TS SET 2012: Paper II, Computer Scienceand Applications
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Test Paper : II
Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________
Test Subject : COMPUTER SCIENCE
OMR Sheet No. : ________________________________
AND APPLICATIONS
Hall Ticket No.
Test Subject Code : A-04-02 (Figures as per admission card)
Name & Signature of Invigilator
Name : ____________________________________ Signature : ___________________________________
Paper : II
Subject : COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦ËMæü$ çÜ*^èþ¯èþË$
1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top 1. D ç³#r ò³O ¿êVæü ÌZ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Ò$ çàÌý sìýMðüsý ¯èþ ºÆæÿ$ Æ>Äæý$ yìþ.
of this page. 2. D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Äæý*¿ñýO ºçßý$âñýO_eMæü {ç³Ôèý²Ë¯èþ$ MæüÍW E ¨.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. ç³Èæü {´ëÆæÿ ¿æýÐèþ$$¯èþ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ò$Mæü$ CÐèþÓºyæþ$èþ$ ¨. Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open
°Ñ$çÙÐèþ$$ËÌZ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ðþÇ_ Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ A Ôé˯èþ$ èþç³µ°çÜÇV>
the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below :
çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ.
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper (i) D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ^èþ*yæþyé°Mìü MæüÐèþÆÿõ³h A ^èþ$¯èþ E¯èþ² M>Wèþç³# ïÜË$¯èþ$
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without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. Ò$Ææÿ$ A XMæüÇ ^èþÐèþ§æþ$ª.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in (ii) MæüÐèþÆæÿ$ õ³h ò³O Ðèþ$${¨ _¯èþ çÜÐèþ*^éÆæÿ {ç³M>Ææÿ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ° õ³iË
the booklet with the information printed on the cover çÜ Qůèþ$ Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ {ç³Ôèý²Ë çÜ Qůèþ$ çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ. õ³iË çÜ QÅMæü$
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing çÜ º «¨ _ V>± Ìôý§é çÜ*_ _¯èþ çÜ QÅÌZ {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é °f{ç³
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other M>Mæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ {MæüÐèþ$糧æþ®ÌZ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é HÐðþO¯é óþyéË$ yæþ$r
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a Ðèþ sìý §øçÙç³NÇèþÐðþ$O¯èþ {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°² Ððþ r¯óþ Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$ °Ñ$ÚëÌZÏ ç³È>
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$°Mìü ÇW C_aÐóþíÜ §é°Mìü º§æþ$Ë$V> çÜÇV>Y E¯èþ² {ç³Ôèý²ç³{é°² ¡çÜ$Mø yìþ.
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet èþ§æþ¯èþ èþÆæÿ {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ðèþ*Ææÿaºyæþ§æþ$ A§æþ¯èþç³# çÜÐèþ$Äæý$ CÐèþÓºyæþ§æþ$.
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) ò³O Ñ«§æþ V> çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mö¯èþ² èþÆ>Óèþ {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþ çÜ Qůèþ$ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number A§óþÑ«§æþ V> OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ çÜ Qůèþ$ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °ÇªçÙtt çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Æ>Äæý$ÐèþÌñý¯èþ$.
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet 4. {ç³ {ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ ¯éË$Væü$ {ç³éÅÐèþ*²Äæý$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþË$ (A), (B), (C) Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ (D)
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. Ë$V> CÐèþÓºyézÆÿ$$. {ç³{ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ G¯èþ$²Mö° Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ {ç³ {ç³Ôé² çÜ QÅMæü$ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ ¯éË$Væü$ Ðèþé¢ÌZÏ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ çÜ*_ ^óþ Ðèþ颰² »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þø Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
correct response against each item. ç³NÇ ^éÍ.
Example : A B C D E§éçßýÆæÿ×ý : A B C D
where (C) is the correct response. (C) çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ AÆÿ$$óþ
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet 5. {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ˯èþ$ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ø CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O¯èþ
given to you. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ Ðèþé¢ÌZϯóþ ç³NÇ _ Væü$Ç¢ ^éÍ. AÌêM>Mæü çÜÐèþ*«§é¯èþ ç³{èþ ò³O ÐóþÆöMæü ^ør
the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. Væü$Ç¢õÜ¢ Ò$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ Ðèþ$*ÌêÅ Mæü¯èþ ^óþÄæý$ºyæþ§æþ$.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 6. {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ÌZç³Ë C_a¯èþ çÜ*^èþ¯èþ˯èþ$ gê{Væüèþ¢V> ^èþ§æþÐèþ yìþ.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 7. _èþ$¢ç³°° {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ _ÐèþÆæÿ C_a¯èþ RêäçܦËÐèþ$$ÌZ ^óþÄæý*Í.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR 8. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °È~èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ çÜ*_ ^èþÐèþËíܯèþ ÑÐèþÆ>Ë$ èþí³µ _ CèþÆæÿ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant Ò$ Væü$Ç¢ ç³#¯èþ$ ðþÍõ³ Ñ«§æþ V> Ò$ õ³Ææÿ$ Æ>Äæý$yæþ V>± Ìôý§é CèþÆæÿ _à²Ë¯èþ$ ò³rtyæþ
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself V>± ^óþíܯèþrÏÆÿ$$óþ Ò$ A¯èþÆæÿáèþMæü$ Ò$Æóÿ »ê«§æþ$ÅËÐèþ#éÆæÿ$.
liable to disqualification.
9. çç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆ>Óèþ Ò$ {ç³Ôèý²ç³{é°² Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ OMR ç³{é°² èþç³µ°çÜÇV>
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer
Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily
ç³Èæüç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$yìþMìü CÐéÓÍ. Ðésìý° ç³Èæü Væü¨ ºÄæý$rMæü$ ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏMæü*yæþ§æþ$.
and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. ±Í/¯è þËÏ Ææÿ Væü$ »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þ Ðèþ*{èþÐóþ$ Eç³Äñý*W ^éÍ.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ÌêVæüÇ£æþÐþ$ sôýº$ÌýÞ, M>ÅÍMæü$ÅÌôýrÆÿË$, GË[M>t°Mü ç³ÇMæüÆ>Ë$ Ððþ$$§æþËVæü$¯èþÑ ç³ÈæüVæü¨ÌZ
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. Eç³Äñý*W ^èþyæþ °õÙ«§æþ .
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. èþç³ çÜÐèþ*«§é¯éËMæü$ Ðèþ*Ææÿ$PË èþWY ç³# Ìôý§æþ$.
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COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
Paper – II
1. Function overloading is done at 4. An EDP auditor must be an expert in
(A) Computerised Business Systems
(A) Compile time
(B) Computerised System Analysis
(B) Run time (C) Computerised Accounting Analysis
(D) Computerised Program Analysis
(C) Linking time
5. If no exception is thrown
(D) Execution time
(A) A catch block will cause an error
2. OLAP is an acronym for (B) The first catch block coded will
execute
(A) Online Analytical Project
(C) The last catch block coded will
execute
(B) Online Analytical Processing
(D) All catch blocks coded will be
(C) Online Application Processing bypassed
(D) Online Application Project 6. Consider the following pseudo-code :
IF ((A > B) AND (C > D)) THEN
3. Architectural design involves in SE
A=A+1
B=B+1
(A) E-R diagram
ENDIF
(B) Flow-chart The cyclomatic complexity of the
pseudo-code is
(C) Algorithm
(A) 2 (B) 3
(D) DFD (C) 4 (D) 5
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7. Which of the following testing methods is 9. Match the following :
normally used as the acceptance test for 1. Data Link Layer i. The lowest
layer whose
a software system ?
function is to
(A) Regression testing activate, deactivate
(B) Integration testing and maintain the
circuit between
(C) Unit testing DTE and DCE
(D) Functional testing 2. Physical Layer ii. Perform routing
3. Presentation iii. Detection and
8. Match the following
Layer recovery of errors
in the transmitted
I. The beginning of the
data
function code 1. ( )
4. Network Layer iv. Provides syntax
for the data
II. The preprocessor directive
always starts with 2. & (A) 1 – iii, 2 – i, 3 – iv, 4 – ii
(B) 1 – ii, 2 – i, 3 – iv, 4 – iii
III. The symbol for the address
(C) 1 – iv, 2 – i, 3 – ii, 4 – iii
operator 3. {
(D) 1 – ii, 2 – i, 3 – iii, 4 – iv
IV. The name of a function
10. Match the following :
always ends with 4. #
I. 0 (log n) 1. Heap sort
II. 0 (n) 2. DFS
III. 0 (n log n) 3. Binary search
I II III IV
IV. 0 (n2) 4. Bubble sort
(A) 1 2 3 4
(A) I – 3, II – 2, III – 1, IV – 4
(B) 3 4 2 1 (B) I – 4, II – 1, III – 3, IV – 2
(C) 3 2 4 1 (C) I – 3, II – 1, III – 2, IV – 4
(D) 3 2 1 4 (D) I – 3, II – 2, III – 4, IV – 1
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11. The string accepted by the following finite 14. Let G be a simple graph all of whose
automaton vertices have degree 3 and E = 2 V − 3
what can be said about G ?
start a a, b
q0 b
q1 q2
(A) G has ‘6’ vertices and 9 edges
(B) G has 9 vertices and 6 edges
where a, b are alphabets, q0, q1, and q2 (C) G has 6 vertices and 12 edges
are states and q2 is final state (D) None of the above
15. Which of the following graph is isomorphic
(A) abb*
to given below graph ?
(B) ab* (a + b)*
(C) ab (a + b)*
(D) (a + b)*
12. What is the maximum number of different
(A)
Boolean functions involving n Boolean
variables ?
(A) n2 (B) 2n
(B)
2n n2
(C) 2 (D) 2
13. Choose the category of following SQL
operations INSERT, DELETE and (C)
UPDATE
(A) DDL (B) PL
(D)
(C) DML (D) DCL
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16. Consider the join of a relation R with a 18. Suppose a tree has d1 vertices of degree 1, 2
vertices of degree 2, 4 vertices of degree 3
relation S. If R has m tuples and S has n
and 3 vertices of degree 4 then d1 value is
tuples, then the maximum and minimum
(A) 6
sizes of the join respectively are
(B) 4
(A) m + n and 0
(C) 8
(B) mn and 0 (D) 12
(C) m + n and m − n 19. A Binary Search Tree (BST) stores values
(D) mn and m + n on the range 37 to 573. Consider the
following sequence of keys
17. Assertion A : The technique of building
i. 81, 537, 102, 439, 285, 376, 305
new classes from the
ii. 52, 97, 121, 195, 242, 381, 472
existing classes is called
polymorphism. iii. 142, 248, 520, 386, 345, 270, 307
Reason R : Polymorphism requires iv. 550, 149, 507, 395, 463, 402, 270
postponement of binding of Which of the following statements is TRUE ?
a function call to the member
(A) i, ii and iv are inorder sequences of
function until runtime. three different BSTs
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
(B) i is a preorder sequence of some BST
the reason for (A) with 439 as the root
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(C) ii is an inorder sequence of some BST
a reason for (A) where 121 is the root and 52 in a leaf
(C) Only (A) is true and (R) is false
(D) iv is a post order sequence of some
(D) Only (R) is true and (A) is false BST with 149 as the root
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20. Assertion A : Implicit type conversion in 22. Exterior Gateway Protocol is
C++ can lead to errors
(A) To exchange routing information
keeping into the program,
between gateway hosts
if adequate care is not
taken. (B) To connect two bridges
Reason R : Use of explicit type (C) Loop-free interdomain routing
conversion is recommend between autonomous systems
in mixed mode expression.
(D) To provide quality of service
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the reason for (A) 23. Find the following statements in the
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not context of software testing are TRUE or
a reason for (A)
FALSE
(C) Only (A) is true and (R) is false
S1 : Statement coverage cannot guarantee
(D) Only (R) is true and (A) is false
execution of loops in a program under
21. If X is a Boolean variable, then among
test.
following what are the statements true
according to Idempotent law ? S2 : Use of independent path testing
I. X + X = X criterion guarantees execution of
II. X . X = X
each loop in a program under test
III. X . 1 = X
more than once.
IV. X + 1 = 1
(A) True, True
(A) I and II are correct
(B) I and IV are correct (B) True, False
(C) II and III are correct (C) False, True
(D) All four (I, II, III and IV) are correct (D) False, False
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24. Match the following : 26. In a software project, COCOMO
(Constructive Cost Model) is used to
I. To add 2 bits 1. Full adder
estimate
II. To add 3 bits 2. Left shift by 1 bit (A) Effort and duration based on the size
of the software
III. To multiply by 2 3. Right shift by 1 bit
(B) Size and duration based on the effort
IV. To divide by 2 4. Half adder of the software
I II III IV (C) Effort and cost based on the duration
of the software
(A) 3 1 4 2
(D) Size, effort and duration based on the
(B) 4 1 2 3 cost of the software
(C) 4 1 3 2 27. The gray code for decimal 7 is
(A) 0111
(D) 1 4 2 3
(B) 1011
25. A medium access control technique for (C) 0100
(D) 0101
multiple access transmission media is
28. Error detection at the data link level is
(A) ALOHA
achieved by
(B) AMPLITUDE (A) Bit stuffing
(B) Cyclic redundancy codes
(C) ATTENUATION
(C) Equalization
(D) MODULATION (D) Huffmann code
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29. In Unix, the file descriptor returned by 32. The task of the Lexical Analysis phase is
open system call is of type (A) To parse the source program into the
(A) FILE basic elements or tokens of the
(B) Integer language
(C) Char (B) To build a literal table and an identifier
(D) Structure table
(C) To build a uniform symbol table
30. The string 1101 does not belong to the
set represented by (D) All of the above
(A) 110* (0 + 1) 33. Match the following :
* * *
(B) (10) (01) (00 + 11) I. The processes ID 1. grep
(C) 1(0 + 1)* 101 II. Editor 2. ps
(D) 1 (10 + 01)* (1 + 0)* III. Searching in files 3. cat
31. Which of the following tool is known as IV. Printing a file 4. vi
‘parser’ generator ? I II III IV
(A) LEX (A) 2 4 1 3
(B) YAAC (B) 3 4 2 1
(C) TEX (C) 2 3 4 1
(D) EMACS (D) 4 3 1 2
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34. Consider this C code to swap two integers 35. A compiler for a high level language that
and these five statements :
runs on one machine and produces code
void swap (int px, int py)
* *
for a different machine is called
{
(A) Optimizing compiler
* px = *px – *py ;
(B) Cross compiler
*py = *px + *py;
*px = *py – *px; (C) One pass compiler
}
(D) Multi pass compiler
S1 : Will generate a compilation error
S2 : May generate a segmentation fault at 36. Match the following :
runtime depending on the arguments
I. Deadlock avoidance 1. Shortest job
passed
first algorithm
S3 : Correctly implement the swap
II. CPU scheduling 2. LRU algorithm
procedure for all input pointers
referring to integers stored in memory III. Mutual exclusion 3. Banker’s
algorithm
locations accessible to the process
IV. Page replacement 4. Peterson’s
S4 : Implements the swap procedure algorithm
correctly for some but not all valid
input pointers. I II III IV
S5 : May add or subtract integers and
(A) 1 3 2 4
pointers.
(A) S1 (B) 4 2 3 1
(B) S2 and S3
(C) 3 1 4 2
(C) S2 and S4
(D) S2 and S5 (D) 2 4 3 1
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37. Match the following : 40. Electronic credit cards can be in
P. Regular expression 1. Syntax analysis (A) Unencrypted form only
(B) Encrypted form only
Q. Pushdown automata 2. Code generation
(C) Both A and B
R. Dataflow analysis 3. Lexical analysis (D) None of the above
S. Register allocation 4. Code optimization 41. Consider the following two statements
(A) P – 4, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 3 i. A Hash function is an injective function
which is often used for computing
(B) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 2 digital signature
(C) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 2 ii. An encryption technique DES
performs a permutation on the
(D) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 3
elements of its input alphabet
38. Reasoning with uncertain knowledge can Which of the following is valid for the
above two statements ?
be dealt with
(A) Both are false
(A) Monotonic reasoning
(B) i True, ii false
(B) Simple reasoning (C) ii True, i false
(D) Both are true
(C) Non-monotonic reasoning
42. Select A, B, C from loan table
(D) Complex reasoning
consisting of fields A, B, C, D, E, F
39. Which of the following eliminates transitive (A) π loan (A, B, C)
dependency ?
(B) σ ABC (loan)
(A) 1NF (B) 2NF (C) σ loan (A, B, C)
(C) BCNF (D) None of the above (D) None of the above
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43. The number of flipflops required in a 45. Consider the following statements :
decade counter is P : A page fault occurs when the required
page is not available in the main
(A) 3
memory.
(B) 10
Q : There exists a situation that, there is
(C) 5 no space available in the main
memory.
(D) 4
Which of the following is true ?‘
44. Which of the following is a non-linear data
(A) Both P and Q are true, and Q is also a
structure ?
reason for P
i. Stack ii. Queue (B) Both P and Q are true, and Q is not
reason for P
iii. Tree iv. Graph
(C) P is false but Q is true
v. Doubly linked list (D) Both P and Q are false
46. Which of the following propositions is a
(A) All of the above
tautology ?
(B) iii, iv and v (A) (p ∨ q) → p
(B) p ∨ (q → p)
(C) iii and iv
(C) p ∨ (p → q)
(D) i, ii and v (D) q ∨ (p → q)
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47. Fense Register is used for 50. Consider 4 processes P1, P2, P3 and P4
(A) CPU protection
Process Arrival time Time units required
(B) File protection
P1 0 5
(C) Memory protection
(D) I/O unit protection P2 1 7
48. SQL stands for
P3 3 4
(A) Structured Query Language
(B) Sequential Query Language P4 4 6
Find the completion order of the
(C) System Query Language 4 p r o c esses if round robin policy
applies (round robin with the quantum
of 2 time units)
(D) Standard Query Language
49. Active X control can be added to a (A) P1 P2 P3 P4
webpage by using
(B) P4 P3 P2 P1
(A) OBJECT tag
(B) SCRIPT tag (C) P2 P3 P1 P4
(C) ACTIVE tag
(D) P3 P1 P4 P2
(D) None of the above
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Source: Telangana State Eligibility Test. Question paper published by Telangana State Eligibility Test.