TS SET 2013: Paper III, Computer Science and Applications

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SUBJECT CODE SUBJECT PAPER
A-04-03 COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS III
HALL TICKET NUMBER QUESTION BOOKLET
NUMBER
OMR SHEET NUMBER
DURATION MAXIMUM MARKS NUMBER OF PAGES NUMBER OF QUESTIONS
2 HOUR 30 MINUTES 150 16 75
This is to certify that, the entries made in the above portion are correctly written and verified.
Candidates Signature Name and Signature of Invigilator
Instructions for the Candidates A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦ËMæü$ çÜ*^èþ¯èþË$
1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top 1. D ç³#r ò³O ¿êVæü ÌZ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Ò$ çàÌý sìýMðüsý ¯èþ ºÆæÿ$ Æ>Äæý$ yìþ.
of this page.
2. D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ yðþ¿ñýOI§æþ$ ºçßý$âñýO_eMæü {ç³Ôèý²Ë¯èþ$ MæüÍW E ¨.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions. 3. ç³Èæü {´ëÆæÿ ¿æýÐèþ$$¯èþ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ò$Mæü$ CÐèþÓºyæþ$èþ$ ¨. Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will °Ñ$çÙÐèþ$$ËÌZ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ðþÇ_ Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ A Ôé˯èþ$ èþç³µ°çÜÇV>
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ.
the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ^èþ*yæþyé°Mìü MæüÐèþÆÿõ³h A ^èþ$¯èþ E¯èþ² M>Wèþç³# ïÜË$¯èþ$
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper _ ^èþ yìþ. íÜtMæüPÆÿ ïÜË$Ìôý° Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ C¨ÐèþÆæÿMóü ðþÇ_ E¯èþ² {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet Ò$Ææÿ$ A XMæüÇ ^èþÐèþ§æþ$ª.
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in (ii) MæüÐèþÆæÿ$ õ³h ò³O Ðèþ$${¨ _¯èþ çÜÐèþ*^鯿ÿ {ç³M>Ææÿ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ° õ³iË
the booklet with the information printed on the cover çÜ Qůèþ$ Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ {ç³Ôèý²Ë çÜ Qůèþ$ çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ. õ³iË çÜ QÅMæü$
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing çÜ º «¨ _ V>± Ìôý§é çÜ*_ _¯èþ çÜ QÅÌZ {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é °f{ç³
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other M>Mæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ {MæüÐèþ$ç³§æþ®ÌZ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é HÐðþO¯é óþyéË$ yæþ$r
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a Ðèþ sìý §øçÙç³NÇèþÐðþ$O¯èþ {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°² Ððþ r¯óþ Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$ °Ñ$ÚëÌZÏ ç³È>
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$°Mìü ÇW C_aÐóþíÜ §é°Mìü º§æþ$Ë$V> çÜÇV>Y E¯èþ² {ç³Ôèý²ç³{é°² ¡çÜ$Mø yìþ.
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
èþ§æþ¯èþ èþÆæÿ {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ðèþ*Ææÿaºyæþ§æþ$ A§æþ¯èþç³# çÜÐèþ$Äæý$ CÐèþÓºyæþ§æþ$.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number (iii) ò³O Ñ«§æþ V> çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mö¯èþ² èþÆ>Óèþ {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþ çÜ Qůèþ$ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet A§óþÑ«§æþ V> OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ çÜ Qůèþ$ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °ÇªçÙtt çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Æ>Äæý$ÐèþÌñý¯èþ$.
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. {ç³ {ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ ¯éË$Væü$ {ç³éÅÐèþ*²Äæý$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþË$ (A), (B), (C) Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ (D)
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) Ë$V> CÐèþÓºyézÆÿ$$. {ç³{ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ G¯èþ$²Mö° Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ {ç³ {ç³Ôé² çÜ QÅMæü$ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ ¯éË$Væü$ Ðèþé¢ÌZÏ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ
correct response against each item. {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ çÜ*_ ^óþ Ðèþ颰² »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þø Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
Example : A B C D ç³NÇ ^éÍ.
where (C) is the correct response. E§éçßýÆæÿ×ý : A B C D
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Answer (C) çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ AÆÿ$$óþ
Sheet given to you. If you mark at any place other than in the 5. {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ˯èþ$ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ø CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O¯èþ
circle in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ Ðèþé¢ÌZϯóþ ç³NÇ _ Væü$Ç¢ ^éÍ. AÌêM>Mæü çÜÐèþ*«§é¯èþ ç³{èþ ò³O ÐóþÆöMæü ^ør
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. Væü$Ç¢õÜ¢ Ò$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ Ðèþ$*ÌêÅ Mæü¯èþ ^óþÄæý$ºyæþ§æþ$.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 6. {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ÌZç³Ë C_a¯èþ çÜ*^èþ¯èþ˯èþ$ gê{Væüèþ¢V> ^èþ§æþÐèþ yìþ.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant 7. _èþ$¢ç³°° {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ _ÐèþÆæÿ C_a¯èþ RêäçܦËÐèþ$$ÌZ ^óþÄæý*Í.
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself 8. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °È~èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ çÜ*_ ^èþÐèþËíܯèþ ÑÐèþÆ>Ë$ èþí³µ _ CèþÆæÿ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ
liable to disqualification. Ò$ Væü$Ç¢ ç³#¯èþ$ ðþÍõ³ Ñ«§æþ V> Ò$ õ³Ææÿ$ Æ>Äæý$yæþ V>± Ìôý§é CèþÆæÿ _à²Ë¯èþ$ ò³rtyæþ
9. The candidate must handover the OMR Answer Sheet to the V>± ^óþíܯèþrÏÆÿ$$óþ Ò$ A¯èþÆæÿáèþMæü$ Ò$Æóÿ »ê«§æþ$ÅËÐèþ#鯿ÿ$.
invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and 9. ç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆ>Óèþ Ò$ OMR ç³{é°² èþç³µ°çÜÇV> ç³Èæü ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$yìþMìü CÐéÓÍ.
must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. The Ðésìý° ç³Èæü Væü¨ ºÄæý$rMæü$ ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏMæü*yæþ§æþ$. ç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆæÿ$Ðéèþ A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦Ë$
candidate is allowed to take away the carbon copy of OMR {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°², OMR ç³{èþ Äñý$$MæüP M>Ææÿ¾¯þ M>ï³° ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏÐèþ^èþ$a.
Sheet and used Question paper booklet at the end of the
examination. 10. ±Í/¯èþËÏ Ææÿ Væü$ »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þ Ðèþ*{èþÐóþ$ Eç³Äñý*W ^éÍ.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ÌêVæüÇ£æþÐþ$ sôýº$ÌýÞ, M>ÅÍMæü$ÅÌôýrÆÿË$, GË[M>t°Mü ç³ÇMæüÆ>Ë$ Ððþ$$§æþËVæü$¯èþÑ ç³ÈæüVæü¨ÌZ
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. Eç³Äñý*W ^èþyæþ °õÙ«§æþ .
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. èþç³ çÜÐèþ*«§é¯éËMæü$ Ðèþ*Ææÿ$PË èþWY ç³# Ìôý§æþ$.
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COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
Paper – III
1. The following numbers are inserted into 3. Let w be the minimum weight among all
an empty binary search tree in the given the edge weights in an undirected
order: 10, 1, 3, 5, 15, 12, 16. What is the connected graph. Let e be a specific edge
height of the binary search tree (tree height of weight w. Which of the following is
FALSE?
is the maximum distance of a leaf node
from the root) ? (A) There is a minimum spanning tree
containing e
(A) 2 (B) 3
(B) If e is not in a minimum spanning tree
(C) 4 (D) 6
T after that in the cycle formed by
2. What is the time complexity of the adding e to T, all edges have the same
weight.
following recursive function ?
(C) Every minimum spanning tree has an
int DoThisThing (int n) {
edge of weight w
if (n <= 2) return 1; (D) e is present in every minimum tree has
an edge of weight w.
else return (DoThisThing
(floor(sqrt(n))) +n); } 4. Algorithm for 0/1 knapsack Problem of
3 instances can be designed using
2
(A) Θ (n )
(A) Greedy Method
(B) Θ (n log2 n)
(B) Divide-and-Conquer
(C) Θ ( log2n log2 n) (C) Dynamic Programming
(D) Θ (log2 n) (D) All the above
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5. Dijkstra algorithm is for finding 8. Which of the following languages will be
equivalent ?
(A) Shortest paths from single source to
several sinks.
L1 = {0n1n / n ≥ 1}, L2 = S Æ0S1 | 01; L3 = 01 |
(B) Minimum spanning tree for a graph 0+011+
(C) Sorted list of nodes in a undirected (A) L2 and L3
graph with negative edge weights
(B) L3 and L1
(D) All the above
(C) L1 and L2
6. The problems 3-SAT and 2-SAT are
(D) L1 , L2 and L3
(A) both in P
9. Consider a DFA accepting all strings over
(B) both NP-complete
{a, b} such that number of a’s and b’s are
(C) NP-complete and in P respectively
even. What is the minimum number of
(D) undecidable and NP-complete states such DFA will have?
respectively
(A) 2 (B) 4
7. Suppose A and B are two sets of strings
(C) 6 (D) 8
from ∑ *. Further suppose that B is a
subset of A. Which of the following statement 10. Which one of the following is FALSE?
must always be true for A and B ?
(A) There is a unique minimal DFA for
I. If A is finite then B is finite every regular language.
II. If A is regular then B is regular
(B) Every NFA can be converted to an
III. If A is context free then B is context equivalent PDA.
free
(C) Complement of every context-free
(A) I only
language is recursive.
(B) II only
(D) Every non-deterministic PDA can be
(C) III only
converted to an equivalent
(D) All the above deterministic PDA
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11. A shift reduce parser carries out the 14. The inner product and outer product of two
actions specified within braces fuzzy vectors a = (0.5, 0.2, 1.0, 0.8) and
immediately after reducing with the b = (0.8, 0.1, 0.9, 0.3) are respectively
corresponding rule of grammar : S ÆxxW
(A) 1.56 and 0.44
{print “1”}, SÆY {print “2”}, WÆSz {print “3”}.
What is the translation of xxxxyzz using (B) 0.5 and 0.5
the syntax directed translation scheme
(C) 0.9 and 0.2
described by the above rules
(D) 1.56 and 8.44
(A) 11231
(B) 33211 15. Logistic sigmoid function is
(C) 11233 (A) same as ramp function
(D) 23131 – kx
(B) 1/(1+e ) with k is the steepness
12. Let S be an NP-complete problem Q and parameter
R be two other problems not known to be (C) –1 + 2/(1+e– kx) with k is the steepness
in NP. Q is polynomial-time reducible to S
parameter
and S is polynomial-time reducible to R.
Which one of the following statements is (D) None of the above
true?
16. Given the statements
(A) R is NP-complete
I. Simple Perceptions are single layer
(B) R is NP-hard
feed-forward networks
(C) Q is NP-complete
II. Simple Perceptions use binary
(D) Q is NP-hard
activation functions
13. Degree of Membership of x in Union of
III. Simple Perception has output unit
fuzzy sets A and B is defined as
which has an activation 1, 0, – 1
(A) μAUB (x) = Max {μA (x), μB (x)}
(A) I and II are correct
(B) μAUB (x) = {x/ x is in A or x is in B or in
both} (B) I, II, III are correct
(C) μAUB (x) = μA (x). μB (x) (C) II and III are correct
(D) μAUB (x) = Min {μA (x), μB (x)} (D) I and III are correct
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17. Consider the grammar E Æ E + n | E x n | n. 19. Identify TRUE statement among the
For a sentence n + n , the handles in the following with reference to inheritance
concept in C++.
right-sentential form of the reduction are
(A) A new class derived from base class
using inheritance is known as super
(A) n, E + n and E + n x n
class.
(B) n, E + n and E + E x n (B) The private members of base class
can be inherited.
(C) n, n + n and n + n x n (C) A member declared protected is
accessible by any class immediately
(D) n, E +n and E x n derived from it.
(D) An abstract class is one that is used
18. With reference to classes and member to create objects.
functions in C++, identify the FALSE 20. Constructor in a OOP language
statement among the following: (A) helps us to construct objects of a class
(B) is a member function that initialize the
(A) Only the member functions can have
objects of a class
access to private data members and (C) must be declared in a private section
private functions. (D) can be a virtual function
(B) Member functions can be defined 21. Which of the following is true?
(A) Optimal solution of Linear
inside or outside the class.
Programming Problem can always be
identified only in middle of feasible
(C) A static member function can have region
access to the static members declared (B) Optimal solution of Liner
Programming Problem can always be
in any class.
identified with one of the feasible
corner points of solution space
(D) The keyword const is appended to the
(C) Solution space of Linear
function prototype of a member Programming is always bounded
function that does not alter any data (D) Solution space of Linear
Programming has finite number of
in the class.
solutions
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22. The optimal value of z for the following 24. Which of the following statements are true?
Linear Programming Problem is I. Primal simplex method starts with
feasible but not optimal
Maximize z = 5x1 + 6x2
II. Dual simplex method starts infeasible
Subject to x1 – 2x2 >= 2
but optimal
–2x1 + 3x2 >=2
III. Primal simplex method starts with
x1,x2 are unrestricted in sign infeasible but optimal
(A) – 86 IV. Dual simplex method starts feasible
(B) 86 and optimal
(C) unbounded solution (A) II and III only
(D) 6 (B) I ,II and III only
23. The starting solution using least-cost (C) I and II only
method for the following transportation (D) I, II, III and IV
model
25. The method used for in developing
1 2 6 7
necessary Kuhn-Tucker conditions for
0 4 2 12 identifying stationery points of non-linear
constrained problem with constraints
3 1 5 11
10 10 10 (A) Min-Cut
(B) Lagrangean
is
(C) Vogel
(A) 40 (B) 60
(C) 94 (D) 61 (D) Gomory’s Cutting Plane
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26. The following four statements were sought 28. Consider the schedule consisting of
to bring out the similarities between the sequence of Read (r) and Write (w)
operations. Subscript of r and w denote
concept of a Table and that of a Relation
two transactions 1 and 2.
(in Relational model of data). One of them
is incorrect. Identify the INCORRECT r1(A): w1(A);r2(A);w2(A);r1(B); w1(B);
choice. r2(B);w2(B)
(A) The number of rows in a table is the This schedule is of _______ serializable.
same as the cardinality of a relation (A) Time stamp
(B) The number of columns of a table is (B) Non-serial
the same as the degree of a relation (C) Conflict
(C) The tenth row of a Table is the 10th (D) Serial
Tuple of a Relation
29. Query By Example (QBE) is based on
(D) The column headings of a Table is the (A) Tuple Calculus
same as the Attribute names of a
(B) Domain Calculus
Relation
(C) SQL
27. For a database relation R (a, b, c, d) where (D) All of the above
the domain of a, b, c, d include only atomic
values. Only the following functional 30. A trigger is
dependencies and those that can be (A) a statement that enables to start any
inferred from them hold: aÆ b, bÆ d. The DBMS
relation is (B) a statement that is executed by the
(A) in first normal form but not in second user when debugging an application
program
normal form
(C) a condition the system tests for the
(B) in second normal form but not in third
validity of the user
normal form
(D) a statement that is executed
(C) in third normal form
automatically by the system as a side
(D) None effect of modification to the database
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31. RAID model is best suited for 35. Prototyping model is
(A) Extremely short development cycle
(A) linear sequential model
(B) Extremely large development cycle
(B) an iterative model
(C) Suitable for any kind of development
(C) an evolutionary model
(D) None of the above
(D) none
32. A level 0 Data Flow Diagram (DFD) is
called
36. Hamming distance of 5 can detect and
(A) Bubble chart correct errors in
(B) Process chart
(A) five bits
(C) ER Diagram
(B) three bits
(D) Context diagram
(C) two bits
33. Which one of the following is equivalent
for quality control in Software ? (D) one bit only
(A) Defect prevention
37. Which of the following statements are true
(B) Variation control
for Huffman Code ?
(C) Defect removal
(D) Cost control Huffman Coding
I. is an entropy encoding algorithm
34. Degree of Cohesion of objects can be
determined by II. is used for lossless data compression
(A) Total fan_in of all objects / Total
III. makes use of a variable-length code
fan_out
(B) Total fan_out of all objects / Total (A) II and III only
fan_in (B) I and II only
(C) Total fan_out of all objects / Total
(C) I and III only
objects
(D) Total fan_in / Total objects (D) All of these
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38. Find the statement(s) which is/are NOT 41. The best data structure to check whether
applicable to BSC ( Binary Symmetric an arithmetic expression has balanced
Channel) parenthesis is
I. it can transmit only one of two symbols
(A) Queue
(0 and 1)
II. The transmission is assumed to be (B) Stack
perfect, with the receiver getting the
(C) Tree
right bit.
III. Many problems in communication (D) Graph
theory can be reduced to a BSC
because it is one of the simplest noisy 42. In Hierarchical routing for 400 router
channels to analyze. subnet, the optimal number of levels is
(A) III only (A) 20 (B) 400
(B) II only
(C) 3 (D) 6
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only 43. A device that merges several low-speed
asynchronous signals into one high-
39. The IP delivery service is
speed synchronous circuit is called
(A) reliable, connection-oriented
(B) non-routable (A) A de-multiplexer
(C) unreliable, connectionless (B) A concentrator
(D) none of the above (C) A buffer
40. What is the best description of switches (D) A decoder
and hubs from the list below?
44. While using Internet you can secure the
(A) Hubs are faster than switches
communication best by using
(B) Switches setup virtual circuits and
reduce network bandwidth (A) encoding
(C) More networking devices can be (B) encryption
added to a hub
(C) VOIP
(D) Hubs support spanning trees,
switches do not (D) e-FAX
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45. Page fault occurs when 48. Which of the following is NOT a valid
(A) there is a mismatch between deadlock prevention scheme?
requested data and available data (A) Release all resources before
(B) OS is finding fault with a page which requesting a new resource
is already loaded into memory (B) Number all resources uniquely and
(C) OS is looking for a page which is not never request a lower numbered
yet defined by the programmer/user resource than the last requested
(D) OS is looking for a page which is not (C) Never request a resource after
loaded into main memory releasing the resource
46. Which of the following is correct with (D) Request and be allocated all required
respect to mailbox in Inter-Process resources before execution
Communication ?
49. Thrashing
(A) Only the owner process can send
(A) reduces page I/O
messages to a mailbox
(B) decreases the degree of multi-
(B) No process other than the owner can
programming
send or receive messages to/from a
mailbox (C) implies excessive I/O
(C) Only the owner process can receive (D) improve the system performance
messages from a mailbox
50. In the relation instance given below, which
(D) Any process can receive messages
of the following functional dependencies
from a mailbox
are satisfied on it.
47. A critical region is A B C
1 4 2
(A) One which is enclosed by a pair of
1 5 3
P and V operation on semaphores
1 6 3
(B) A program segment where shared 3 2 2
resources are accessed
(A) AB Æ C and C Æ A
(C) A program segment that often causes
unexpected system crashes (B) BC Æ A and B Æ C
(D) A program segment that has not been (C) BC Æ A and A Æ C
proved bug-free (D) AC Æ B and B Æ A
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54. The interrupt vector address for TRAP
51. The minimum time delay between the
8085 in 8085 is
initiation of two independent memory
(A) 0000h (B) 0024h
opertaions is called
(C) 0018h (D) 002ch
(A) access time
55. Von Neumann architecture is
(B) cycle time
(A) SISD (B) SIMD
(C) transfer time
(C) MIMD (D) MISD
(D) latency time
56. Which of the following devices has a
relative origin ?
52. The first operating system used in
(A) joystick
Microprocessors is
(B) track ball
(A) Zenix
(C) mouse
(B) DOS
(D) touch screen
(C) CP/M
57. For a database relation R(X, Y, Z, P), where
(D) Multics the domains of X, Y, Z, and P include only
atomic values, and only the following
53. A micro-programmed control unit functional dependencies and those that
can be inferred from them hold: X Æ Z,
(A) is faster than a hard-wired control
Y Æ P.
unit
The relation is
(B) is useful when very small programs
(A) in first normal form but not in second
are to be run
normal form
(C) facilitates easy implementation of (B) in second normal form but not in third
new instructions normal form
(D) usually refers to the control unit of a (C) in third normal form
micro-processor (D) none of the above
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58. Author-ware is a software for 62. Any given Boolean expression can be
implemented by using
(A) Software for book writing
(A) NAND and NOR gates only
(B) Creating multimedia documents
(B) NAND gates only
(C) Graphics creating (C) NOR gates only
(D) Author’s Database (D) OR gates only
59. Raster Systems display a picture from a 63. The main disadvantage of DRAM over
definition in a SPAM is
(A) High package density
(A) Display file program
(B) Costly
(B) Frame grabber
(C) External memory refresh logic is
(C) Frame buffer required
(D) Display buffer (D) High power consumption
64. A micro-processor with a clock frequency
60. The best suited hidden surface algorithm
of 100 MHz will have a clock period of
to deal with non-polygonal, non-planar
(A) 1 ns
surface patches is
(B) 10 ns
(A) Painter’s algorithm
(C) 10000 ns
(B) z-buffer algorithm
(D) 1000 ns
(C) Ray tracing
65. The ALE line of an 8085 microprocessor
(D) Scan-line algorithm is used to
(A) latch the output of an I/O instruction
61. One of the most noticeable factors that limit
into an external latch.
processor chip’s speed is
(B) latch the 8 bits of address line AD7-ADO
(A) Heat built on chip into external latch
(B) Large size of monitor (C) deactivate the chip-select signal from
(C) Infrequent use of the Computer memory devices
System
(D) find the interrupt enable status of the
(D) Size of hard disk TRAP interrupt
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66. The surface of the drum on which toner
69. Plasma panels are based on
stucks is
(A) Liquit Crystal display
(A) photogenic
(B) Non-emissive display
(B) photoconductive
(C) Gas discharge display
(C) photosensitive
(D) photonic (D) Absorbing display
67. In clipping algorithm of Cohen & 70. Which of the following point lies on the
Sutherland using region codes, a line is same side of the origin, with reference to
already clipped if the the line 3x + 7y = 2 ?
(A) logical OR of the end point code is
(A) (3, 0)
0000
(B) (1, 0)
(B) logical OR of the end point code is not
(C) (0.5, 0.5)
0000
(C) logical AND of the end point code is (D) (0.5, 0)
0000
71. Which of the following class allows
(D) logical AND of the end point code is
creation of only one object ?
not 0000
(A) Virtual class
68. The refresh rate below which picture
(B) Abstract class
flickers is
(C) Singleton class
(A) 20 (B) 25
(D) Friend class
(C) 30 (D) 35
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74. BNF is a meta language for
72. Which of the following concept is
appropriate in determining what method (A) specifying the semantics of a
to invoke at run time ? language
(A) dynamic typing (B) specifying the context free grammar
(B) dynamic binding
(C) describing how a program works
(C) dynamic loading
(D) shell programming
(D) data hiding
75. As the number of entries in the Hash table
73. A horn clause with exactly one positive
increases, the number of collisions
literal is called
(A) decreases
(A) A definite clause
(B) A goal clause (B) remains same
(C) A fact (C) increases
(D) A twist horn (D) randomly changes
___________________
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Space for Rough Work
IIIá 16 A-04-03Official key not published for this paper.
Page 1 of 16
Source: Telangana State Eligibility Test. Question paper published by Telangana State Eligibility Test.