TS SET 2012: Paper II, Earth Science
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Test Paper : II Test Booklet Serial No. : ______________________
Test Subject : EARTH ATMOSPHERIC, OMR Sheet No. : ________________________________
OCEAN AND PLANETARY
Hall Ticket No.
SCIENCES
(Figures as per admission card)
Test Subject Code : A-08-02
Name & Signature of Invigilator
Name : ____________________________________ Signature : __________________________________
Paper : II
Subject : EARTH ATMOSPHERIC, OCEAN AND
PLANETARY SCIENCES
Time : 1 Hour 15 Minutes Maximum Marks : 100
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 12 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 50
Instructions for the Candidates A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦ËMæü$ çÜ*^èþ¯èþË$
1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top 1. D ç³#r ò³O ¿êVæü ÌZ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Ò$ çàÌý sìýMðüsý ¯èþ ºÆæÿ$ Æ>Äæý$ yìþ.
of this page.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions. 2. D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Äæý*¿ñýO ºçßý$âñýO_eMæü {ç³Ôèý²Ë¯èþ$ MæüÍW E ¨.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will 3. ç³Èæü {´ëÆæÿ ¿æýÐèþ$$¯èþ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ò$Mæü$ CÐèþÓºyæþ$èþ$ ¨. Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$
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correct booklet from the invigilator within the period ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$°Mìü ÇW C_aÐóþíÜ §é°Mìü º§æþ$Ë$V> çÜÇV>Y E¯èþ² {ç³Ôèý²ç³{é°² ¡çÜ$Mø yìþ.
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet èþ§æþ¯èþ èþÆæÿ {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ðèþ*Ææÿaºyæþ§æþ$ A§æþ¯èþç³# çÜÐèþ$Äæý$ CÐèþÓºyæþ§æþ$.
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) ò³O Ñ«§æþ V> çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mö¯èþ² èþÆ>Óèþ {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþ çÜ Qůèþ$ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O
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should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet 4. {ç³ {ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ ¯éË$Væü$ {ç³éÅÐèþ*²Äæý$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþË$ (A), (B), (C) Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ (D)
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. Ë$V> CÐèþÓºyézÆÿ$$. {ç³{ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ G¯èþ$²Mö° Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ {ç³ {ç³Ôé² çÜ QÅMæü$ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ ¯éË$Væü$ Ðèþé¢ÌZÏ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ
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correct response against each item.
ç³NÇ ^éÍ.
Example : A B C D E§éç ß ýÆæ ÿ ×ý : A B C D
where (C) is the correct response.
(C) çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ AÆÿ$$óþ
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet 5. {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ˯èþ$ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ø CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O¯èþ
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the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
Væü$Ç¢õÜ¢ Ò$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ Ðèþ$*ÌêÅ Mæü¯èþ ^óþÄæý$ºyæþ§æþ$.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
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8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR 7. _èþ$¢ç³°° {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ _ÐèþÆæÿ C_a¯èþ RêäçܦËÐèþ$$ÌZ ^óþÄæý*Í.
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant 8. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °È~èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ çÜ*_ ^èþÐèþËíܯèþ ÑÐèþÆ>Ë$ èþí³µ _ CèþÆæÿ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself Ò$ Væü$Ç¢ ç³#¯èþ$ ðþÍõ³ Ñ«§æþ V> Ò$ õ³Ææÿ$ Æ>Äæý$yæþ V>± Ìôý§é CèþÆæÿ _à²Ë¯èþ$ ò³rtyæþ
liable to disqualification. V>± ^óþíܯèþrÏÆÿ$$óþ Ò$ A¯èþÆæÿáèþMæü$ Ò$Æóÿ »ê«§æþ$ÅËÐèþ#éÆæÿ$.
9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer 9. çç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆ>Óèþ Ò$ {ç³Ôèý²ç³{é°² Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ OMR ç³{é°² èþç³µ°çÜÇV>
Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily ç³Èæüç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$yìþMìü CÐéÓÍ. Ðésìý° ç³Èæü Væü¨ ºÄæý$rMæü$ ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏMæü*yæþ§æþ$.
and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. ±Í/¯è þ ËÏ Ææ ÿ Væ ü $ »êÌ ý ´ëÆÿ$$ s ý ò³¯ þ Ðè þ *{è þ Ðó þ $ Eç ³ Äñ ý *W ^éÍ.
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11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. Ðð þ $$§æ þ ËVæ ü $¯è þ Ñ ç ³ Èæ ü Væ ü ¨ÌZ Eç ³ Äñ ý *W ^è þ yæ þ °õÙ« § æ þ .
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. è þ ç ³ ç Ü Ðè þ *« § é¯éËMæ ü $ Ðè þ *Ææ ÿ $PË è þ WY ç ³ # Ìô ý §æ þ $.
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EARTH ATMOSPHERIC, OCEAN AND PLANETARY SCIENCES
Paper – II
1. Mean radius of the earth’s orbit about the 4. Mohorovicic discontinuity represents
Sun is expressed in boundary between
(A) Astronomical unit (A) Mantle and outer core
(B) Light year (B) Outer core and inner core
(C) Aristotalian year (C) Crust and mantle
(D) Geometrical unit (D) Weathered rock and unaltered rock
2. Earth’s only natural satellite is 5. Statement 1 : Physical equipotential
(A) Sun surface of gravity is
(B) Mercury called geoid
Statement 2 : Geoid reflects the true
(C) Moon
distribution of mass
(D) Venus
inside the earth
3. “Each planet is roughly twice as far from Statement 3 : Geoid differs from the
the Sun as its closest neighbour” is theoretical ellipsoid by
known as small amount
(A) Nebular hypothesis (A) 1 is true, 2 and 3 false
(B) Bode’s law (B) 1 is false, 2 and 3 true
(C) Darcy’s law (C) 1 and 2 are true but 3 is false
(D) Coulomb’s law (D) All the three statements are true
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6. Magnetisation acquired by earth during 9. Silicified wood is an example of
slow settling of the fine grained particles (A) Cast and mould
in the presence of external field is called (B) Petrifaction
(A) Isothermal remnant magnetisation (C) Ichnofossils
(D) Trace fossils
(B) Detrital remnant magnetisation
(C) Chemical remnant magnetisation 10. The nearest planet to the Sun is
(A) Jupiter
(D) Viscous remnant magnetisation
(B) Venus
7. 11 year cycle of external component of
(C) Mercury
earth’s magnetic field is called
(D) Mars
(A) Diurnal variation
11. Amongst the silicates, pyroxenes belong to
(B) Magnetic storm
(A) Orthosilicates
(C) Sun spot activity (B) Sorosilicates
(D) Local magnetic variation (C) Chain silicates
(D) Sheet silicates
8. Famous sentence of James Hutton,
“Present is the key to the past” is based on 12. Igneous rocks with SiO 2 > 62% are
designated as
(A) Principle of uniformitarianism
(A) Basic
(B) Principle of fossil content
(B) Acidic
(C) Principle of lithology (C) Intermediate
(D) Principle of superposition (D) Ultrabasic
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13. What is the name of the rock dominated 17. The dry porous area of pebbles and
by mineral calcite ?
boulders at the foot hills of Himalayas is
(A) Limestone
called
(B) Granulite
(A) Bhabar
(C) Phyllite
(B) Bhangar
(D) Eclogite
(C) Terai
14. Metamorphic rock with conspicuous
parallel structure is called (D) Khadar
(A) Granulite
18. The sediments that a stream moves
(B) Marble
along the bottom of the stream channel
(C) Quartzite
is called
(D) Schist
(A) Bottom load
15. Wall rock alterations that indicate mineral
(B) Suspended load
concentrations include
(C) Fine load
(A) Carbonatization
(B) Albititization (D) Bed load
(C) Chloritization
19. The type of soil where horizon formation
(D) All of the above
is absent is
16. Spalling is a term associated with
(A) Vertisol
(A) Fault
(B) Inseptisol
(B) Weathering
(C) Entisol
(C) Glacial action
(D) Sea floor spreading (D) Ultisol
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20. Which of the following statements on 23. Which of the following show the effect of
glacial landform are correct ?
tensional forces ?
1. Arete is the knife-edged boundary
between cirques 1. Columnar joints
2. Medial moraines occur in the middle 2. Mud cracks
of the glacier
3. Cross joints
3. Drumlins are a group of small hills
4. Bedding joints
made by glacial erosion
4. Glacial striae indicate the direction of (A) 1 and 2 only
movement of glaciers (B) 1 and 3 only
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 and 4 24. T h e f o l d h a v i n g a n g u l a r h i n g e i s
21. The fault in which the hanging wall has known as
gone down relative to the foot wall is (A) Tight fold
known as
(B) Chevron fold
(A) Normal fault
(C) Parallel fold
(B) Reverse fault
(C) Transcurrent fault (D) Similar fold
(D) Strike slip fault
25. The ratio of the shearing stress to the
22. The fold which is convex upwards is called shearing strain is
___________ fold.
(A) Poisson’s ratio
(A) Syncline
(B) Incompressibility
(B) Recumbent
(C) Young’s modulus
(C) Synform
(D) Antiform (D) Rigidity modulus
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26. The branch of geophysics, which deals 30. Tsunamis are developed due to
with seismic waves is called
1. Submarine quakes
(A) Seismology
2. Floods
(B) Limnology
3. Volcanic eruptions within oceans
(C) Palynology
4. Cyclones
(D) None of the above
(A) 1 and 3 are correct
27. The upper shell of the earth up to 100 km (B) 1 and 2 are correct
depth is called
(C) 3 and 4 are correct
(A) Crust
(D) All are correct
(B) Lithosphere
(C) Biosphere 31. The oceanic conveyor belt flows
continuously in
(D) Asthenosphere
(A) Arctic ocean
28. ___________ is the point situated on the
(B) Atlantic ocean
surface of the earth above the focus of an
earthquake. (C) Indian ocean
(A) Epicentre (D) Pacific ocean
(B) Centre of gravity
32. Continental shelf is defined as
(C) Focal point
(A) The highest of the continent from
(D) Stress location
mean sea level
29. ___________ is an example of sea floor (B) The highest difference between two
spreading. continents
(A) San Marina trench (C) The zone around the continents from
(B) San Andreas fault the low water mark seaward upto the
(C) Mid Atlantic ridge continental slope
(D) Rocky and Andes mountains (D) The distance between two continents
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33. Water masses are identified by 36. The type of low frequency gravity wave
trapped in a vertical boundary on the
(A) Temperature, salinity, nutrients and
equator is called
oxygen content
(A) Shearing gravity
(B) Temperature they possess
(B) Kelvin wave
(C) Depth at which they occur
(C) Rossby wave
(D) The mass of water they possess
(D) Internal wave
34. The force due to the rotation of the earth is
37. The height of the Prandtl layer is
(A) Pressure gradient force
(A) 10 m
(B) Fractional force
(B) 50 m
(C) Gravity force
(C) 500 m
(D) Coriolis force
(D) 1500 m
35. In the atmosphere, meteorologically, the
38. The layer in which ozone is present is
most significant waves are
called
(A) Sound
(A) Troposphere
(B) Gravity (B) Stratosphere
(C) Rossby (C) Mesosphere
(D) Electromagnetic (D) Exosphere
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39. In an inversion layer 42. The term “overburden” is associated with
(A) Opencast mining
(A) Temperature decreases with height
(B) Underground mining
(B) Temperature increases with height
(C) Strip mining
(C) Temperature is zero (D) Offshore mining
(D) Temperature is constant 43. Which of the following statements are
incorrect ?
40. The approximation where density 1. 0.4 to 0.5 microns is not a part of the
variation is taken only in the pressure visible band
2. 0.7 to 0.8 microns is not a part of the
gradient term and not in the other terms is
visible band
called
3. Radio waves have the shortest
(A) Hydrostatic approximation wavelength
4. Gamma ray band is also known as
(B) Geostrophic approximation
infrared band
(C) Boussinesq approximation (A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(D) Brunt Vaisala approximation
(C) 1, 2 and 3
41. The word “ecosystem” was coined by (D) 1, 2 and 4
(A) Haeckle 44. “Minamata” disease is the result of
(A) Air pollution
(B) Buckle
(B) Nuclear pollution
(C) Alexander
(C) Water pollution
(D) Tansley (D) Noise pollution
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45. Primary ecological succession may be 48. Identify the correct sequence of processes
observed in in hydrological cycle
(A) Deep forest (A) Precipitation, condensation, run off
(B) New volcanic islands and evaporation
(C) Coastal areas (B) Run off, condensation, evaporation
(D) Delta region and precipitation
(C) Condensation, evaporation,
46. The international decade for natural
precipitation and run off
hazard and their mitigation was observed
by UNO during (D) Evaporation, condensation,
(A) 1980s precipitation and run off
(B) 1990s 49. The correct erosional sequence in the
(C) 2000s degradation of land
(D) 2010s (A) Gully, ravine, rill and bad land
(B) Rill, ravine, bad land and gully
47. Hot spots in biodiversity is the region,
which shows (C) Rill, gully, ravine and bad land
(A) Abundant availability of plants and (D) Ravine, gully, rill and bad land
animals
50. Which one of the following is an Indian
(B) Richest and most threatened
satellite sensor ?
reservoirs of plants and animals
(A) TM
(C) Equal distribution of plants and
(B) LISS II
animals
(C) HRV
(D) Sparse distribution of plants and
animals (D) MSS
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Source: Telangana State Eligibility Test. Question paper published by Telangana State Eligibility Test.