TS SET 2014: Paper II, Life Sciences
Text of page 1
CCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCC
CCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCC CCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCC
SUBJECT CODE SUBJECT PAPER
A-09-02 LIFE SCIENCES II
HALL TICKET NUMBER
QUESTION BOOKLET NUMBER
OMR SHEET NUMBER
DURATION MAXIMUM MARKS NUMBER OF PAGES NUMBER OF QUESTIONS
1 HOUR 15 MINUTES 100 16 50
This is to certify that, the entries made in the above portion are correctly written and verified.
Candidate’s Signature Name and Signature of Invigilator
Instructions for the Candidates A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦ËMæü$ çÜ*^èþ¯èþË$
1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the 1. D ç³#r ò³O ¿êVæü ÌZ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Ò$ çàÌý sìýMðüsý ¯èþ ºÆæÿ$ Æ>Äæý$ yìþ.
top of this page.
2. D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Äæý*¿ñýO ºçßý$âñýO_eMæü {ç³Ôèý²Ë¯èþ$ MæüÍW E ¨.
2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will 3. ç³Èæü {´ëÆæÿ ¿æýÐèþ$$¯èþ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ò$Mæü$ CÐèþÓºyæþ$èþ$ ¨. Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to °Ñ$çÙÐèþ$$ËÌZ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ðþÇ_ Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ A Ôé˯èþ$ èþç³µ°çÜÇV>
open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ.
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper (i) D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ^èþ*yæþyé°Mìü MæüÐèþÆÿõ³h A ^èþ$¯èþ E¯èþ² M>Wèþç³# ïÜË$¯èþ$
seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet _ ^èþ yìþ. íÜtMæüPÆÿ ïÜË$Ìôý° Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ C¨ÐèþÆæÿMóü ðþÇ_ E¯èþ² {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$
without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. Ò$Ææÿ$ A XMæüÇ ^èþÐèþ§æþ$ª.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions
in the booklet with the information printed on the (ii) MæüÐèþÆæÿ$ õ³h ò³O Ðèþ$${¨ _¯èþ çÜÐèþ*^éÆæÿ {ç³M>Ææÿ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ° õ³iË çÜ Qůèþ$
cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ {ç³Ôèý²Ë çÜ Qůèþ$ çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ. õ³iË çÜ QÅMæü$ çÜ º «¨ _ V>±
missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other Ìôý§é çÜ*_ _¯èþ çÜ QÅÌZ {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é °f{ç³ M>Mæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é
discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ {MæüÐèþ$糧æþ®ÌZ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é HÐðþO¯é óþyéË$ yæþ$r Ðèþ sìý §øçÙç³NÇèþÐðþ$O¯èþ
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°² Ððþ r¯óþ Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$ °Ñ$ÚëÌZÏ ç³È> ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$°Mìü ÇW C_aÐóþíÜ
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet §é°Mìü º§æþ$Ë$V> çÜÇV>Y E¯èþ² {ç³Ôèý²ç³{é°² ¡çÜ$Mø yìþ. èþ§æþ¯èþ èþÆæÿ {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. Ðèþ*Ææÿaºyæþ§æþ$ A§æþ¯èþç³# çÜÐèþ$Äæý$ CÐèþÓºyæþ§æþ$.
(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet (iii) ò³O Ñ«§æþ V> çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mö¯èþ² èþÆ>Óèþ {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþ çÜ Qůèþ$ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. A§óþÑ«§æþ V> OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ çÜ Qůèþ$ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °ÇªçÙtt çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Æ>Äæý$ÐèþÌñý¯èþ$.
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) 4. {ç³ {ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ ¯éË$Væü$ {ç³éÅÐèþ*²Äæý$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþË$ (A), (B), (C) Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ (D)
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the Ë$V> CÐèþÓºyézÆÿ$$. {ç³{ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ G¯èþ$²Mö° Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
correct response against each item. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ {ç³ {ç³Ôé² çÜ QÅMæü$ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ ¯éË$Væü$ Ðèþé¢ÌZÏ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ
Example : A B C D {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ çÜ*_ ^óþ Ðèþ颰² »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þø Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
where (C) is the correct response.
ç³NÇ ^éÍ.
E§éçßýÆæÿ×ý : A B C D
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR
Answer Sheet given to you. If you mark at any place other than (C) çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ AÆÿ$$óþ
in the circle in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 5. {ç³Ôèý²ËMæü$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ˯èþ$ D {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ø CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O¯èþ
6. Read instructions given inside carefully. CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ Ðèþé¢ÌZϯóþ ç³NÇ _ Væü$Ç¢ ^éÍ. AÌêM>Mæü çÜÐèþ*«§é¯èþ ç³{èþ ò³O ÐóþÆöMæü ^ør
7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. Væü$Ç¢õÜ¢ Ò$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ Ðèþ$*ÌêÅ Mæü¯èþ ^óþÄæý$ºyæþ§æþ$.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR 6. {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ÌZç³Ë C_a¯èþ çÜ*^èþ¯èþ˯èþ$ gê{Væüèþ¢V> ^èþ§æþÐèþ yìþ.
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant 7. _èþ$¢ç³°° {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ _ÐèþÆæÿ C_a¯èþ RêäçܦËÐèþ$$ÌZ ^óþÄæý*Í.
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself 8. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °È~èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ çÜ*_ ^èþÐèþËíܯèþ ÑÐèþÆ>Ë$ èþí³µ _ CèþÆæÿ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ
liable to disqualification. Ò$ Væü$Ç¢ ç³#¯èþ$ ðþÍõ³ Ñ«§æþ V> Ò$ õ³Ææÿ$ Æ>Äæý$yæþ V>± Ìôý§é CèþÆæÿ _à²Ë¯èþ$
9. The candidate must handover the OMR Answer Sheet to ò³rtyæþ V>± ^óþíܯèþrÏÆÿ$$óþ Ò$ A¯èþÆæÿáèþMæü$ Ò$Æóÿ »ê«§æþ$ÅËÐèþ#éÆæÿ$.
the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily
9. ç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆ>Óèþ Ò$ OMR ç³{é°² èþç³µ°çÜÇV> ç³Èæü ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$yìþMìü CÐéÓÍ.
and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. The
candidate is allowed to take away the carbon copy of OMR Ðésìý° ç³Èæü Væü¨ ºÄæý$rMæü$ ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏMæü*yæþ§æþ$. ç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆæÿ$Ðéèþ A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦Ë$
Sheet and used Question paper booklet at the end of the {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°², OMR ç³{èþ Äñý$$MæüP M>Ææÿ¾¯þ M>ï³° ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏÐèþ^èþ$a.
examination. 10. ±Í/¯èþËÏ Ææÿ Væü$ »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þ Ðèþ*{èþÐóþ$ Eç³Äñý*W ^éÍ.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ÌêVæüÇ£æþÐþ$ sôýº$ÌýÞ, M>ÅÍMæü$ÅÌôýrÆÿË$, GË[M>t°Mü ç³ÇMæüÆ>Ë$ Ððþ$$§æþËVæü$¯èþÑ ç³ÈæüVæü¨ÌZ
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. Eç³Äñý*W ^èþyæþ °õÙ«§æþ .
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. èþç³ çÜÐèþ*«§é¯éËMæü$ Ðèþ*Ææÿ$PË èþWY ç³# Ìôý§æþ$.
II } 1 A-09-02
CCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCC
Text of page 2
*A0902*
HE
RE
WR
ITE
NO
T
DO
II } 2 A-09-02
Text of page 3
*A0902*
LIFE SCIENCES
Paper – II
1. Which of the following can give a buffer 4. An endocrine hormone may be
solution ? differentiated from paracrine hormone by
(A) CH COOH + CH COONa I. Type of receptor it reacts with
3 3
(B) H SO + Na SO II. Concentration synthesized
2 4 2 4
(C) HCl + NaCl III. Mechanism of action
(D) HCl + NaOH IV. Half life of hormone
(A) I and II are correct
2. What will happen if strict anaerobic
(B) II and III are correct
microorganisms are exposed to oxygen
(C) II and IV are correct
gas ?
(D) I and III are correct
(A) Growth rate of microorganisms will
be enhanced 5. Acrosome reaction in sperms is initiated
(B) Growth rate of microorganisms will with
be normal as before
(A) Capacitation
(C) Growth rate will be zero, but cell size
(B) Fertilizin
increases
(C) Influx of Na+ in sperm
(D) Microorganisms will die
(D) Release of Lysins
3. A new antibiotic was discovered which
strongly inhibited mRNA precursor 6. Which of the following is an example to
transcripts and snRNA transcripts. This flavomolybdo catalytic protein ?
antibiotic is predicted to be an inhibitor of
(A) Nitrate reductase
(A) RNA polymerase I
(B) Nitrite reductase
(B) RNA polymerase II (C) Glutamine synthatase
(C) RNA polymerase III (D) Glutamine-2-oxoglutarate
(D) Helicase aminotransferase
II } 3 A-09-02
Text of page 4
*A0902*
7. The pacemaker of the heart is 11. Which of the following three are
(A) Ranvier’s node considered as primary domains as per the
latest concept of phylogenetic evolution ?
(B) Hensen’s node
1. Protozoa
(C) Auriculo-ventricular node
2. Bacteria
(D) Sino-auricular node
3. Algae
8. A scientist discovered a new trait in an
4. Archaea
individual to localize the gene to
autosomal or allosomal, he performed 5. Slime molds
reciprocal crosses. The reciprocal crosses
yield which of the following ? 6. Eukarya
(A) Autosomal (A) 1, 3, 5
(B) X-linked
(B) 2, 4, 6
(C) Y-linked
(C) 3, 1, 5
(D) Sex-linked
(D) 3, 5, 6
9. Cape-goose-berry, brinjal, radish,
amomum and knol-knol belong to 12. A fermentation industry produces citric
(A) five plant families
acid as its product using 100 % efficient
(B) three plant families
production strain Aspergillus niger. In a
(C) four plant families
production batch if 10 kg of glucose is
(D) two plant families
taken as substrate, the quantity of citric
10. The phenomenon of character
displacement was explained by acid produced
(A) Odum (A) 5 kg
(B) Brown and Wilson (B) 10 kg
(C) MacArthur and Levins (C) 15 kg
(D) Parson and Strickland (D) 20 kg
II } 4 A-09-02
Text of page 5
*A0902*
13. Match the method of separation with its 15. Arrange the following events of animal cell
principle of separation
division in correct order
List – I List – II
1. Separation of sister chromatids
I. Filtration 1. Specific gravity
2. Breakdown of nuclear envelope
II. Ultrafiltration 2. Electric charge
3. Decondensation of chromosomes
III. Centrifugation 3. Molecular size 4. Duplication of centrosome
5. Condensation of chromosomes
IV. Ion-exchanger 4. Particle size
(A) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
I II III IV
(A) 3 4 1 2 (B) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 2, 5, 4, 3, 1
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4, 2, 5, 3, 1
(D) 2 4 3 1
14. Arrange the following carbohydrates in the 16. Synapsis is the process whereby
increasing order of the number of carbon
(A) Homologous pairs of chromosomes
atoms
separate and migrate towards a pole
1. Sucrose
2. Glucose (B) Homologous chromosomes
3. Glycerol exchange chromosomal material
4. Ribose
(C) Homologous chromosomes become
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3
closely associated
(B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1 (D) The daughter cells contain half of the
(D) 3, 4, 2, 1
genetic material of the parent cell
II } 5 A-09-02
Text of page 6
*A0902*
17 . Arrange the following in the order of signal 19. The inhibitor for Alternate Oxidase (AO)
transduction to nucleus : enzyme is
(A) HCN
I. Second messenger
(B) DCMU
II. Receptor
(C) SHAM
III. Transcription factor (D) Mevalonate
IV. Serine kinase 20. Cardiac output of “aneural” heart is
V. Hormone regulated by
I. Parasympathetic innervation
(A) I → II → III → IV → V
II. Extrinsic control system
(B) V → II → I → IV → III
III. Changes in end-diastolic volume
(C) V → II → III → IV → I
IV. The activity of the animal
(D) V → IV → II → I → III
Identify the correct pair of distractors
18. In Dorsoventral patterning of the neural (A) I and II
tube the ventralizing signals and (B) II and III
dorsalizing signals are released by (C) III and IV
I. Notochord (D) I and IV
II. Floor plate 21. What would happen if in a gene encoding
III. Somites a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th
codon (UAU) is mutated to UAA ?
IV. Ectoderm
(A) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will
Of these above, which are associated with be formed
ventralizing signals ? (B) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will
(A) I, II and III be formed
(C) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will
(B) II, III and IV
be formed
(C) III, IV and I
(D) Two polypeptides of 24 and
(D) I, III and IV 25 amino acids will be formed
II } 6 A-09-02
Text of page 7
*A0902*
22. Match the following : 24. Decrease in response to a repeated stimuli
List – I List – II
that has neither positive nor negative
I. Corbett National 1. Rajasthan
consequence is
Park
II. Kazirang National 2. Kerala (A) Associated learning
Park
(B) Non-associative learning
III. Bharatpur Bird 3. Uttaranchal
Sanctuary (C) Clinical conditioning
IV. Sundarbans 4. Assam
(D) Operant learning
National Park
5. West Bengal 25. Protoplasm fusion is facilitated by
(A) Sodium alginate
I II III IV
(A) 3 4 1 5 (B) Ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid
(B) 4 2 1 5 (C) Phenyl mercuric acetate
(C) 3 4 2 5
(D) Polyethyleneglycol
(D) 4 1 2 5
26. DNA oligonucleotides deposited onto an
23. The specific physical space occupied by
inert substrate such as glass silicon is
an organism as well as its functional role
in ecosystem is known as (A) Finger print
(A) Plankton
(B) Probe
(B) Nekton
(C) Niche (C) Sequence
(D) Population (D) Microarray
II } 7 A-09-02
Text of page 8
*A0902*
27. Match the following enzymes with their 30. Gleevec inhibits the following signaling
metabolic pathways
molecule
List – I List – II
I. Phosphofructo kinase 1. Pentose
phosphate (A) Ras G-protein
pathway
II. Glucose-6-phosphate 2. TCA
(B) VEGF vaso Endothelial Growth
dehydrogenase cycle
III. Fructose
Factor
bis-phosphatase 3. Glycolysis
IV. Aconitase 4. Gluconeo (C) Bcr-Abl Kinase
genesis
I II III IV (D) Raf
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 3 1 4 2
31. Identify the correct matching :
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 1 3 2 4 List – I List – II
28. Human DNA of a given sample contained I. Radial cleavage 1. Rabbit
20% of cytosine on molar basis. What are
the mole percents of Adenosine, Guanine II. Rotational cleavage 2. Neeris
and Thymine respectively ?
III. Spiral cleavage 3. Sea cucumber
(A) 20, 30, 30
(B) 20, 40, 20
IV. Bilateral cleavage 4. Tunicate
(C) 30, 20, 30
(D) 60, 20, 20 I II III IV
29. In E.coli, transcription initiation of many (A) 1 2 3 4
operons is induced by
(B) 2 1 4 3
(A) CRP repressor
(B) Trp inducer (C) 3 2 4 1
(C) CRP activator
(D) 3 1 2 4
(D) GST inducer
II } 8 A-09-02
Text of page 9
*A0902*
32. The substance which imparts Systemic 34. Match the following Human Karyotyping
Acquired Resistance (SAR) to plants is symbols
(A) Putrescine List – I List – II
(B) Salicylic acid I. 13 p 1. Long arm of
chromosome 13
(C) Ethylene
II. 13 Q 2. Short arm of
(D) Methyl Jasmonate
chromosome 13
33. Match the following : III. del(2) 3. Deletion of the
long arm of
List – I List – II
chromosome 2
I. Testocerebellar 1. Vision
IV. 2Q – 4. Deletion in
input
chromosome 2
II. Superior rectus 2. Vagus
I II III IV
III. Facial nerve 3. Oeulomotor (III)
(A) 2 1 4 3
IV. 2nd cranial nerve 4. Visual and
(B) 2 1 3 4
Auditory
(C) 1 2 4 3
5. VII cranial
(D) 1 2 3 4
nerve
35. Little leaf of brinjal and spike disease of
I II III IV
sandal are caused by
(A) 1 2 3 4
(A) Nutritional deficiency
(B) 3 4 5 1
(B) Virus
(C) 4 3 5 1
(C) Phytoplasma
(D) 4 3 2 1
(D) Bacteria
II } 9 A-09-02
Text of page 10
*A0902*
36. A transition zone between two adjacent 38. Match the following in terms of structure-
biomes are known as morphological symmetry given in the left
and representative example of virus
(A) Ecotone
given in the right.
(B) Ecotype
(C) Ecad I. Icosahedral symmetry 1. T-even
phage
(D) Ecosystem
II. Helical symmetry 2. Adenovirus
37. Assertion (A) : Domestication has led
III. Complex Symmetry 3. Tobacco
to unintentional
mozaic
selection for same traits virus
Reason (R) : The behavior of the I II III
experimental animals (A) 2 1 3
changed, and they (B) 2 3 1
exhibited other traits of (C) 3 2 1
other associated (D) 3 1 2
animals.
39. Microscopy which is capable of
(A) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
producing a three dimensional image of
(B) Only (A) is correct and (R) is wrong the specimen is
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is not correct (A) compound microscope
explanation to (A) (B) phase contrast microscope
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) (C) confocal microscope
is a right explanation (D) transmission electron microscope
II } 10 A-09-02
Text of page 11
*A0902*
40. Which of the following is an example of a 42. Match the Column I with Column II
non-covalent interaction in proteins ? I. Central dogma 1. Holoenzyme
II. Okazaki fragments 2. NARTIs
(A) Salt bridge
III. RNA polymerase 3. Genetic flow
(B) Disulfide bridge IV. Reverse 4. Lagging
transcriptase strand
(C) Peptide bond I II III IV
(A) 2 4 3 1
(D) Phosphodiester bond
(B) 3 4 1 2
41. Assertion (A) : The lysosomal enzymes (C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 1 3 4 2
are all acid hydrolases.
43. During the limb development in the
If a lysosome was to vertebrates the following events are
witnessed. They are
break, the released
I. Secretion of signalling proteins to
hydrolases may not
establish dorsoventral axis
cause big damage to II. Establishment of Limb field and Limb
bud
cellular constituents.
III. Formation of apical ectodermal ridge
Reason (R) : pH of the cytosol is
and activity growth factor FGF
higher (7.2) than that of IV. Establishment of distal tip of Limb bud
called the progress zone
interior of lysosomes
V. Establishment of Limb organizing
(about 5.0).
centre
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct The correct sequence of events that leads
to the formation of Limb is
(B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(A) II → V → III → IV → I
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong (B) I → II → III → IV → V
(C) II → III → IV → V → I
(D) (R) is correct but (A) is wrong
(D) II → III → V → IV → I
II } 11 A-09-02
Text of page 12
*A0902*
44. A blue-light receptor that induces 46. Arrange the following sequence of events
proposed in ascending years.
phototropic bending of oat coleoptiles is
1. Sturtevant (first chromosome map of
(A) Phototropin
Drosophila)
(B) Cryptochrome
2. McClintock (Crossing over)
(C) Phytochrome
3. Ford, Jacob and J.H.Tjio
(D) Anthocyanin
(Chromosomal basis of genetic
45. Assertion (A) : In most water breathing abnormalities)
animals, the pH of the 4. Bridges (gene balance theory)
blood increases when (A) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
the temperature (B) 1 → 4 → 2 → 3
decreases. (C) 2 → 4 → 3 → 1
Reason (R) : The inversion relationship (D) 2 → 1 → 3 → 4
between blood pH and 47. Assertion (A) : Halophytes grow in the
temperature provides salt marshes, where
effective enzyme the soil is rich in salt
function by maintaining and said to be
physiologically dry
an appropriate
relatively constant net Reason (R) : The halophytic plants
ionic enzyme charge possess negatively
geotropic roots that
as temperature
grow above the
changes.
surface of soil, called
(A) Only (A) is correct (R) is wrong
pneumatophores
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
is correct explanation for (A) correct explanation of (A)
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is
is not correct explanation for (A) not correct explanation of (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
II } 12 A-09-02
Text of page 13
*A0902*
48. The age pyramid of a stable population is 50. Match the following lists
(A) Broad base
List – I List – II
(B) Urn shaped
I. Polysiphonia 1. Coenocytic
(C) Bell shaped
(D) Inverted
II. Volvox 2. Unicellular
49. Arrange the following in decreasing order
of taxonomic group size
III. Chlamydomonas 3. Multicellular
1. Strain
2. Order
3. Species IV. Albugo 4. Colonial
4. Domain
I II III IV
5. Family
(A) 2 3 1 4
(A) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(B) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1 (B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4, 2, 5, 3, 1 (C) 4 2 1 2
(D) 4, 3, 1, 3, 2 (D) 3 4 2 1
II } 13 A-09-02
Text of page 14
*A0902*
Space for Rough Work
II } 14 A-09-02
Text of page 15
*A0902*
Space for Rough Work
II } 15 A-09-02
Text of page 16
*A0902*
Space for Rough Work
II } 16 A-09-02Official key not published for this paper.
Page 1 of 16
Source: Telangana State Eligibility Test. Question paper published by Telangana State Eligibility Test.