TS SET 2013: Paper III, Earth Science

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SUBJECT CODE SUBJECT PAPER
EARTH SCIENCE
A-08-03 (EARTH, ATMOSPHERIC, OCEAN AND PLANETARY SCIENCE)
III
HALL TICKET NUMBER QUESTION BOOKLET
NUMBER
OMR SHEET NUMBER
DURATION MAXIMUM MARKS NUMBER OF PAGES NUMBER OF QUESTIONS
2 HOUR 30 MINUTES 150 16 75
This is to certify that, the entries made in the above portion are correctly written and verified.
Candidates Signature Name and Signature of Invigilator
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2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
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EARTH SCIENCE
(Earth, Atmospheric, Ocean and Planetary Science)
Paper – III
1. In Scanning Electron Microscopy (SEM), 4. Diapiric movements are generally related
what is mode of operation or procedure to ___________
that is used to differentiate minerals of
contrasting composition and different (A) Plate Tectonics
zones within a mineral having difference
(B) Salt Domes
in composition ?
(C) Batholiths
(A) Secondary Electrons
(B) Auger Electrons (D) Diagenesis
(C) Back Scattered Electrons 5. Match the items in List – I with that in List – II,
and select the correct answers, using the
(D) X-rays
code given below :
2. Alkali pyriboles are
(A) Acmite, Riebeckite List − I List − II
(B) Nepheline, Leucite I. Zaphrentis 1. Brachiopoda
II. Cidaris 2. Anthozoa
(C) Biotite, Illite
III. Terebratula 3. Trilobita
(D) Albite, Anorthite
IV. Olenellus 4. Echinoidea
3. If the boudins, resulted by the stretching
of the competent bed parallel to the fold
axis, the boudin lines will be naturally Codes :
_______ to the fold axis. I II III IV
(A) Parallel (A) 3 1 4 2
(B) Stretched (B) 2 4 1 3
(C) Deformed (C) 3 4 1 2
(D) Perpendicular (D) 2 1 4 3
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6. The chronostratigraphic unit, ranking 10. Substitution of Nb by Ta and Zr by Hf is
above ‘stage’ and below ‘system’ is termed as ________
_______
(A) Substage (A) Capturing
(B) Series (B) Diadochy
(C) Superstage
(C) Admittance
(D) Period
(D) None of the above
7. Pentlandite is an ore mineral of ________
(A) Copper 11. Assertion, A : K, Rb, Ba, Li ad Cs are
geochemically termed as
(B) Iron
‘incompatible’ elements.
(C) Nickel
Reasons, R : In silicate melts, these
(D) Chromium
elements are partitioned
8. Which of the following contain workable
deposits of coal in India, as per the codes ? into liquid phase (melt)
and enriched into the
(A) Tertiary
continental crust.
(B) Permocraboniferous
In the context of the above two statements,
(C) Proterozoic
which one is correct, as per the following
(D) Archaean
code ?
9. The Quaternary period covers stratigraphic (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
columns covering last ________ years.
correct explanation for A
(A) One million
(B) Both A and R are true, and R is not
(B) Three million the correct explanation for A
(C) Two million (C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
(D) Four million
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12. In the geochemical cycle, which one of the 15. Arrange the following igneous rocks with
following is not the correct statement ? increasing ‘colour index’, using the code
below :
(A) Magmas are generated in the mantle
I. Gabbro II. Diorite
(B) Crystallization and melting take place
III. Peridotite IV. Syenite
in the surficial environment
Code :
(C) Sedimentation and diagenesis take
place in the surficial environment (A) I, II, III, IV
(D) High-grade metamorphic rocks form in (B) IV, II, I, III
the lower crust of the Earth
(C) II, III, IV, I
13. In India, workable graphite deposits are
(D) III, IV, I, II
associated with _________
16. The reflectance and emittance of a feature
(A) Khonadalites
over a variety of wavelengths is referred
(B) Charnockites to ___________
(C) Shales (A) Spatial resolution
(D) Sandstones (B) Spectral resolution
14. Some of the following raw materials are (C) Temporal resolution
used for manufacturing of cement
I. Limestone II. Dolomite (D) Radiometric resolution
III. Gypsum IV. Coal 17. Salinity of groundwater can be estimated
The materials used in the manufacturing using _________
of cement are
(A) Seismic Survey
(A) I, II, IV
(B) Magnetic Survey
(B) I, III, IV
(C) Gravity Survey
(C) I, II, III
(D) Electrical Resistivity Survey
(D) II, III, IV
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18. Arrange the following isotopes in their 21. If the function is shifted in the time-domain
increasing order of half-life (t), using the by two seconds, then the amplitude
code given below : spectrum
I. Th232 (A) is doubled
90
II. 92U235 (B) is reduced to half
III. 92U238 (C) remains unchanged
IV. 88Ra226 (D) is increased to four times
Code : 22. The Nyquist frequency is ________ the
sampling frequency.
(A) I, II, III, IV
(A) Double
(B) II, III, IV, I
(B) Same
(C) III, IV, I, II
(C) Half
(D) IV, II, III, I
19. Which of the following marks the boundary (D) Not related to
between the Archaean and Proterozoic
23. Match the physical laws (List – I) with their
formations in India ?
mathematical expressions (List – II) :
(A) Erinpura Granite
List − I List − II
(B) Untala Granite
E Ohm's Law 1 Δ × E = dB/dt
(C) Idar Granite
F Faraday's Law 2 Δ × H = J + dD/dt
(D) Berach Granite
G Coulomb's Law 3 J = σE
20. Kaladgis are said to be equivalent of ____ H Ampere's Law 4 ∇B = 0
(A) Kurnools
(A) E-2, F-3, G-1, H-4
(B) Cuddapahs
(B) E-3, F-1, G-4, H-2
(C) Dharwars
(C) E-3, F-4, G-1, H-2
(D) Gondwanas
(D) E-4, F-1, G-2, H-3
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24. In the general formula of numerical integration 27. If ‘a’ is equatorial radius and ‘c’ is the polar
derived from Newton’s forward difference
radius, then the geometrical flattening of
polynomial, for what values of ‘n’,
Simplon’s 1/3 rule can be obtained the earth is
(A) n = 0 (A) (a-c)/a
(B) n = 1
(B) (c-a)/a
(C) n = 2
(C) (a+c)/a
(D) n = 3
(D) (a-c)/c
25. The method of least squares consists in
minimizing 28. The Rodrigues Triple Junction is a ______
(A) Sum of the squares of the errors
(A) Ridge-Trench-Ridge
(B) Sum of the squares of measured
values (B) Trench-Ridge-Ridge
(C) Sum of squares of theoretical values (C) Ridge-Ridge-Ridge
(D) Difference of squares of errors
(D) Trench-Trench-Trench
26. According to Airy-Heiskanen System of
isostatic compensation, the root thickness 29. The following ocean is the youngest of all
below a topographic high of 1.0 km will
(A) Pacific
be ________ (with the assumed densities
of 2.9 g/cc and 3.3 g/ cc to the lower crust
(B) Indian
and upper mantle, respectively).
(A) 0.67m (B) 67 km (C) Atlantic
(C) 6.7 km (D) 0.67 km (D) Antarctic
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30. The seismic ray path PKP is 33. What will be the gravity field at mean sea
(A) P wave while passed down through level, if the gravity field measured at an
the mantle and the outer core and then elevation of 100 m is 979.85 ?
up through the mantle
(B) P wave which travelled down through (A) Nearly 979810 mgals
the mantle and inner core
(C) P wave which travelled down through (B) Nearly 979180 mgals
the inner and outer cores
(D) P wave which travelled through upper (C) Nearly 979108 mgals
and lower crusts
(D) Nearly 979018 mgals
31. The time difference between S wave and
P wave travel 34. The sequence of resistivity contrasts
(A) Inversely proportional to epicentral between three layers in the ‘Q’ Type
distance
curve are
(B) Directly proportional to epicentral
distance
(A) ρ1 > ρ 2 < ρ 3
(C) Decays exponentially with epicentral
distance (B) ρ1 > ρ 2 > ρ 3
(D) Decays logarithmically with epicentral
distance (C) ρ1 < ρ 2 > ρ 3
32. Match the following (D) ρ1 < ρ 2 < ρ 3
M μ GAL 1 10-2 m s-2 35. The longitudinal conductance of a layer
N gu 2 10-5 m s+2 with resistivity of 50 Ohm m and a
O mgal 3 10-8 m s-2 thickness of 100 m is
P gal 4 10-6 m s-2 (A) 5000 Ohm m
(A) M-3, N-4, O-1, P-2 (B) 0.50 mhos
(B) M-3, N-4, O-2, P-1
(C) 50 Ohm m
(C) M-4, N-3, O-2, P-1
(D) M-2, N-3, O-1, P-4 (D) 5 mhos
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36. If we have ‘n’ vibroseis generated records 39. Bulk Volume Water (BVW) is the product
on which signal shape is essentially of
constant and the noise is random, then
S/N after stacking varies as (A) Porosity and residual oil saturation
1/2
(A) n (B) Porosity and residual water saturation
(B) n2 (C) Permeability and water saturation
(C) n
(D) Porosity and water saturation
(D) 1/n
40. The transit time recorded by sonic log in
37. The NMO ( Δ tNMO) for a geophone offset salt water mud filtrate is ________ fresh
from the source by 600 m is 9.1 ms, then
water.
what is the value of the ( Δ tNMO) for a
geophone offset by 3600 m from the source (A) greater than
(A) 36 ms
(B) less than
(B) 3280 ms
(C) equal to
(C) 360 ms
(D) twice that of
(D) 328 ms
41. In a horizontal motion the coriolis force
38. Noise generated in Marine seismic survey
acts to the ______ of the wind direction in
by ship vessel ranges between the Northern Hemisphere.
(A) 10 and 200 Mz (A) Left
(B) 10-200 Kz (B) Right
(C) 200-1000 Gz (C) North
(D) 10-20 Hz (D) South
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42. Streamlines exhibit points of ______ in 45. The maximum eddy length scale is limited
the atmosphere. by the boundary layer depth to be about
_____ meters.
(A) Inflow
(A) 103
(B) Outflow
(B) 105
(C) Neutral
(C) 107
(D) All
(D) 109
43. Intensity of Tropical cyclone is estimated,
46. Individual hot towers would need to visit
based on Current Intensity (C.I) number.
simultaneously around the globe to
C.I number 7.5 represents maximum wind
account for the required vertical heat
speed of __________ Kts.
transport of the ITCZ
(A) 150 (A) 500 – 1,400
(B) 75 (B) 1,500 – 5,000
(C) 250 (C) 5,000 – 7,000
(D) All (D) 8,000 – 10,000
44. The Geostrophic wind is generally a good 47. Zonally Symme Easterly and Westerly
approximation to the actual wind in _____ wind regions alternate reqularly with
synoptic scale disturbances. periods varying from about _____ months.
(A) Tropics (A) 5 – 10
(B) Middle latitudes (B) 10 – 15
(C) Polar latitudes (C) 15 – 20
(D) Globe (D) 24 – 30
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48. Combined Albedo for the Earth and 51. The following is not the artificial cloud
Atmosphere is ______ % seeding agent to enhance rainfall
(A) 4 (A) Calcium Chloride
(B) Silver Iodide
(B) 10
(C) Sodium Chloride
(C) 30
(D) Rubber
(D) 60
52. In Satellite meteorology, water vapour
49. The Heat Engine released when water imagery is derived for the radiance at the
vapour changes to a liquid is called ___ atmospheric window region ______ μ m
(A) Latent heat of evaporation (A) 5 – 6
(B) 1 – 2
(B) Latent heat of fusion
(C) 8 – 10
(C) Latent heat of condensation
(D) All
(D) Latent heat of sublimation
53. Clausius- Claperon equation deals with
50. The IPCC estimated that Aviation also _____
causes ___________% of global warming.
(A) Saturated vapour pressure on
(A) 4.2 temperature
(B) Vapour pressure on temperature
(B) 2
(C) Super saturated vapour pressure on
(C) 3.5
temperature
(D) 5
(D) All
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54. The value of Dry Adiabatic Lapse rate is 57. Rossby number is a ratio between _____
_______
(A) Vorticity and coriolis force
(A) 1°C per 100 met (B) Velocity and coriolis force
(B) 3° C per 100 met (C) Acceleration and coriolis force
(D) None
(C) 4° C per 100 met
58. The Omega equation arises due to the
(D) None contribution of vorticity and ____ equation.
(A) Static
55. The seasonal shift of ITCZ is larger over
(B) Thermodynamic
__________
(C) Quasi Thermodynamic
(A) SE Asia and Australia
(D) All
(B) Atlantic ocean 59. The following one is not General
circulation model
(C) Pacific ocean (A) NCAR CCSM3
–
(D) West – African region (B) CCSK mdrs
–
(C) GFDL – CM2.1
56. Blaton’s relation deals with the
relationship between _________ (D) MM5
60. Land and sea breezes are explained by
(A) Stream lines and Trajections
the ______ term in the circulation theorm.
(B) Stream lines and Isobars (A) Solenoidal
(B) Coriolis
(C) Stream lines and Isotherms
(C) Frictional
(D) Stream lines and Isotach
(D) All
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61. SARAL Satellite is dedicated for _______
64. Indian rivers contribute about _______%
(A) Altimetry Mission for ocean of the global annual discharge.
observation
(A) 6
(B) Altimetry Mission for land observation
(B) 10
(C) Altimetry Mission for atmospheric
observation (C) 25
(D) All the above (D) 4
62. When a wind- driven surface current 65. The monsoon currents are shallow with
moves away from a land mass, it results
most of the variation being restricted to the
in _____
upper _________ mm.
(A) Upwelling
(A) 200
(B) Convergence
(B) 150
(C) Eddy
(C) 175
(D) Gyte
(D) None
63. The thermohaline circulation transports
roughly _______ of the total heat transport 66. Sharp decrease of temperature with
of the ocean/atmospheric circulation
depths is called _________
system.
(A) Halocline
(A) 1
2
(B) Pycnocline
(B) 13
(C) 1 (C) Surface layer
4
(D) 18 (D) Thermocline
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67. The albedo of ocean surface is ______ 72. The Leeuwin current is about ____ meters
%. deep.
(A) 30 (B) 22 (A) 500
(C) 6 (D) 0 (B) 100
(C) 250
68. Deep water is often rich in _________
(A) Dissolved gases (D) 300
(B) Plant life
73. ________ is a sound channel near the
(C) Nutrients surface.
(D) A and C
(A) Shadow zone
69. The density of sea water increases with (B) SOFAR
________
(C) Deep scatter layer
(A) Increase of salinity
(B) Increase of temperature (D) Surface duct
(C) Decrease in Temperature 74. South equatorial current flow is stronger
(D) A and B during the ________ monsoon season.
70. Annual mean heat flux into the Arabian (A) Summer
sea is associated with abrupt ________
(B) Winter
(A) Cooling
(C) Pre
(B) Heating
(D) None
(C) Buoyancy
(D) None 75. Temperature sensor in XBT is _______
71. In the Indian ocean, the equatorial counter (A) Thermistor
current is located several hundred miles
(B) Semiconductor
___________ of the equator.
(A) North (B) East (C) Electrode
(C) South (D) West (D) None
_____________________________
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Page 1 of 16
Source: Telangana State Eligibility Test. Question paper published by Telangana State Eligibility Test.