TS SET 2013: Paper III, Life Sciences
Text of page 1
aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa
aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa
SUBJECT CODE SUBJECT PAPER
A-09-03 LIFE SCIENCES III
HALL TICKET NUMBER QUESTION BOOKLET
NUMBER
OMR SHEET NUMBER
DURATION MAXIMUM MARKS NUMBER OF PAGES NUMBER OF QUESTIONS
2 HOUR 30 MINUTES 150 16 75
This is to certify that, the entries made in the above portion are correctly written and verified.
Candidates Signature Name and Signature of Invigilator
Instructions for the Candidates A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦ËMæü$ çÜ*^èþ¯èþË$
1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top 1. D ç³#r ò³O ¿êVæü ÌZ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Ò$ çàÌý sìýMðüsý ¯èþ ºÆæÿ$ Æ>Äæý$ yìþ.
of this page. 2. D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ yðþ¿ñýOI§æþ$ ºçßý$âñýO_eMæü {ç³Ôèý²Ë¯èþ$ MæüÍW E ¨.
2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions. 3. ç³Èæü {´ëÆæÿ ¿æýÐèþ$$¯èþ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ò$Mæü$ CÐèþÓºyæþ$èþ$ ¨. Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will °Ñ$çÙÐèþ$$ËÌZ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ðþÇ_ Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ A Ôé˯èþ$ èþç³µ°çÜÇV>
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ.
the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ^èþ*yæþyé°Mìü MæüÐèþÆÿõ³h A ^èþ$¯èþ E¯èþ² M>Wèþç³# ïÜË$¯èþ$
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper _ ^èþ yìþ. íÜtMæüPÆÿ ïÜË$Ìôý° Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ C¨ÐèþÆæÿMóü ðþÇ_ E¯èþ² {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet Ò$Ææÿ$ A XMæüÇ ^èþÐèþ§æþ$ª.
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in (ii) MæüÐèþÆæÿ$ õ³h ò³O Ðèþ$${¨ _¯èþ çÜÐèþ*^éÆæÿ {ç³M>Ææÿ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ° õ³iË
the booklet with the information printed on the cover çÜ Qůèþ$ Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ {ç³Ôèý²Ë çÜ Qůèþ$ çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ. õ³iË çÜ QÅMæü$
page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing çÜ º «¨ _ V>± Ìôý§é çÜ*_ _¯èþ çÜ QÅÌZ {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é °f{ç³
or duplicate or not in serial order or any other M>Mæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ {MæüÐèþ$糧æþ®ÌZ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é HÐðþO¯é óþyéË$ yæþ$r
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a Ðèþ sìý §øçÙç³NÇèþÐðþ$O¯èþ {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°² Ððþ r¯óþ Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$ °Ñ$ÚëÌZÏ ç³È>
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$°Mìü ÇW C_aÐóþíÜ §é°Mìü º§æþ$Ë$V> çÜÇV>Y E¯èþ² {ç³Ôèý²ç³{é°² ¡çÜ$Mø yìþ.
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet èþ§æþ¯èþ èþÆæÿ {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ðèþ*Ææÿaºyæþ§æþ$ A§æþ¯èþç³# çÜÐèþ$Äæý$ CÐèþÓºyæþ§æþ$.
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number (iii) ò³O Ñ«§æþ V> çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mö¯èþ² èþÆ>Óèþ {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþ çÜ Qůèþ$ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet A§óþÑ«§æþ V> OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ çÜ Qůèþ$ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °ÇªçÙtt çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Æ>Äæý$ÐèþÌñý¯èþ$.
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. {ç ³ {ç ³ Ôèý²Mæü$ ¯éË$Væü$ {ç³éÅÐèþ*²Äæý$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþË$ (A), (B), (C) Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ (D)
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) Ë$V> CÐèþÓºyézÆÿ$$. {ç³{ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ G¯èþ$²Mö° Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ {ç³ {ç³Ôé² çÜ QÅMæü$ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ ¯éË$Væü$ Ðèþé¢ÌZÏ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ
correct response against each item. {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ çÜ*_ ^óþ Ðèþ颰² »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þø Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
Example : A B C D ç³NÇ ^éÍ.
where (C) is the correct response. E§éçßýÆæÿ×ý : A B C D
(C) çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ AÆÿ$$óþ
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in theOMR Answer
Sheet given to you. If you mark at any place other than in the5. {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ˯èþ$ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ø CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O¯èþ
circle in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ Ðèþé¢ÌZϯóþ ç³NÇ _ Væü$Ç¢ ^éÍ. AÌêM>Mæü çÜÐèþ*«§é¯èþ ç³{èþ ò³O ÐóþÆöMæü ^ør
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. Væü$Ç¢õÜ¢ Ò$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ Ðèþ$*ÌêÅ Mæü¯èþ ^óþÄæý$ºyæþ§æþ$.
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 6. {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ÌZç³Ë C_a¯èþ çÜ*^èþ¯èþ˯èþ$ gê{Væüèþ¢V> ^èþ§æþÐèþ yìþ.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR 7. _èþ$¢ç³°° {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ _ÐèþÆæÿ C_a¯èþ RêäçܦËÐèþ$$ÌZ ^óþÄæý*Í.
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant
8. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °È~èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ çÜ*_ ^èþÐèþËíܯèþ ÑÐèþÆ>Ë$ èþí³µ _ CèþÆæÿ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself
liable to disqualification. Ò$ Væü$Ç¢ ç³#¯èþ$ ðþÍõ³ Ñ«§æþ V> Ò$ õ³Ææÿ$ Æ>Äæý$yæþ V>± Ìôý§é CèþÆæÿ _à²Ë¯èþ$ ò³rtyæþ
9. The candidate must handover the OMR Answer Sheet to the V>± ^óþíܯèþrÏÆÿ$$óþ Ò$ A¯èþÆæÿáèþMæü$ Ò$Æóÿ »ê«§æþ$ÅËÐèþ#éÆæÿ$.
invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and 9. ç ³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆ>Óèþ Ò$ OMR ç³{é°² èþç³µ°çÜÇV> ç³Èæü ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$yìþMìü CÐéÓÍ.
must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. The Ðésìý° ç³Èæü Væü¨ ºÄæý$rMæü$ ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏMæü*yæþ§æþ$. ç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆæÿ$Ðéèþ A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦Ë$
candidate is allowed to take away the carbon copy of OMR {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°², OMR ç³{èþ Äñý$$MæüP M>Ææÿ¾¯þ M>ï³° ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏÐèþ^èþ$a.
Sheet and used Question paper booklet at the end of the
10. ±Í/¯èþËÏ Ææÿ Væü$ »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þ Ðèþ*{èþÐóþ$ Eç³Äñý*W ^éÍ.
examination.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ÌêVæüÇ£æþÐþ$ sôýº$ÌýÞ, M>ÅÍMæü$ÅÌôýrÆÿË$, GË[M>t°Mü ç³ÇMæüÆ>Ë$ Ððþ$$§æþËVæü$¯èþÑ ç³ÈæüVæü¨ÌZ
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. Eç³Äñý*W ^èþyæþ °õÙ«§æþ .
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. èþç³ çÜÐèþ*«§é¯éËMæü$ Ðèþ*Ææÿ$PË èþWY ç³# Ìôý§æþ$.
III O 1 A-09-03
aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa
Text of page 2
*A0903*
HE
RE
WR
ITE
NO
T
DO
IIIO 2 A-09-03
Text of page 3
*A0903*
LIFE SCIENCES
Paper – III
1. The class interval of the continuous 4. Arrange the compounds in ascending
grouped data of 10 – 19, 20 – 29, 30 – 39, order based on their energy content
40 – 49, 50 – 59 is
I. Glucose 6-phosphate
(A) 9
(B) 10 II. ATP
(C) 12 III. Phosphoenol pyruvate
(D) 20 IV. Creatine phosphate
2. Nucleosome consists of (A) I II III IV
(A) Octomeric complex (B) II IV I III
(H , H , H and H ) + Linker DNA
2A 2B 3 4
(C) IV III II I
(B) Non histone proteins and DNA
(C) Histone proteins alone (D) III IV II I
(D) Less dense euchromatin 5. Assertion (A) : Larger proteins over
3. Match the following : 40 kba can pass through
List I List II nuclear pons in
eukaryotes.
I. Christe 1. Ribosomal
structure Reasoning (R) : Entry of larger proteins
II. Linus Pauting 2. Mitochondrial carrying nuclear
and Corey structure localisation sequence
III. Mitchell 3. Protein through nuclear pons is
structure allowed.
IV. Venkataraman 4. Chemoosmotic
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
hypothesis
correct explanation
Code :
I II III IV (B) Both A and R are true but R is the false
(A) 2 3 4 1 explanation
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) A is true but R is false
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 1 2 3 4 (D) A is false but R is true
IIIO 3 A-09-03
Text of page 4
*A0903*
6. A phosphoglyceride is constituted with 10. In a classical model of transcription, a
I. Fatty acids repressor binds to
II. Glycerol (A) An enhancer
III. Phosphate (B) AUG sequence
IV. Head alcohol (C) An operator
(A) I and II are correct
(D) TATA Box
(B) II and III are correct
11. Given below are two statements :
(C) I and III are correct
(D) I, II, III and IV are correct Assertion (A) : In fermentation glucose
consumption by yeast
7. Glycogen and cellulose consist of 100%
cells increases.
D-glucose but they differ in
(A) Glycosidic bonds Reasoning (R) : Yeast cells generate
only two ATP
(B) Covalent bonds
molecules for one
(C) Ionic bonds glucose molecule.
(D) Peptide bonds
(A) A is correct, R is also correct
8. T-cell receptors are transmembrane (B) A is wrong but R is correct
structures consisting of
(C) A is correct but R is wrong
(A) Four polypeptide chains (2α + 2β)
(D) Both A and R are wrong
(B) Two polypeptide chains (1α + 1β)
(C) Three polypeptide chains (1α + 2 β) 12. Which one of the following pairs is NOT
(D) One polypeptide chain (1α ) correctly matched ?
(A) The gas responsible
9. Which one of the following pairs is NOT
for global warming CO2
correctly matched ?
(B) Plants growing in
(A) Stress protein Hsp 70 acid soils Oxylophytes
(B) Decline phase Secondary (C) Mangrove region in
metabolites Andhra Pradesh Coringa
(C) Log phase Exponential (D) Ecology is the study
growth of structure and
(D) Pro toxin Inactive toxin function of nature Tansley
IIIO 4 A-09-03
Text of page 5
*A0903*
13. Statement (A) : Atmospheric pressure 15. Assertion (A) : Metagenomic cloning
is one of the factors gives large numbers of
novel genes.
influencing rate of
Reason (R) : In metagenomics, genes
transpiration. As the
for useful products are
atmospheric pressure cloned directly from
decreases the rate of environmental samples
without first isolating the
transpiration increases.
organisms that carry
Reasoning (R) : The plants growing in them.
high altitude places (A) Both A and R are false
exhibit xerophytic (B) Both A and R are true, R is correct
explanation
characteristics.
(C) A is true but R is not correct explanation
In light of the above two statements which
(D) A is false but R is not correct explanation
one of the following is correct ?
16. β -galactosidase enzyme hydrolyses
(A) Both the statements are correct
(A) Isopropyl β -thiogalactosidase
(B) Both the statements are wrong
(B) X-gal
(C) A is correct but R is wrong (C) Maltose
(D) A is wrong but R is correct (D) Sucrose
17. Choose the correct sequence of the
14. Match isotopes in List I with emissions in
following steps for determination of
List II : sequence of residues of amino acids in
peptide.
List I List II
I. Recovery of N-terminal amino acid as
I. Cobalt – 60 1. No emission phenyl thiohyadantoin derivative
II. Carbon – 14 2. Gamma rays II. Retrieving of peptide shortened by one
amino acid residue for the repetitive
III. Nitrogen – 15 3. Beta rays cycles of the events
III. Coupling reaction between peptide and
IV. Phosphorus – 31 4. Stable
phenyl isothiocyanate
I II III IV IV. Exposure of phenyl thiocarbamoyl
derivative of peptide to dry acid vapours
(A) 2 3 1 4
(A) II, I, III and IV
(B) 3 1 2 4 (B) III, IV, I and II
(C) 2 4 1 3 (C) I, II, IV and III
(D) 4 2 3 1 (D) IV, III, II and I
IIIO 5 A-09-03
Text of page 6
*A0903*
18. Limits for correlation co-efficient 21. Which one of the following is NOT correct
(A) − 1 ≤ r ≤ 1 associated pair ?
(B) 0 ≤ r ≤ 1 (A) DNA polymerase PCR
(C) − 1 ≤ r ≤ 0 (B) Reverse transcriptase cDNA library
(D) 1 ≤ r ≤ 2 (C) EPSP synthase Leucine
(D) DNase I Foot printing
19. Match the following lists :
List I List II 22. The orderly arrangement of biosensor
(Transcription Factors) (Activity) activation
I. TF II A 1. TATA Box (A) Biological material + Analyte →
recognition Bound analyte → Biological response →
II. TF II B 2. Recruitment of RNA Electronic response → Measurement
pol II (B) Biological material + Analyte →
III. TF II D 3. Selection of start Biological response → Bound
point of transcription analyte → Electronic response →
Measurement
IV. TF II F 4. Stabilizes TBP
binding (C) Biological material + Analyte →
Electronic response → Biological
Code :
response → Bound analyte →
I II III IV
Measurement
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 2 3 4 1 (D) Measurement → Electronic response →
Biological response → Bound
(C) 4 3 2 1
analyte → Biological material +
(D) 2 4 1 3
Analyte
20. In spectroscopic methods, absorption of
radiation energy by solute molecules 23. Which hormones help in breaking the
generally depends on dormancy of seed ?
I. Concentration of solute in solution I. ABA
II. Path length of cuvettes used II. CK
III. Thickness of walls of cuvettes used III. GA
IV. Inherent property of solute IV. IAA
(A) I and II are correct (A) II and III are correct
(B) I, II and III are correct (B) I, II, IV are correct
(C) I, II and IV are correct (C) II, III, IV are correct
(D) I, II, III and IV are correct (D) I and III are correct
IIIO 6 A-09-03
Text of page 7
*A0903*
24. Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC) is used 28. Which one of the following pairs serve as
for biofertilisers ?
(A) Cloning large segment of DNA
(A) Aspergillus and Actinomycetes
(B) Cloning only yeast genomic
sequences (B) Albugo and Nostoc
(C) Cloning of only cDNA sequences (C) Azotobacter and Nostoc
(D) All DNA except plant DNA sequences
(D) Pseudomonas and E. coli
25. Courtship behaviour is a form of
(A) Taxis 29. The ecozones of ocean are
(B) Imprinting I. Polar zone
(C) Fixed action pattern
II. Temperate zone
(D) Kinesis
III. Tropical zone
26. Match the following used in plant tissue
culture : IV. Boreal zone
I. Meristem culture 1. Virus (A) I, II and III are correct
elimination
II. Suspension 2. Homozygosity (B) I and IV are correct
culture (C) I, II and IV are correct
III. Protoplast culture 3. Packed cell
volume (D) II, III and IV are correct
IV. Anther culture 4. Liposome
30. Intrinsic apoptotic pathway consists of
I II III IV
I. Caspase – 3 – activation
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4 II. Mitochondrial changes
(C) 1 4 3 2 III. Apoptosome formation
(D) 4 3 2 1
IV. Caspase – 9 – activation
27. The chromosomes whose number and
morphology do not differ between males The correct order of the events is
and females of a species are called
(A) II, III, IV, I
(A) Autosomes
(B) I, II, III, IV
(B) Allosomes
(C) Giant chromosomes (C) IV, III, II, I
(D) Heterosomes (D) III, II, I, IV
IIIO 7 A-09-03
Text of page 8
*A0903*
31. Which one of the following is NOT correctly 34. Consider the following fruits
matched ? 1. Sapota
(A) The precursor amino 2. Guava
acid for IAA
3. Papaya
biosynthesis is – tryptophan
Which of the above are berry type of fruits ?
(B) Guard cells differ from
epidermal cells with (A) 1 and 2 only
regard to – chloroplasts (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) Ascent of sap takes (C) 2 and 3 only
place through – phloem (D) 1, 2 and 3
(D) In C4 pathway CO2 – PEP
35. Assertion : DNA replication is
is fixed by carboxylase
discontinuous.
32. Which of the following pairs is correctly Reasoning : DNA polymase can
matched ? synthesize DNA in 5′ − 3′
direction only.
(A) Programmed cell Hyper-sensitive
death at site of response (A) Both A and R are true but R is not
correct explanation
infection
(B) Both A and R are true and R is correct
(B) Hormone upregulated
explanation
during flooding stress IAA (C) A is true but R is false
(C) Pathogen-derived Enveloped gp (D) A is false but R is true
resistance of virus
(D) Gamma 36. Given below are two statements :
immunoglobulin Pentameric Assertion (A) : Certain effector
enzymes catalyze the
33. In two-component regulatory system for rapid production of water
regulation of nitrogen assimilation (Ntr) in soluble molecules.
many bacteria, which is the response
Reason (R) : The water soluble
regulator for activation of transcription
molecules – cAMP,
promoters of genes recognized by sigma cGMP, IP 3 act as
factor 38 ? second messengers.
(A) NR I (A) A is true and R is false
(B) NR II (B) A is true and R is true
(C) P II (C) A is false and R is false
(D) P I (D) A is false and R is true
IIIO 8 A-09-03
Text of page 9
*A0903*
37. Specify sequence of binding of the 40. Identify the correct sequence of process
following components for formation of in animal development :
functional complex in translation process
in prokaryotes (A) Cell differentiation – regional
I. 30S. ribosomal subunit + IF3 + IF1 specification – morphogenesis –
growth
II. 50S. ribosomal subunit
(B) Regional specification – cell
III. F met – tRNA – IF2
differentiation – morphogenesis –
IV. mRNA growth
(A) IV, I, III and II (C) Morphogenesis – regional
(B) I, II, III and IV specification – cell differentiation –
growth
(C) III, I, II and IV
(D) II, III, I and IV (D) Regional specification – cell
differentiation – growth –
38. Events in cell transformation by a morphogenesis
virus-induced cancer.
41. Assertion (A) : Potato tubers do not
I. Infection
sprout immediately after
II. Integration harvest.
III. Transcription
Reason (R) : Immediately after
IV. Translation harvest, potato tubers
V. Transformation contain high amount of
(A) I, II, III, IV, V abscissic acid which
prevents sprouting.
(B) II, III, IV, V, I
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
(C) III, IV, V, I, II
correct explanation of (A)
(D) IV, V, I, II, III
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
39. If a cross is made between two plants of correct explanation of (A)
Aa, Bb, cc, Dd and Aa, bb, CC, DD (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
genotypes, then what will be the expected
frequency of obtaining a progeny with (D) (A) is false but (R) is true
AA, Bb, Cc, Dd ?
42. The activation of sperm in mammals is
(A) 116 known as
(A) Acrosome reaction
(B) 132
(B) Capacitation
(C) 164 (C) Fertilization
(D) 1128 (D) Cortical reaction
IIIO 9 A-09-03
Text of page 10
*A0903*
43. In the biosynthesis of sesquiterpene the 46. Arrange the following stomach layers in
following are the intermediates order from the upper part to inner in a
transverse section. Use the code given
I. Isopentyl pyrophosphate below :
II. Geranyl pyrophosphate I. Mucus coat
III. β -hydroxy – B – methyl – glutaryl CoA II. Submucous coat
III. Peritoneal coat
IV. Mevalonic acid diphosphate
IV. Muscular coat
The correct order of intermediates leading Code :
to the synthesis of sesquiterpene is
(A) I, II, III, IV (B) II, III, I, IV
(A) I, II, IV, III (C) III, IV, II, I (D) III, IV, I, II
(B) III, II, I, IV
47. List I List II
(C) IV, III, II, I (Theories of evolution/ (Proposed by)
inheritance)
(D) III, IV, I, II
I. Catastrophism 1. Cuvier
44. Assertion (A) : Competence is the II. Inheritance of 2. Lamarck
ability of the cell acquired characters
responding to induction. III. Preformation 3. Bonnet
Reason (R) : Enzyme complement of IV. Pangenesis 4. Darwin
the embryonic cell to I II III IV
adopt to metabolites.
(A) 1 2 3 4
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the (B) 4 3 2 1
correct explanation
(C) 1 3 2 4
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the (D) 4 2 3 1
correct explanation
48. In prokaryotes, cell division apparatus,
(C) A is true but R is false called Divisome is constituted with
(D) A is false but R is true I. Fts Z
II. Zip A
45. In photosynthesis, the products of light
phase reactions are III. Fts A
IV. Fts I
(A) Carbohydrates, Oxygen
(A) I and II are correct
(B) Glucose, CO , ATP
2
+
(B) I and III are correct
(C) ATP, NADPH2, Oxygen (C) I, II and III are correct
(D) Oxygen, Glucose, ATP (D) I, II, III and IV are correct
IIIO 10 A-09-03
Text of page 11
*A0903*
49. Match List I with List II and select the 51. Statement (A) : The major phytohormones
are IAA, GA and ABA.
correct answer using the codes given
Ethylene induces the
below the list ripening of fruits.
List I List II Reasoning (R) : Parthenocarpic fruits can
(Structure) (Availability) be induced by exposure
with ethylene.
I. Amnion 1. Mammalian
In the context of above two statements
ovum
which one of the following is correct ?
II. Primitive streak 2. Amphibian (A) A is wrong, R is correct
gastrula
(B) A is correct, R is correct
III. Dorsal lip of 3. Chick’s gastrula (C) A is wrong, R is wrong
blastapore
(D) A is correct, R is wrong
IV. Zona radiata 4. Reptilian embryo
52. Assertion (A) : The pulmonary arteries
Codes : carry the deoxygenated
I II III IV blood to the lungs where
exchange of gases takes
(A) 4 3 2 1
place.
(B) 4 2 3 1
Reason (R) : Without pulmonary
(C) 3 4 2 1 arteries the deoxygenated
(D) 3 4 1 2 blood cannot be carried to
lungs.
50. The Beta subunit of RNA polymerase is
(A) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true, but ‘R’ is not
inhibited by the correct explanation
I. Rifampicin (B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the
correct explanation
II. Actinomycin D
(C) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
III. Streptoly digin
(D) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
IV. Mitomycin C
53. The two parts of brain stem are
(A) I, II and III are correct
(A) Cerebrum and Pons Varolii
(B) I and II are correct (B) Medulla Oblongata and Spinal Cord
(C) I and III are correct (C) Pons Varolii and Cerebellum
(D) I, III and IV are correct (D) Pons Varolii and Medulla Oblongata
IIIO 11 A-09-03
Text of page 12
*A0903*
54. Which one of the following is correctly 57. Assertion (A) : Neutral theory of protein
matched ? evolution suggest
randon evolutionary
(A) Gibberellins induce Internodal changes in proteins.
elongation Reason (R) : Such mutations are
assumed to be
(B) Artificially synthesized 2, 4 – D adaptively equivalent.
auxin
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
(C) Citric acid is a Secondary correct explanation
metabolite (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation
(D) The most abundant
(C) A is true but R is false
enzyme protein on the
earth is Rubisco (D) A is false but R is true
58. The genes P, Q, R and S are linked. The
55. In a population the Hardy – Weinberg
cross over map distances as determined
equilibrium would not prevail in the by two point crosses are :
(A) presence of random mating R – P = 7; S – Q = 10; P – Q = 8; S – P = 2
and R – S = 5. Based on the above data
(B) absence of selection indicate the relative positions of the linked
(C) presence of mutation loci from the following :
(A) RSPQ
(D) absence of immigration or emigration
(B) SPRQ
56. Assertion (A) : Mendel did not explain the (C) RPSQ
phenomenon of linkage. (D) SPQR
Reason (R) : Factors (genes) for all 59. Miller proved the organic compounds were
seven characters in garden basis of life using the following gases :
pea considered by Mendel I. Methane
are present in different II. Ammonia
chromosomes.
III. Hydrogen
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is IV. Water vapour
correct explanation of (A) Code :
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not (A) I, II and III are correct
correct explanation of (A) (B) I and II are correct
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false (C) II and III are correct
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true (D) I, II, III and IV are correct
IIIO 12 A-09-03
Text of page 13
*A0903*
60. Major mechanisms for the termination of 63. Assertion ‘A’ : Unsustainable population
receptor-dependent signal transduction growth, increased natural
are in the order
resource consumption and
I. Receptor inactivation
unplanned development
II. Receptor internalization
are the causes of loss of
III. Receptor down-regulation
biodiversity.
(A) I, II, III correct
(B) II, III, I correct Reason ‘R’ : Deficiency of knowledge
(C) I, III, II correct concerning natural
(D) II, I, III correct ecosystem, over
exploitation of natural
61. Given below are two statements, one
labeled as Assertion (A), and the other resources, pollution,
labeled as Reason (R). global climate change
Assertion (A) : The fruits of ground nut are also the causes.
plant are not nuts but
underground pods. In the context of the above two statements
Reason (R) : The pods will not develop which one of the following is correct ?
until the fertilised ovary is
pushed under the soil. Codes :
In the context of the above two statements (A) ‘A’ is correct, but ‘R’ is wrong
which one of the following is correct ? (B) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are wrong
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is (C) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are correct
the correct explanation of (A)
(D) ‘A’ is wrong, but ‘R’ is correct
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
a correct explanation of (A)
64. The gram-negative plant pathogen
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
Agrobacterium tumefaciens contains a
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
large plasmid used in production of
62. Vanillin, a popular flavouring agent for transgenic plants called
ice creams, is obtained from
(A) Ri plasmid
(A) latex
(B) leaf (B) Ag plasmid
(C) fruit (C) E plasmid
(D) root
(D) Ti plasmid
IIIO 13 A-09-03
Text of page 14
*A0903*
65. In the experimentation pertaining to prove 68. The term grey crescent is associated with
the DNA as genetic material the following the region in the egg of
scientists contributed. Arrange them in I. Animal pole
chronological order. II. Vegital pole
III. Frog
1. Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
IV. Chick
2. Griffith
(A) I & II are correct
3. Hershey and Chase (B) II & III are correct
(A) 3, 2, 1 (C) III & IV are correct
(D) I & III are correct
(B) 2, 3, 1
(C) 2, 1, 3 69. The correct sequence in which these occur
with in a cell to form enzymes leading to
(D) 3, 1, 2 the adaptive potential of an organism is
I. Transcription
66. Which one of the following families has II. Configuration
sepals, petals, stamens and carpels in the III. Translation
ratio of 2 : 2 : 3 : 1 ?
IV. Replication
(A) Asteraceae Code :
(B) Brassicaceae (A) I, IV, III and II are correct
(B) IV, I, II and III are correct
(C) Liliaceae
(C) I, IV, II and III are correct
(D) Solanaceae
(D) IV, I, III and II are correct
67. In a nitrogen cycle the sequence of events 70. When the plants are subjected to a stress
in the order beginning with death are of low temperature
I. Abscissic acid increases
(A) Ammonification, Nitrification,
II. Gibberellic acid increases
Denitrification, Decomposition
III. Both Abscissic acid and Gibberellic
(B) Decomposition, Ammonification, acid decrease
Nitrification, Denitrification IV. Gibberellic acid decreases
(C) Denitrification, Decomposition, (A) I & IV are correct
Ammonification, Nitrification (B) I & II are correct
(C) II and III are correct
(D) Nitrification, Ammonification,
Denitrification, Decomposition (D) II & IV are correct
IIIO 14 A-09-03
Text of page 15
*A0903*
71. The bony labyrinth contains these 74. Number of chromosomes in a diploid plant
structures : is 24. Indicate the correct number of
I. Vestibule chromosomes in the endosperm, in an
order, obtained by the following crosses.
II. Semicircular canals
I. Male 2n × female 4n
III. Circular canals
II. Male 4n × female 2n
IV. Cochlea
III. Male 2n × female 2n
(A) I, II and III are correct
IV. Male 4n × female 8n
(B) I, III and IV are correct
I II III IV
(C) II, III and IV are correct
(A) 60 48 36 120
(D) I, II and IV are correct
(B) 72 72 48 144
72. Which one of the following pairs is NOT (C) 60 72 48 120
correctly matched ?
(D) 72 48 36 144
(A) C-shaped cartilages Trachea
(B) Voice Box Larynx 75. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given
(C) Pharynx Passage way below the lists :
for both air and
food List I List II
(Name of plant) (Characteristic
(D) Oxygenated blood Pulmonary
compound)
artery
I. Coleus blumei 1. Morphine
73. Consider the following features :
II. Papaver 2. Scopolamine
I. Population consists of inter breeding somniferum
groups of individuals
III. Datura stramonium 3. Digitalin
II. Population does not form the basis as
IV. Stevia rebaudiana 4. Stevioside
unit of study in population genetics
5. Rosmarinic
III. Gene frequency is the important single
acid
index characterizing the population
Which of these are characteristic of Code :
Mendelian population ? I II III IV
(A) I and II (A) 3 1 2 4
(B) I and III (B) 5 2 3 4
(C) II and III (C) 2 3 5 4
(D) I, II and III (D) 5 1 2 4
IIIO 15 A-09-03
Text of page 16
*A0903*
Space for Rough Work
IIIO 16 A-09-03Official key not published for this paper.
Page 1 of 16
Source: Telangana State Eligibility Test. Question paper published by Telangana State Eligibility Test.