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TS SET 2013: Paper III, Earth Science

  • Paper code: 08
  • Language: Bilingual
  • 16 pages
TS SET 2013 question paper, TS SET 2013, Paper III, Earth Science, page 1 of 16
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         SUBJECT CODE          SUBJECT             PAPER
                                                                                                                                                        EARTH SCIENCE
                                                                                             A-08-03                                     (EARTH, ATMOSPHERIC, OCEAN AND PLANETARY SCIENCE)
                                                                                                                                                                                                                                          III
                                                                                                                                    HALL TICKET NUMBER                                                                     QUESTION BOOKLET
                                                                                                                                                                                                                               NUMBER

                                                                                                                                       OMR SHEET NUMBER


                                                                                             DURATION                                  MAXIMUM MARKS                           NUMBER OF PAGES                           NUMBER OF QUESTIONS
                                                                                     2 HOUR 30 MINUTES                                             150                                         16                                            75
                                                                               This is to certify that, the entries made in the above portion are correctly written and verified.



                                                                               Candidates Signature                                                                                                    Name and Signature of Invigilator
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                                                                                1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top                            1. D ç³#r ò³O ¿êVæü ÌZ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Ò$ çà̌ý sìýMðüsŒý ¯èþ ºÆæÿ$ Æ>Äæý$ yìþ.
                                                                                   of this page.
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                                                                                2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
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                                                                                3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will           °Ñ$çÙÐèþ$$ËÌZ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{™èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ™ðþÇ_ Mìü §æþ ™ðþÍí³¯èþ A Ôé˯èþ$ ™èþç³µ°çÜÇV>
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                                                                                         discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a                           Ðèþ sìý §øçÙç³NǙèþÐðþ$O¯èþ {ç³Ôèý² ç³{™é°² Ððþ r¯óþ Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$ °Ñ$ÚëÌZÏ ç³È„>
                                                                                         correct booklet from the invigilator within the period                       ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþ„æüMæü$°Mìü †ÇW C_aÐóþíÜ §é°Mìü º§æþ$Ë$V> çÜÇV>Y E¯èþ² {ç³Ôèý²ç³{™é°² ¡çÜ$Mø yìþ.
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                                                                                    (iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number         (iii)       ò³O Ñ«§æþ V> çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mö¯èþ² ™èþÆ>әèþ {ç³Ôé²ç³{™èþ çÜ Qůèþ$ OMR ç³{™èþÐèþ$$ ò³O
                                                                                          should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet                         A§óþÑ«§æþ V> OMR ç³{™èþÐèþ$$ çÜ Qůèþ$ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{™èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °ÇªçÙtt çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Æ>Äæý$ÐèþÌñý¯èþ$.
                                                                                          Number should be entered on this Test Booklet.                4. {糆 {ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ ¯éË$Væü$ {糙éÅÐèþ*²Äæý$ {糆çܵ §æþ¯èþË$ (A), (B), (C) Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ (D)
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                                                                                   and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the        OMR ç³{™èþÐèþ$$ÌZ {糆 {ç³Ôé² çÜ QÅMæü$ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ ¯éË$Væü$ Ðèþ–™é¢ÌZÏ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ
                                                                                   correct response against each item.                                     {糆çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ çÜ*_ ^óþ Ðèþ–™é¢°² »ê̌ý ´ëÆÿ$$ sŒý ò³¯Œþ™ø Mìü §æþ ™ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
                                                                                   Example : A             B      C      D                                 ç³NÇ ^éÍ.
                                                                                   where (C) is the correct response.                                      E§éçßýÆæÿ×ý :                         A             B     C      D
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                                                                                   liable to disqualification.                                             Ò$ Væü$Ç¢ ç³#¯èþ$ ™ðþÍõ³ Ñ«§æþ V> Ò$ õ³Ææÿ$ Æ>Äæý$yæþ V>± Ìôý§é C™èþÆæÿ _à²Ë¯èþ$ ò³rtyæþ
                                                                                9. The candidate must handover the OMR Answer Sheet to the                 V>± ^óþíܯèþrÏÆÿ$$™óþ Ò$ A¯èþÆæÿá™èþMæü$ Ò$Æóÿ »ê«§æþ$ÅËÐèþ#™éÆæÿ$.
                                                                                   invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and 9. ç³È„æü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ ™èþÆ>әèþ Ò$ OMR ç³{™é°² ™èþç³µ°çÜÇV> ç³È„æü ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþ„æüMæü$yìþMìü CÐéÓÍ.
                                                                                   must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. The            Ðésìý° ç³È„æü Væü¨ ºÄæý$rMæü$ ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏMæü*yæþ§æþ$. ç³È„æü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ ™èþÆæÿ$Ðé™èþ A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦Ë$
                                                                                   candidate is allowed to take away the carbon copy of OMR
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                                                                                   Sheet and used Question paper booklet at the end of the
                                                                                   examination.                                                        10. ±Í/¯èþËÏ Ææÿ Væü$ »ê̌ý ´ëÆÿ$$ sŒý ò³¯Œþ Ðèþ*{™èþÐóþ$ Eç³Äñý*W ^éÍ.
                                                                               10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.                                 11. ÌêVæüÇ£æþЌþ$ sôýº$̌ýÞ, M>ÅÍMæü$ÅÌôýrƊÿË$, GË[M>t°MŠü ç³ÇMæüÆ>Ë$ Ððþ$$§æþËVæü$¯èþÑ ç³È„æüVæü¨ÌZ
                                                                               11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited.                 Eç³Äñý*W ^èþyæþ °õÙ«§æþ .
                                                                               12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers.                   12. ™èþ糚 çÜÐèþ*«§é¯éËMæü$ Ðèþ*Ææÿ$PË ™èþWY ç³# Ìôý§æþ$.
                  III Ç                      1                       A-08-03
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III Ç           2             A-08-03
TS SET 2013 question paper, TS SET 2013, Paper III, Earth Science, page 3 of 16
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                                       EARTH SCIENCE
                       (Earth, Atmospheric, Ocean and Planetary Science)
                                           Paper – III
  1. In Scanning Electron Microscopy (SEM),           4. Diapiric movements are generally related
     what is mode of operation or procedure              to ___________
     that is used to differentiate minerals of
     contrasting composition and different               (A) Plate Tectonics
     zones within a mineral having difference
                                                         (B) Salt Domes
     in composition ?
                                                         (C) Batholiths
        (A) Secondary Electrons

        (B) Auger Electrons                              (D) Diagenesis

        (C) Back Scattered Electrons                  5. Match the items in List – I with that in List – II,
                                                         and select the correct answers, using the
        (D) X-rays
                                                         code given below :
  2. Alkali pyriboles are

        (A) Acmite, Riebeckite                                 List − I             List − II

        (B) Nepheline, Leucite                            I. Zaphrentis       1. Brachiopoda

                                                          II. Cidaris         2. Anthozoa
        (C) Biotite, Illite
                                                          III. Terebratula 3. Trilobita
        (D) Albite, Anorthite
                                                          IV. Olenellus       4. Echinoidea
  3. If the boudins, resulted by the stretching
     of the competent bed parallel to the fold
     axis, the boudin lines will be naturally            Codes :
     _______ to the fold axis.                                   I      II    III      IV

        (A) Parallel                                     (A)     3      1     4        2

        (B) Stretched                                    (B)     2      4     1        3

        (C) Deformed                                     (C)     3      4     1        2

        (D) Perpendicular                                (D)     2      1     4        3


III Ç                                             3                                             A-08-03
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  6. The chronostratigraphic unit, ranking               10. Substitution of Nb by Ta and Zr by Hf is
        above ‘stage’ and below ‘system’ is                  termed as ________
        _______

        (A) Substage                                         (A) Capturing

        (B) Series                                           (B) Diadochy

        (C) Superstage
                                                            (C) Admittance
        (D) Period
                                                            (D) None of the above
  7. Pentlandite is an ore mineral of ________

        (A) Copper                                       11. Assertion, A : K, Rb, Ba, Li ad Cs are
                                                                              geochemically termed as
        (B) Iron
                                                                              ‘incompatible’ elements.
        (C) Nickel
                                                             Reasons, R :     In silicate melts, these
        (D) Chromium
                                                                              elements are partitioned
  8. Which of the following contain workable
     deposits of coal in India, as per the codes ?                            into liquid phase (melt)
                                                                              and enriched into the
        (A) Tertiary
                                                                              continental crust.
        (B) Permocraboniferous
                                                             In the context of the above two statements,
        (C) Proterozoic
                                                             which one is correct, as per the following
        (D) Archaean
                                                             code ?
  9. The Quaternary period covers stratigraphic              (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
     columns covering last ________ years.
                                                                 correct explanation for A
        (A) One million
                                                             (B) Both A and R are true, and R is not
        (B) Three million                                        the correct explanation for A
        (C) Two million                                     (C) A is true, but R is false

                                                            (D) A is false, but R is true
        (D) Four million

III Ç                                                4                                        A-08-03
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12. In the geochemical cycle, which one of the           15. Arrange the following igneous rocks with
        following is not the correct statement ?             increasing ‘colour index’, using the code
                                                             below :
        (A) Magmas are generated in the mantle
                                                               I. Gabbro              II. Diorite
        (B) Crystallization and melting take place
                                                             III. Peridotite          IV. Syenite
            in the surficial environment
                                                             Code :
        (C) Sedimentation and diagenesis take
            place in the surficial environment               (A) I, II, III, IV

        (D) High-grade metamorphic rocks form in             (B) IV, II, I, III
            the lower crust of the Earth
                                                             (C) II, III, IV, I
13. In India, workable graphite deposits are
                                                             (D) III, IV, I, II
    associated with _________
                                                         16. The reflectance and emittance of a feature
        (A) Khonadalites
                                                             over a variety of wavelengths is referred
        (B) Charnockites                                     to ___________

        (C) Shales                                           (A) Spatial resolution

        (D) Sandstones                                       (B) Spectral resolution

14. Some of the following raw materials are                  (C) Temporal resolution
    used for manufacturing of cement
        I. Limestone        II. Dolomite                     (D) Radiometric resolution

    III. Gypsum            IV. Coal                      17. Salinity of groundwater can be estimated
        The materials used in the manufacturing              using _________
        of cement are
                                                             (A) Seismic Survey
        (A) I, II, IV
                                                             (B) Magnetic Survey
        (B) I, III, IV
                                                             (C) Gravity Survey
        (C) I, II, III
                                                             (D) Electrical Resistivity Survey
        (D) II, III, IV


III Ç                                                5                                          A-08-03
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18. Arrange the following isotopes in their            21. If the function is shifted in the time-domain
    increasing order of half-life (t), using the           by two seconds, then the amplitude
    code given below :                                     spectrum

          I.    Th232                                      (A) is doubled
               90

         II. 92U235                                        (B) is reduced to half

         III. 92U238                                       (C) remains unchanged
        IV. 88Ra226                                        (D) is increased to four times

        Code :                                         22. The Nyquist frequency is ________ the
                                                           sampling frequency.
        (A) I, II, III, IV
                                                           (A) Double
        (B) II, III, IV, I
                                                           (B) Same
        (C) III, IV, I, II
                                                           (C) Half
        (D) IV, II, III, I

19. Which of the following marks the boundary              (D) Not related to
    between the Archaean and Proterozoic
                                                       23. Match the physical laws (List – I) with their
    formations in India ?
                                                           mathematical expressions (List – II) :
        (A) Erinpura Granite
                                                            List − I                List − II
        (B) Untala Granite
                                                       E Ohm's Law          1 Δ × E = dB/dt
        (C) Idar Granite
                                                       F Faraday's Law      2 Δ × H = J + dD/dt
        (D) Berach Granite
                                                       G Coulomb's Law 3 J = σE
20. Kaladgis are said to be equivalent of ____         H Ampere's Law       4 ∇B = 0

        (A) Kurnools
                                                           (A) E-2, F-3, G-1, H-4
        (B) Cuddapahs
                                                           (B) E-3, F-1, G-4, H-2
        (C) Dharwars
                                                           (C) E-3, F-4, G-1, H-2
        (D) Gondwanas
                                                           (D) E-4, F-1, G-2, H-3

III Ç                                              6                                            A-08-03
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24. In the general formula of numerical integration        27. If ‘a’ is equatorial radius and ‘c’ is the polar
        derived from Newton’s forward difference
                                                               radius, then the geometrical flattening of
        polynomial, for what values of ‘n’,
        Simplon’s 1/3 rule can be obtained                     the earth is


        (A) n = 0                                              (A) (a-c)/a

        (B) n = 1
                                                               (B) (c-a)/a

        (C) n = 2
                                                               (C) (a+c)/a
        (D) n = 3
                                                               (D) (a-c)/c
25. The method of least squares consists in
        minimizing                                         28. The Rodrigues Triple Junction is a ______

        (A) Sum of the squares of the errors
                                                               (A) Ridge-Trench-Ridge
        (B) Sum of the squares of measured
            values                                             (B) Trench-Ridge-Ridge

        (C) Sum of squares of theoretical values               (C) Ridge-Ridge-Ridge

        (D) Difference of squares of errors
                                                               (D) Trench-Trench-Trench
26. According to Airy-Heiskanen System of
        isostatic compensation, the root thickness         29. The following ocean is the youngest of all

        below a topographic high of 1.0 km will
                                                               (A) Pacific
        be ________ (with the assumed densities
        of 2.9 g/cc and 3.3 g/ cc to the lower crust
                                                               (B) Indian
        and upper mantle, respectively).

        (A) 0.67m              (B) 67 km                       (C) Atlantic


        (C) 6.7 km            (D) 0.67 km                      (D) Antarctic

III Ç                                                  7                                            A-08-03
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30. The seismic ray path PKP is                          33. What will be the gravity field at mean sea

        (A) P wave while passed down through                 level, if the gravity field measured at an
            the mantle and the outer core and then           elevation of 100 m is 979.85 ?
            up through the mantle
        (B) P wave which travelled down through              (A) Nearly 979810 mgals
            the mantle and inner core
        (C) P wave which travelled down through              (B) Nearly 979180 mgals
            the inner and outer cores
        (D) P wave which travelled through upper             (C) Nearly 979108 mgals
            and lower crusts
                                                             (D) Nearly 979018 mgals
31. The time difference between S wave and
    P wave travel                                        34. The sequence of resistivity contrasts
        (A) Inversely proportional to epicentral             between three layers in the ‘Q’ Type
            distance
                                                             curve are
        (B) Directly proportional to epicentral
            distance
                                                             (A) ρ1 > ρ 2 < ρ 3
        (C) Decays exponentially with epicentral
            distance                                         (B) ρ1 > ρ 2 > ρ 3
        (D) Decays logarithmically with epicentral
            distance                                         (C) ρ1 < ρ 2 > ρ 3

32. Match the following                                      (D) ρ1 < ρ 2 < ρ 3

         M       μ GAL     1      10-2 m s-2             35. The longitudinal conductance of a layer
         N      gu         2      10-5 m s+2                 with resistivity of 50 Ohm m and a

         O      mgal       3      10-8 m s-2                 thickness of 100 m is

         P      gal        4      10-6 m s-2                 (A) 5000 Ohm m

        (A) M-3, N-4, O-1, P-2                               (B) 0.50 mhos
        (B) M-3, N-4, O-2, P-1
                                                             (C) 50 Ohm m
        (C) M-4, N-3, O-2, P-1
        (D) M-2, N-3, O-1, P-4                               (D) 5 mhos

III Ç                                                8                                        A-08-03
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36. If we have ‘n’ vibroseis generated records          39. Bulk Volume Water (BVW) is the product
        on which signal shape is essentially                of
        constant and the noise is random, then
        S/N after stacking varies as                        (A) Porosity and residual oil saturation

                1/2
        (A) n                                               (B) Porosity and residual water saturation

        (B) n2                                             (C) Permeability and water saturation

        (C) n
                                                           (D) Porosity and water saturation
        (D) 1/n
                                                        40. The transit time recorded by sonic log in
37. The NMO ( Δ tNMO) for a geophone offset                 salt water mud filtrate is ________ fresh
        from the source by 600 m is 9.1 ms, then
                                                            water.
        what is the value of the ( Δ tNMO) for a
        geophone offset by 3600 m from the source           (A) greater than

        (A) 36 ms
                                                            (B) less than
        (B) 3280 ms
                                                           (C) equal to
        (C) 360 ms
                                                           (D) twice that of
        (D) 328 ms
                                                        41. In a horizontal motion the coriolis force
38. Noise generated in Marine seismic survey
                                                            acts to the ______ of the wind direction in
        by ship vessel ranges between                       the Northern Hemisphere.

        (A) 10 and 200 Mz                                   (A) Left

        (B) 10-200 Kz                                       (B) Right

        (C) 200-1000 Gz                                    (C) North

        (D) 10-20 Hz                                       (D) South

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42. Streamlines exhibit points of ______ in              45. The maximum eddy length scale is limited
        the atmosphere.                                      by the boundary layer depth to be about
                                                             _____ meters.
        (A) Inflow
                                                             (A) 103
        (B) Outflow
                                                             (B) 105
        (C) Neutral
                                                            (C) 107
        (D) All
                                                            (D) 109
43. Intensity of Tropical cyclone is estimated,
                                                         46. Individual hot towers would need to visit
        based on Current Intensity (C.I) number.
                                                             simultaneously around the globe to
        C.I number 7.5 represents maximum wind
                                                             account for the required vertical heat
        speed of __________ Kts.
                                                             transport of the ITCZ

        (A) 150                                              (A) 500 – 1,400

        (B) 75                                               (B) 1,500 – 5,000

        (C) 250                                             (C) 5,000 – 7,000

        (D) All                                             (D) 8,000 – 10,000

44. The Geostrophic wind is generally a good             47. Zonally Symme Easterly and Westerly
        approximation to the actual wind in _____            wind regions alternate reqularly with
        synoptic scale disturbances.                         periods varying from about _____ months.

        (A) Tropics                                          (A) 5 – 10

        (B) Middle latitudes                                 (B) 10 – 15

        (C) Polar latitudes                                 (C) 15 – 20

        (D) Globe                                           (D) 24 – 30

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48. Combined Albedo for the Earth and                   51. The following is not the artificial cloud

        Atmosphere is ______ %                              seeding agent to enhance rainfall


        (A) 4                                               (A) Calcium Chloride

                                                            (B) Silver Iodide
        (B) 10

                                                           (C) Sodium Chloride
        (C) 30
                                                           (D) Rubber
        (D) 60
                                                        52. In Satellite meteorology, water vapour
49. The Heat Engine released when water                     imagery is derived for the radiance at the
        vapour changes to a liquid is called ___            atmospheric window region ______ μ m


        (A) Latent heat of evaporation                      (A) 5 – 6

                                                            (B) 1 – 2
        (B) Latent heat of fusion

                                                           (C) 8 – 10
        (C) Latent heat of condensation
                                                           (D) All
        (D) Latent heat of sublimation
                                                        53. Clausius- Claperon equation deals with
50. The IPCC estimated that Aviation also                   _____
        causes ___________% of global warming.
                                                            (A) Saturated vapour pressure on

        (A) 4.2                                                 temperature

                                                            (B) Vapour pressure on temperature
        (B) 2
                                                           (C) Super saturated vapour pressure on
        (C) 3.5
                                                                temperature
        (D) 5
                                                           (D) All

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54. The value of Dry Adiabatic Lapse rate is         57. Rossby number is a ratio between _____

        _______
                                                         (A) Vorticity and coriolis force

        (A) 1°C per 100 met                              (B) Velocity and coriolis force

        (B) 3° C per 100 met                             (C) Acceleration and coriolis force

                                                         (D) None
        (C) 4° C per 100 met
                                                     58. The Omega equation arises due to the
        (D) None                                         contribution of vorticity and ____ equation.

                                                         (A) Static
55. The seasonal shift of ITCZ is larger over
                                                         (B) Thermodynamic
        __________
                                                         (C) Quasi Thermodynamic
        (A) SE Asia and Australia
                                                         (D) All

        (B) Atlantic ocean                           59. The following one is not General
                                                         circulation model
        (C) Pacific ocean                                (A) NCAR CCSM3
                                                                 –

        (D) West – African region                        (B) CCSK mdrs
                                                                 –

                                                         (C) GFDL – CM2.1
56. Blaton’s relation deals with the

        relationship between _________                   (D) MM5

                                                     60. Land and sea breezes are explained by
        (A) Stream lines and Trajections
                                                         the ______ term in the circulation theorm.
        (B) Stream lines and Isobars                     (A) Solenoidal

                                                         (B) Coriolis
        (C) Stream lines and Isotherms
                                                         (C) Frictional
        (D) Stream lines and Isotach
                                                         (D) All

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61. SARAL Satellite is dedicated for _______
                                                           64. Indian rivers contribute about _______%

        (A) Altimetry Mission for ocean                        of the global annual discharge.
            observation
                                                              (A) 6
        (B) Altimetry Mission for land observation
                                                              (B) 10
        (C) Altimetry Mission for atmospheric
            observation                                       (C) 25

        (D) All the above                                     (D) 4

62. When a wind- driven surface current                    65. The monsoon currents are shallow with
        moves away from a land mass, it results
                                                               most of the variation being restricted to the
        in _____
                                                               upper _________ mm.
        (A) Upwelling
                                                              (A) 200
        (B) Convergence
                                                              (B) 150
        (C) Eddy
                                                              (C) 175
        (D) Gyte
                                                              (D) None
63. The thermohaline circulation transports
        roughly _______ of the total heat transport        66. Sharp decrease of temperature with
        of the ocean/atmospheric circulation
                                                               depths is called _________
        system.
                                                              (A) Halocline
        (A) 1
              2
                                                              (B) Pycnocline
        (B) 13

        (C) 1                                                 (C) Surface layer
              4

        (D) 18                                                (D) Thermocline

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67. The albedo of ocean surface is ______                 72. The Leeuwin current is about ____ meters
        %.                                                    deep.

        (A) 30                (B) 22                          (A) 500

        (C) 6                 (D) 0                           (B) 100

                                                              (C) 250
68. Deep water is often rich in _________
        (A) Dissolved gases                                   (D) 300

        (B) Plant life
                                                          73. ________ is a sound channel near the
        (C) Nutrients                                         surface.
        (D) A and C
                                                              (A) Shadow zone
69. The density of sea water increases with                   (B) SOFAR
    ________
                                                              (C) Deep scatter layer
        (A) Increase of salinity

        (B) Increase of temperature                           (D) Surface duct

        (C) Decrease in Temperature                       74. South equatorial current flow is stronger
        (D) A and B                                           during the ________ monsoon season.

70. Annual mean heat flux into the Arabian                    (A) Summer
    sea is associated with abrupt ________
                                                              (B) Winter
        (A) Cooling
                                                              (C) Pre
        (B) Heating
                                                              (D) None
        (C) Buoyancy

        (D) None                                          75. Temperature sensor in XBT is _______

71. In the Indian ocean, the equatorial counter               (A) Thermistor
    current is located several hundred miles
                                                              (B) Semiconductor
    ___________ of the equator.

        (A) North             (B) East                        (C) Electrode

        (C) South             (D) West                        (D) None
                                         _____________________________

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Source: Telangana State Eligibility Test. Question paper published by Telangana State Eligibility Test.