raj System was originally
7, 26, 63, 124, 215, 342, 511, 728, ____. recommended by :
(a) Ashok Mehta Committee
(a) 990
(b) The Royal Commission on
(b) 1000 Decentralization
(c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(c) 1001
(d) V.N. Gadgil Committee
(d) 999
114. What is “oilzapper” ?
111. Match the following : (a) It is an eco-friendly technology
Nuclear Power State for the remediation of oily sludge
Project and oil spills
A. Narora 1. Uttar Pradesh
(b) It is the latest technology
B. Kakrapar 2. Karnataka developed for under-sea oil
C. Kudankulam 3. Gujarat exploration
D. Kaiga 4. Tamil Nadu (c) It is a genetically engineered high
Codes : biofuel-yielding maize variety
A B C D (d) It is the latest technology to
(a) 1 4 2 3 control the accidentally caused
(b) 1 3 4 2 flames from oil wells
(c) 3 1 4 2
115. Consider the following statements:
(d) 1 3 2 4
Statement I :
112. Banks classify the Non-Performing The Bluetooth technology is a wireless
alternative to data cables by
Assets (NPAs) in which of the
exchanging data using radio
following categories ?
transmission.
1. Substandard assets
Statement II :
2. Doubtful assets
The second generation or 2G allowed
3. Loss asset
for the introduction of analog phones
4. Risky asset such as SMS and email.
Select the correct answer from the Which of the above statement(s) is/are
code given below. correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Only II
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (b) Only I
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) Neither I nor II
(d) Both I and II
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( C – 17 )
Text of page 58
116. Which of the following diseases is/are 119. Harpoon, an all weather, anti-ship
not caused by bacteria ? missile system is sold to India by
(a) Typhoid (a) France
(b) Poliomyelitis (b) Russia
(c) Israel
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) USA
(d) All of the above
120. In which of the following activities are
117. The slogan “Complex Past: Diverse
Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites
Future” is with reference to
used ?
(a) National Culture Day
1. Telecommunications
(b) National Ekta Divas
2. Traffic control
(c) World Heritage Day
3. Mineral exploration
(d) Tourism Day
4. Locating ground water resources
5. Assessment of crop productivity
118. The first Indian woman cricketer to
score a century in Australia was Select the correct answer from the
code given below.
(a) Mithali Raj
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) Deepti Sharma
(b) 4 and 5 only
(c) Smriti Mandhana
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) Harmanpreet Kaur
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( C – 18 )
Text of page 59
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( C – 19 )
Text of page 60
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( C – 20 )
Text of page 61
Booklet Sr. No.
*0D*
Candidate’s Name ________________________________________________________
Father’s Name ____________________________________________________________
Date of Birth :
D D M M Y Y Y Y
OMR Response Sheet No. ____________________________________ Roll No. ___________________________
Candidate’s Signature : Total Questions : 120]
(Please sign in the box) Time Allowed : 2 Hours]
1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time he/she is told to do so by the Invigilation
Staff. However, in the meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and
subsequently fill the appropriate columns given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may
also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet,
supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in the
OMR sheet. Use of ink pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or
illegible or incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for
orthopedically/visually impaired candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, for marking
correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire
booklet to confirm that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly
and there are no blank pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then
the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and
obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.
6. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in
the relevant column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their
record regarding the change in the serial no. of Question booklet.
7. The question paper booklet has 20 pages.
8. The paper consists of total 300 marks. Each question shall carry 2.5 marks. There are four
options for each question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on
the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (0.5 marks for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the
candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before they start
answering the questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (D–1)
Text of page 62
SECTION A 5. The three types of hydraulic turbines,
in ascending order of flow rate are
1. Gimlet is a
(a) Pelton, Francis, Kaplan
(a) Striking tool (b) Francis, Kaplan, Pelton
(b) Boring tool (c) Pelton, Kaplan, Francis
(c) Reaming tool (d) Kaplan, Francis, Pelton
(d) Holding tool
6. The pressure of a liquid flowing
through a pump is raised from 1 bar to
2. The commonly used welding method 30 bar. The density of the liquid is
for welding of plastics is 990 kg/m3. The isoentropic specific
work done by the pump in kJ/kg is
(a) Electron beam welding
(a) 0·30
(b) Resistance welding
(b) 2·50
(c) Ultrasonic welding
(c) 2·93
(d) Arc welding
(d) 0·10
3. Difficulty faced during welding of 7. A beam is made up of two identical
aluminium is mainly due to bars AB and BC by hinging them at B.
Ends A and C are simply supported.
(a) Low density
With load P acting as shown, the
(b) High tendency of oxidation bending moment at B is
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) Low melting point
4. Helix angle of fast helix drill is
normally
(a) 5 degrees
(a) PL/4
(b) 35 degrees
(b) Zero
(c) 90 degrees
(c) 3PL/4
(d) 60 degrees
(d) PL
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (D–2)
Text of page 63
8. The second moment of a circular area 12. Euler’s buckling theory is applicable
about the diameter is given by (D is for
the diameter) (a) Medium long columns
4
πD (b) Long columns
(a)
64
(c) Short columns
πD 4
(b) (d) All of the above
16
πD 4
(c) 13. If the length of a column is doubled,
32
the critical load becomes
πD 4
(d) (a) 1/4 of the original value
4
(b) 1/16 of the original value
9. A thin cylinder of inner diameter
(c) 1/2 of the original value
1000 mm and thickness 10 mm is
subjected to an internal pressure of (d) 1/8 of the original value
5 MPa. The average hoop stress in
MPa is 14. Gas Turbine commonly works on
(a) 500 (a) Carnot cycle
(b) 250 (b) Brayton cycle
(c) 1000 (c) Otto cycle
(d) 200
(d) None of the above
10. The maximum theoretical value of
15. Lancashire boiler is
Poisson’s ratio is
(a) Infinity (a) Fire tube boiler
(b) 1 (b) Water tube boiler
(c) 0·707 (c) Locomotive boiler
(d) 0·5 (d) High pressure boiler
11. The stress induced in a body due to
16. Compression ratio for diesel engine
suddenly applied load compared to
may have a range of
when it is applied gradually is
(a) Same (a) 16 to 20
(b) Half (b) 10 to 15
(c) Two times (c) 8 to 10
(d) 2 times (d) 6 to 8
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (D–3)
Text of page 64
17. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good 21. The velocity ratio of two pulleys
steam power plant is in the range of connected by an open belt or crossed
(a) 10% – 15% belt is
(b) 55% – 60%
(c) 75% – 80% (a) Inversely proportional to the
(d) 35% – 45% square of their diameters
(b) Directly proportional to the
18. The initial position and velocity of a
simple harmonic oscillator are x0 = 4 m square of their diameters
and v0 = 3 m/sec respectively. If the
(c) Inversely proportional to their
amplitude is 5 m, then the angular
diameters
frequency of oscillation is ____ rad/sec.
(a) 1 (d) Directly proportional to their
(b) 2 diameters
(c) 3
(d) Zero
19. The natural frequency of an undamped 22. In a spring mass system, if the mass is
vibrating system is 10 rad/sec. A halved and the spring stiffness is
damper with a damping factor of 0·6 is doubled, the natural frequency is
introduced into the system. The
(a) Halved
frequency of the damped system, in
rad/sec, is (b) Doubled
(a) 8
(b) 6 (c) Unchanged
(c) 10
(d) Quadrupled
(d) 4
20. A shaft runs at 40 rpm and drives
another shaft at 75 rpm through belt 23. The type of gear train used in an
drive. The diameter of the driving automobile differential is
pulley is 600 mm. Neglecting belt
thickness and belt slip, the diameter of (a) Simple
the driven pulley is ____ mm.
(b) Compound
(a) 160
(b) 320 (c) Epicyclic
(c) 640
(d) Reverted
(d) None of the above
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (D–4)
Text of page 65
24. The length in isometric drawing of line 29. Zn and Mg have the following crystal
is 25 cm. What is the true length of it ? structure
(a) 33·77 cm
(a) B.C.C.
(b) 32·45 cm
(b) F.C.C.
(c) 30·68 cm
(d) 24·53 cm (c) Diamond Cubic
(d) H.C.P
25. What type of material is Gold ?
(a) Ferroelectric
(b) Ferromagnetic
30. A block of mass m rests on an inclined
(c) Diamagnetic plane and is attached by a string to the
(d) Paramagnetic wall as shown in the figure. The
coefficient of static friction between the
26. Austenite decomposes into ferrite and plane and the block is 0·5. The string
cementite at a temperature of
can withstand a maximum force of
(a) 727 C 30 N. What is the maximum value of
(b) 1148 C mass (m) for which the string will not
(c) 1495 C break and the block will be in static
(d) 1539 C equilibrium ?
cos θ = 0.8, sin θ = 0·6, g = 10 m/s2.
27. A steel with 0·8% carbon and
100% pearlite is called
(a) Eutectoid steel
(b) Hypo-eutectoid steel
(c) Hyper eutectoid steel
(d) Pro-eutectoid steel
28. Brass is an alloy of
(a) Copper and Zinc (a) 5 kg
(b) Copper and Tin
(b) 10 kg
(c) Copper, Tin and Zinc
(c) 15 kg
(d) None of the above
(d) 20 kg
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (D–5)
Text of page 66
31. A stone of mass m at the end of a 35. Pyrometer is used to measure the
string of length Ɩ is whirled in a temperature of
vertical circle at a constant speed. The (a) Furnace
tension in the string will be maximum
(b) Human body
when the stone is
(c) Environment
(a) At the top of the circle (d) Ice
(b) Half way down from the top
36. Swaging is an operation of
(c) Quarter way down from the top
(a) Hot rolling
(d) At the bottom of the circle
(b) Forging
(c) Extrusion
32. A radius gauge is also known as
(d) Piercing
(a) Fillet gauge
(b) Snap gauge 37. The operation of producing cup shaped
parts from flat sheet metal blanks by
(c) Feeler gauge
bending and plastic flow of metal is
(d) Slip gauge known as
(a) Coining
33. An error of 5% occurred during the
(b) Planishing
measurement of the dia of a cylindrical
(c) Squeezing
part. The likely error in the calculated
weight of the part is approximately (d) Drawing
(a) 10%
38. Pinch effect in welding is the result of
(b) 5% (a) Surface tension of the molten
(c) 1% metal
(b) Shielding
(d) 7·5%
(c) Expansion of gases in the arc
34. The algebraic difference between (d) Electromagnetic forces
upper and lower range value of the
instrument is called 39. The distance from the joint root to the
toe of the weld is called
(a) Span
(a) Face
(b) Range
(b) Leg
(c) Error (c) Effective throat
(d) Sensitivity (d) Actual throat
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (D–6)
Text of page 67
40. A plate 50 mm wide and 12.5 mm thick 44. A straight teeth slab milling cutter of
is to be welded to another plate by 100 mm diameter and 10 teeth
means of parallel fillet welds. The rotating at 200 r.p.m. is used to
plates are subjected to a load of 50 kN. remove a layer of 3 mm thickness from
If allowable shear strength is to be a steel bar. If the table feed is
56 MPa, then the length of the weld 400 mm/minute, the feed per tooth in
will be this operation will be
(a) 51·5 mm
(a) 0.2 mm
(b) 50·5 mm
(c) 49·5 mm (b) 0.4 mm
(d) 52·5 mm (c) 0.5 mm
41. In arc welding operation, the current (d) 0.6 mm
value is decided by
(a) Thickness of plate 45. The gauge pressure inside a raindrop
(b) Length of welded portion of diameter d1 and surface tension σ1 is
(c) Voltage across the arc P1. For the same gauge pressure inside
(d) Size of the electrode a drop of diameter d2 = 2d1, what will
be the value of surface tension σ2 ?
42. Two stainless steel foils of 0·1 mm (a) σ1 = σ2
thickness are to be joined. Which of the
following would be best suited ? (b) σ1 = 2σ2
(a) Gas welding
(c) 2σ1 = σ2
(b) TIG welding
(c) MIG welding (d) 4σ1 = σ2
(d) Plasma welding
46. When can a piezometer not be used for
43. Find the tool life equation, if a tool life pressure measurement in pipes ?
at 80 min is obtained at a cutting
speed of 30 m/min and 8 min at (a) The pressure difference is low
60 m/min
(b) The velocity is high
(a) VT0·3 = C
(c) The fluid in the pipe is a gas
(b) VT0·7 = C
(c) VT0·5 = C (d) The fluid in the pipe is highly
(d) VT0·4 = C viscous
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (D–7)
Text of page 68
47. Impulse turbines are 51. Two beams, one having square
(a) Low head and low specific speed cross-section and another circular
turbine cross-section, are subjected to the
same amount of bending moment. If
(b) Low head and high specific speed
the cross-sectional area as well as the
turbine
material of both the beams are the
(c) High head and high specific speed same then
turbine (a) Maximum bending stress
(d) High head and low specific speed developed in both the beams is
turbine the same
(b) The circular beam experiences
48. The discharge through a single acting more bending stress than the
reciprocating pump is square one
(c) The square beam experiences
(a) Q = ALN
more bending stress than the
(b) Q = ALN/60 circular one
(c) Q = 2ALN/60 (d) As the material is same both the
beams will experience same
(d) Q = 2ALN deformation
49. In terms of Poisson’s ratio (µ), the ratio 52. A solid circular shaft of 5 cm diameter
of Young’s Modulus (E) to Shear transmits a torque of 1·5 kNm. The
Modulus (G) of elastic materials is value of maximum shear stress
(a) 2 (1 – µ) developed is
(b) 2 (1 + µ) (a) 37·72 MPa
1 (b) 52·47 MPa
(c) (1 + µ)
2 (c) 61·12 MPa
1 (d) 76·72 MPa
(d) (1 – µ)
2
50. A shaft with a circular cross-section is 53. At which point on stress-strain graph,
subjected to pure twisting moment. does the specimen undergo an
The ratio of the maximum shear stress appreciable increase in length without
to the largest principal stress is further increase in load ?
(a) 2·0 (a) Limit of proportionality point
(b) Yield point
(b) 1·0
(c) Elastic limit point
(c) 0·5
(d) Ultimate stress point
(d) 0
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (D–8)
Text of page 69
54. Rankine’s formula applicable to any 58. Under stable equilibrium, no
column is substance can exist in the liquid state
(a) PR = PC + PE (a) At temperature below the triple
point temperature
(b) PR = 1/(PC + PE) (b) At pressure below the triple point
pressure
(c) (1/PR) = (1/PC) + (1/PE)
(c) At pressure above the triple point
(d) 1/PR = (1/PC) + PE pressure
(d) At temperature above the triple
point temperature
55. For steady incompressible flow
through an insulated horizontal
constant diameter pipe, which of the 59. Forced draught fans of a large steam
following properties remains constant? generator have
(a) Backward curved blades
(a) Volume
(b) Forward curved blades
(b) Enthalpy (c) Straight or radial blades
(c) Entropy (d) Double curved blades
(d) Internal energy
60. Match List-I (Boilers) with List-II
(Type/Description) and select the
56. The number of components (C),
correct answer using the codes given
phases (P) and degree of freedom (F)
below.
are related by Gibbs’s phase as
List-I List-II
(a) P–F=C–2
(Boiler) (Type/Description )
(b) P+F=C–2 A. Lancashire 1. Horizontal straight
tube, fire-tube boiler
(c) P+F+C=2 B. Benson 2. Horizontal straight
tube, water-tube
(d) P=C–F+2 boiler
C. Babcock and 3. Bent tube, water tube
Wilcox boiler
57. The specific volume of water when
D. Stirling 4. High pressure boiler
heated from 273·15 K
(a) First increases and then
Codes :
decreases
A B C D
(b) First decreases and then
(a) 4 2 1 3
increases
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) Steadily increases
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) Steadily decreases (d) 1 4 3 2
JE (Mechanical) 2021 (D–9)
Text of page 70
61. Which of the following are boiler 64. The two reference fuels used for cetane
mountings ? rating are
1. Fusible plug (a) Cetane and iso-octane
2. Blow-off valve (b) Cetane and tetraethyl lead
3. Steam trap (c) Cetane and n-heptane
4. Feed check valve
(d) Cetane and α-methyl
Select the correct answer using the naphthalene
code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4 65. By higher octane number of SI fuel, it
is meant that the fuel has
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(a) Higher heating value
(d) 1, 2 and 4
(b) Higher flash point
(c) Lower volatility
62. Thermal boundary layer is a region
where (d) Longer ignition delay
(a) Heat dissipation is negligible
(b) Heat dissipation is infinity
66. Diesel knock can be reduced by
(c) Inertia and convection are of the
same order of magnitude 1. Increasing the compression ratio
(d) Convection and dissipation terms 2. Increasing the engine speed
are of the same order of 3. Increasing the injection retard
magnitude 4. Decreasing the inlet air
temperature
Which of these statements are
63. What is the value of Nusselt number correct ?
at the entry of a heated plate ?
(a) Only 2 and 4
(a) Zero
(b) Only 1, 2 and 3
(b) 4·36
(c) 3·66 (c) Only 1 and 3
(d) Infinity (d) All of the above
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( D – 10 )
Text of page 71
67. In a pulley and belt drive, the velocity 70. If two nodes are observed at a
of belt for maximum power frequency of 900 rpm during whirling
transmission is of simply supported long slender
rotating shaft, the first critical speed of
T the shaft in rpm is
(a)
m
(a) 100
m (b) 200
(b)
T
(c) 300
T (d) 400
(c)
3m
71. A differential gear in an automobile is
3m
(d) a/an
T
(a) Simple gear train
(b) Speed reducer
68. The equilibrium speed of a governor (c) Compound gear train
varies from 35 rpm to 25 rpm. Find the
(d) Epicyclic gear train
sensitiveness of the governor.
(a) 0·13 72. Calculate the length of the scale
required to measure up to 25 km with
(b) 0·23
the representative factor 1 : 50000.
(c) 0·33
(a) 5 10–4 cm
(d) 0·43 (b) 50 cm
(c) 5 cm
69. A vibratory system consists of a mass (d) 0·5 cm
12 kg, a spring of stiffness 1200 N/m,
and a dashpot with damping 73. The side view, top view and front view
coefficient of 12 Ns/m. The value of of a regular pentagonal prism placed
critical damping (Ns/m) and damping axis perpendicular to vertical plane
ratio respectively of the system are are
(a) 0·24 and 0·04 (a) rectangle, rectangle and pentagon
(b) pentagon, rectangle and rectangle
(b) 24 and 0·04
(c) pentagon, rectangle and pentagon
(c) 240 and 0·05
(d) rectangle, pentagon and rectangle
(d) 2400 and 0·05
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( D – 11 )
Text of page 72
74. The soft solder used for soldering 78. An object of mass 2 kg is sliding with a
process contains _________ percent of constant velocity of 4 m/s on a
lead. frictionless horizontal table. The force
(a) 50 required to keep the object moving
with the same velocity is
(b) 75
(a) 32 N
(c) 99
(d) 30 (b) 8N
(c) 16 N
75. For hypoeutectoid steels, the
normalizing process is done by heating (d) 0N
the steel __________ its upper critical
temperature.
79. With what principle does the
(a) 30C – 40C above
Taylor-Hobson-Talysurf tester work
(b) 30C – 40C below for the measurement of surface
(c) 50C – 60C above roughness ?
(d) 50C – 60C below (a) Capacitive demodulating
principle
76. Thermosetting plastics are formed by
(b) Intensity modulating principle
(a) Step polymerization
(c) Inductive modulating principle
(b) Suspension polymerization
(c) Emulsion polymerization (d) Carrier modulating principle
(d) Co-ordination polymerization
80. Under optimal conditions of the
77. If the tension in a cable supporting a
process the temperature experienced
lift moving upwards is twice the
by a copper work piece in fusion
tension when the lift is moving
welding, brazing and soldering are
downwards, the acceleration of the lift
such that
in terms of acceleration due to gravity
‘g’ is given by (a) Twelding > Tsoldering > Tbrazing
(a) g (b) Tsoldering > Twelding > Tbrazing
(b) g/2 (c) Twelding > Tbrazing > Tsoldering
(c) g/3
(d) Tbrazing > Tsoldering > Twelding
(d) g/4
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( D – 12 )
Text of page 73
81. The type of metal forming process used 85. A body is subjected to a tensile stress
for making the short length tubes like of 1200 MPa on one plane and another
tooth paste tube and gun shells are tensile stress of 600 MPa on a plane at
manufactured by right angles to the former. It is also
(a) Hydrostatic extrusion subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa
on the same planes. The maximum
(b) Indirect extrusion
normal stress will be
(c) Direct extrusion
(a) 400 MPa
(d) Continuous extrusion
(b) 500 MPa
(c) 900 MPa
82. What is the range of percent of the
(d) 1400 MPa
abrasives recommended in general for
abrasive slurry during ultrasonic 86. The expression EI d2y/dx2 at a section
machining process ? of a member represents for analyzing
(a) 10 – 15% the beams
(b) 15 – 20% (a) Shearing force
(c) 25 – 30% (b) Rate of loading
(d) 30 – 35% (c) Bending moment
(d) Slope
83. Mercury is considered as the best
liquid to be used for pressure 87. The equation for polytropic index can
measuring device manometers because be calculated by
it has
(a) ln(P2/P1)/ln(V2/V1)
(a) low vapour pressure and high
density (b) ln(V2/V1)/ln(P2/P1)
(b) high vapour pressure and high (c) ln(P1/P2)/ln(V2/V1)
density
(d) ln(V2/V1)/ln(P1/P2)
(c) low surface tension
(d) high density and low viscosity 88. An inventor claims that his heat
engine has the following specifications:
Power developed = 50 kW; Fuel burnt
84. The mean effective pressure of diesel
per hour = 3 kg; Temperature
cycle for the fixed compression ratio
limits = 627C and 27C. The engine
will increase if the cut off ratio
operation is
(a) Increases first and then decreases
(a) Possible
(b) Decreases (b) Impossible
(c) Remains same (c) Ideal
(d) Increases (d) Expensive
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( D – 13 )
Text of page 74
89. The following is considered as best 93. The un-sprung mass in a vehicle
antifreeze solution system is mainly composed of
(a) Ethylene glycol
(a) Axle and the parts attached to it
(b) Distilled glycerine
(c) Methanol (b) Gear box and propeller shaft
(d) Denatured alcohol
(c) Engine and its associated parts
90. If the rotating mass of a rim type (d) The frame assembly
flywheel is distributed on another rim
type flywheel whose radius is half the
mean radius of the former, then energy 94. Dimension line is
stored in the latter at the same speed
(a) Chain thin
will be
(a) four times the first one (b) Continuous thick
(b) same as the first one (c) Zigzag
(c) one-fourth of the first one
(d) Continuous thin
(d) one and half times of the first one
91. In a vibrating system the spring
stiffness has 32 N/m and the mass is 95. Hatching lines are drawn at an angle
2 kg. The system is having a damper of _______ degree to the main outline
whose coefficient of damping is of the section.
8 N-s/m. Then the system is said to be (a) 45
(a) Over damped system
(b) Under damped system (b) 60
(c) Undamped system (c) 75
(d) Critical damped system
(d) 15
92. The most and important function of a
suspension system in the automobile is
to 96. Grey cast iron has carbon percentage
(a) Ensure that the steering wheel in the range
can deliver the required steering
(a) 9 to 10 percent
(b) Ensure that wheel alignment is
not disturbed during driving
(b) 3 to 4 percent
(c) Automatically correct the effects
of over steering (c) 6 to 7 percent
(d) Absorb vibration and impact
forces from the road surface (d) 1 to 2 percent
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( D – 14 )
Text of page 75
97. The area under stress-strain curve up SECTION B
to elastic limit indicates which
101. What is “oilzapper” ?
mechanical property ?
(a) It is an eco-friendly technology
(a) Toughness for the remediation of oily sludge
and oil spills
(b) Ductility
(b) It is the latest technology
(c) Resilience developed for under-sea oil
exploration
(d) None of the above
(c) It is a genetically engineered high
biofuel-yielding maize variety
98. The resultant of two forces P and 2P,
(d) It is the latest technology to
acting at a point, is perpendicular to P.
control the accidentally caused
The angle between the forces is
flames from oil wells
__________ degrees.
102. Consider the following statements:
(a) 120
Statement I :
(b) 90
The Bluetooth technology is a wireless
(c) 45 alternative to data cables by
exchanging data using radio
(d) 135
transmission.
Statement II :
99. The dimensions of shaft and hole are The second generation or 2G allowed
40 00..010
000 and 40 00..020
000 respectively. for the introduction of analog phones
such as SMS and email.
The assembly will result in
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
(a) Drive fit correct ?
(b) Transition fit (a) Only II
(c) Interference fit (b) Only I
(d) Clearance fit (c) Neither I nor II
(d) Both I and II
100. Friction at the tool-chip interface can
103. Which of the following diseases is/are
be reduced by
not caused by bacteria ?
(a) Increasing the cutting speed
(a) Typhoid
(b) Increasing the depth of cut (b) Poliomyelitis
(c) Decreasing the rake angle (c) Tuberculosis
(d) Decreasing the cutting speed (d) All of the above
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( D – 15 )
Text of page 76
104. The slogan “Complex Past: Diverse 108. A dealer paid a car manufacturer
Future” is with reference to < 1,35,000 for a car. What should be
(a) National Culture Day the selling price of the car, if after
allowing a buyer 10% discount on the
(b) National Ekta Divas
selling price, he made a profit of 8% on
(c) World Heritage Day
his outlay ?
(d) Tourism Day
(a) < 1,50,000
105. The first Indian woman cricketer to (b) < 1,60,000
score a century in Australia was (c) < 1,62,000
(a) Mithali Raj
(d) < 1,52,500
(b) Deepti Sharma
(c) Smriti Mandhana
(d) Harmanpreet Kaur 109. A, B, C and D play a game of cards. A
says to B, “ If I give you 8 cards, you
106. Harpoon, an all weather, anti-ship will have as many as C has and I shall
missile system is sold to India by have 3 less than what C has. Also, if I
(a) France take 6 cards from C, I shall have twice
(b) Russia as many as D has.” If B and D together
(c) Israel have 50 cards, how many cards does C
have ?
(d) USA
(a) 40
107. In which of the following activities are (b) 37
Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites
used ? (c) 27
1. Telecommunications (d) 23
2. Traffic control
3. Mineral exploration 110. Choose the alternative which closely
4. Locating ground water resources resembles the water image of the given
5. Assessment of crop productivity combination/figure.
Select the correct answer from the ADVANCE
code given below.
(a)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b)
(b) 4 and 5 only
(c)
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) None of the above
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( D – 16 )
Text of page 77
Directions for the following 3 (three) 114. Find the number which replaces the
questions : question mark :
Read the following information and answer
the three questions that follow :
Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared
in several tests. Either C or F score the (a) 15
highest. Whenever C scores the highest,
(b) 25
then E scores the least. Whenever F scores
the highest, B scores the least. In all the (c) 20
tests they got different marks — D scores (d) 40
higher than A, but they are close
competitors; A scores higher than B; C
scores higher than A.
115. A bus leaves Amritsar at 5 am and
111. If F stands second in the ranking, then
reaches Chandigarh at 9 am. Another
the position of B is
bus leaves Chandigarh at 7 am and
(a) Third reaches Amritsar at 10:30 am. At what
(b) Fourth time do the buses cross each other ?
(c) Fifth (a) 7:56 am
(d) Sixth (b) 7 am
(c) 6:56 am
112. If B scores the least, the rank of C will (d) 6:24 am
be
(a) Second
(b) Third 116. There are two numbers. When 20% of
(c) Fourth the first number is added to the second
number, the resultant number is
(d) Second or third
1·4 times the first number. What is the
ratio between the two numbers ?
113. If E is ranked third, then which one of
the following is correct ? (a) 7:8
(a) E gets more marks than C (b) 6:7
(b) C gets more marks than E (c) 4:5
(c) A is ranked fourth
(d) 5:6
(d) D is ranked fifth
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( D – 17 )
Text of page 78
117. Select the option that will fill in the 119. Banks classify the Non-Performing
blank and complete the given series. Assets (NPAs) in which of the
7, 26, 63, 124, 215, 342, 511, 728, ____. following categories ?
1. Substandard assets
(a) 990
2. Doubtful assets
(b) 1000 3. Loss asset
(c) 1001 4. Risky asset
Select the correct answer from the
(d) 999 code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
118. Match the following : (b) 2, 3 and 4
Nuclear Power State (c) 1, 3 and 4
Project (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A. Narora 1. Uttar Pradesh
B. Kakrapar 2. Karnataka 120. The establishment of three-tier
C. Kudankulam 3. Gujarat Panchayati Raj System was originally
D. Kaiga 4. Tamil Nadu recommended by :
Codes : (a) Ashok Mehta Committee
A B C D (b) The Royal Commission on
(a) 1 4 2 3 Decentralization
(b) 1 3 4 2 (c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) V.N. Gadgil Committee
(d) 1 3 2 4
JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( D – 18 )
Text of page 79
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( D – 19 )
Text of page 80
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK JE (Mechanical) 2021 ( D – 20 )
Text of page 1
PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
RECRUITMENT TO VARIOUS POSTS OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (MECHANICAL)
IN VARIOUS DEPARTMENTS,GOVERNMENT OF PUNJAB.
JOINT COMPETITIVE EXAM DATE: 19/12/2021 REVISED ANSWER KEY SET - [A]
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
Q.No. Answer
1 C 26 B 51 A 76 B 101 B
2 C 27 B 52 C 77 A 102 A
3 A 28 B 53 A 78 B 103 C
4 A 29 C 54 C 79 C 104 A
5 A 30 B 55 D 80 B 105 B
6 D 31 C 56 D 81 B 106 B
7 C 32 B 57 C 82 A 107 C
8 D 33 D 58 B 83 C 108 C
9 A 34 B 59 D 84 B 109 D
10 A 35 B 60 A 85 A 110 C
11 A 36 A 61 D 86 B 111 C
12 A 37 B 62 D 87 D 112 *
13 B 38 D 63 C 88 C 113 B
14 D 39 D 64 C 89 B 114 C
15 D 40 D 65 * 90 A 115 D
16 B 41 D 66 A 91 B 116 B
17 B 42 D 67 C 92 A 117 C
18 D 43 C 68 B 93 A 118 A
19 D 44 C 69 D 94 D 119 D
20 A 45 C 70 A 95 A 120 D
21 A 46 C 71 D 96 A
22 C 47 A 72 A 97 B
23 C 48 D 73 B 98 C
24 D 49 B 74 C 99 B
25 B 50 A 75 A 100 C
Sd/-
DATE : February 02, 2022 SECRETARY [ EXAMINATIONS ]
Text of page 2
PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
RECRUITMENT TO VARIOUS POSTS OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (MECHANICAL)
IN VARIOUS DEPARTMENTS,GOVERNMENT OF PUNJAB.
JOINT COMPETITIVE EXAM DATE: 19/12/2021 REVISED ANSWER KEY SET - [B]
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
Q.No. Answer
1 D 26 B 51 C 76 B 101 C
2 B 27 A 52 A 77 C 102 C
3 B 28 A 53 B 78 C 103 D
4 B 29 C 54 A 79 C 104 C
5 B 30 A 55 B 80 A 105 C
6 C 31 C 56 C 81 A 106 *
7 B 32 D 57 B 82 A 107 B
8 C 33 D 58 B 83 D 108 C
9 B 34 C 59 A 84 C 109 D
10 D 35 B 60 C 85 D 110 B
11 B 36 D 61 B 86 A 111 C
12 B 37 A 62 A 87 A 112 A
13 A 38 D 63 B 88 A 113 D
14 B 39 D 64 D 89 A 114 D
15 D 40 C 65 C 90 B 115 B
16 D 41 C 66 B 91 D 116 A
17 D 42 * 67 A 92 D 117 C
18 D 43 A 68 B 93 B 118 A
19 D 44 C 69 A 94 B 119 B
20 C 45 B 70 A 95 D 120 B
21 C 46 D 71 D 96 D
22 C 47 A 72 A 97 A
23 C 48 D 73 A 98 A
24 A 49 A 74 B 99 C
25 D 50 B 75 C 100 C
Sd/-
DATE : February 02, 2022 SECRETARY [ EXAMINATIONS ]
Text of page 3
PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
RECRUITMENT TO VARIOUS POSTS OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (MECHANICAL)
IN VARIOUS DEPARTMENTS,GOVERNMENT OF PUNJAB.
JOINT COMPETITIVE EXAM DATE: 19/12/2021 REVISED ANSWER KEY SET - [C]
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
Q.No. Answer
1 D 26 A 51 B 76 B 101 C
2 D 27 C 52 A 77 B 102 *
3 C 28 B 53 A 78 D 103 B
4 C 29 D 54 D 79 D 104 C
5 C 30 A 55 A 80 A 105 D
6 C 31 D 56 A 81 A 106 B
7 A 32 A 57 B 82 C 107 C
8 D 33 B 58 C 83 C 108 A
9 B 34 C 59 B 84 D 109 D
10 A 35 A 60 C 85 B 110 D
11 A 36 B 61 C 86 B 111 B
12 C 37 A 62 C 87 B 112 A
13 A 38 B 63 A 88 B 113 C
14 C 39 C 64 A 89 C 114 A
15 D 40 B 65 A 90 B 115 B
16 D 41 B 66 D 91 C 116 B
17 C 42 A 67 C 92 B 117 C
18 B 43 C 68 D 93 D 118 C
19 D 44 B 69 A 94 B 119 D
20 A 45 A 70 A 95 B 120 C
21 D 46 B 71 A 96 A
22 D 47 D 72 A 97 B
23 C 48 C 73 B 98 D
24 C 49 B 74 D 99 D
25 * 50 A 75 D 100 D
Sd/-
DATE : February 02, 2022 SECRETARY [ EXAMINATIONS ]
Text of page 4
PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
RECRUITMENT TO VARIOUS POSTS OF JUNIOR ENGINEER (MECHANICAL)
IN VARIOUS DEPARTMENTS,GOVERNMENT OF PUNJAB.
JOINT COMPETITIVE EXAM DATE: 19/12/2021 REVISED ANSWER KEY SET - [D]
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
Q.No. Answer
1 B 26 A 51 B 76 A 101 A
2 C 27 A 52 C 77 C 102 B
3 B 28 A 53 B 78 D 103 B
4 B 29 D 54 C 79 D 104 C
5 A 30 C 55 B 80 C 105 C
6 C 31 D 56 D 81 B 106 D
7 B 32 A 57 B 82 D 107 C
8 A 33 A 58 B 83 A 108 C
9 B 34 A 59 A 84 D 109 *
10 D 35 A 60 B 85 D 110 B
11 C 36 B 61 D 86 C 111 C
12 B 37 D 62 D 87 C 112 D
13 A 38 D 63 D 88 * 113 B
14 B 39 B 64 D 89 A 114 C
15 A 40 B 65 D 90 C 115 A
16 A 41 D 66 C 91 B 116 D
17 D 42 D 67 C 92 D 117 D
18 A 43 A 68 C 93 A 118 B
19 A 44 A 69 C 94 D 119 A
20 B 45 C 70 A 95 A 120 C
21 C 46 C 71 D 96 B
22 B 47 D 72 B 97 C
23 C 48 B 73 A 98 A
24 C 49 B 74 A 99 B
25 C 50 B 75 C 100 A
Sd/-
DATE : February 02, 2022 SECRETARY [ EXAMINATIONS ]Page 1 of 80
Source: Punjab Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Punjab Public Service Commission.