TS SET 2014: Paper III, Law
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SUBJECT CODE SUBJECT PAPER
A-14-03 LAW III
HALL TICKET NUMBER QUESTION BOOKLET
NUMBER
OMR SHEET NUMBER
DURATION MAXIMUM MARKS NUMBER OF PAGES NUMBER OF QUESTIONS
2 HOUR 30 MINUTES 150 16 75
This is to certify that, the entries made in the above portion are correctly written and verified.
Candidate’s Signature Name and Signature of Invigilator
Instructions for the Candidates A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦ËMæü$ çÜ*^èþ¯èþË$
1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the top 1. D ç³#r ò³O ¿êVæü ÌZ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Ò$ çàÌý sìýMðüsý ¯èþ ºÆæÿ$ Æ>Äæý$ yìþ.
of this page.
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2. This paper consists of seventy five multiple-choice type of
questions. 3. ç³Èæü {´ëÆæÿ ¿æýÐèþ$$¯èþ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ò$Mæü$ CÐèþÓºyæþ$èþ$ ¨. Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will °Ñ$çÙÐèþ$$ËÌZ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ðþÇ_ Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ A Ôé˯èþ$ èþç³µ°çÜÇV>
be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mø yìþ.
the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) D {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$¯èþ$ ^èþ*yæþyé°Mìü MæüÐèþÆÿõ³h A ^èþ$¯èþ E¯èþ² M>Wèþç³# ïÜË$¯èþ$
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page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing çÜ º «¨ _ V>± Ìôý§é çÜ*_ _¯èþ çÜ QÅÌZ {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é °f{ç³
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discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a Ðèþ sìý §øçÙç³NÇèþÐðþ$O¯èþ {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°² Ððþ r¯óþ Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$ °Ñ$ÚëÌZÏ ç³È>
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$°Mìü ÇW C_aÐóþíÜ §é°Mìü º§æþ$Ë$V> çÜÇV>Y E¯èþ² {ç³Ôèý²ç³{é°² ¡çÜ$Mø yìþ.
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet
will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
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(iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Number (iii) ò³O Ñ«§æþ V> çÜÇ^èþ*çÜ$Mö¯èþ² èþÆ>Óèþ {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþ çÜ Qůèþ$ OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O
should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet A§óþÑ«§æþ V> OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ çÜ Qůèþ$ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °ÇªçÙtt çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Æ>Äæý$ÐèþÌñý¯èþ$.
Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. {ç³ {ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ ¯éË$Væü$ {ç³éÅÐèþ*²Äæý$ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþË$ (A), (B), (C) Ðèþ$ÇÄæý$$ (D)
4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) Ë$V> CÐèþÓºyézÆÿ$$. {ç³{ç³Ôèý²Mæü$ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ G¯èþ$²Mö° Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ {ç³ {ç³Ôé² çÜ QÅMæü$ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ ¯éË$Væü$ Ðèþé¢ÌZÏ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ
correct response against each item. {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ çÜ*_ ^óþ Ðèþ颰² »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þø Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
Example : A B C D ç³NÇ ^éÍ.
where (C) is the correct response. E§éçßýÆæÿ×ý : A B C D
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in theOMR Answer (C) ç Ü Æð ÿ ¯
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circle in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ Ðèþé¢ÌZϯóþ ç³NÇ _ Væü$Ç¢ ^éÍ. AÌêM>Mæü çÜÐèþ*«§é¯èþ ç³{èþ ò³O ÐóþÆöMæü ^ør
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7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 6. {ç³Ôèý² ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ÌZç³Ë C_a¯èþ çÜ*^èþ¯èþ˯èþ$ gê{Væüèþ¢V> ^èþ§æþÐèþ yìþ.
8. If you write your name or put any mark on any part of the OMR
Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant 7. _èþ$¢ç³°° {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ _ÐèþÆæÿ C_a¯èþ RêäçܦËÐèþ$$ÌZ ^óþÄæý*Í.
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself 8. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °È~èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ çÜ*_ ^èþÐèþËíܯèþ ÑÐèþÆ>Ë$ èþí³µ _ CèþÆæÿ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ
liable to disqualification. Ò$ Væü$Ç¢ ç³#¯èþ$ ðþÍõ³ Ñ«§æþ V> Ò$ õ³Ææÿ$ Æ>Äæý$yæþ V>± Ìôý§é CèþÆæÿ _à²Ë¯èþ$ ò³rtyæþ
9. The candidate must handover the OMR Answer Sheet to the V>± ^óþíܯèþrÏÆÿ$$óþ Ò$ A¯èþÆæÿáèþMæü$ Ò$Æóÿ »ê«§æþ$ÅËÐèþ#éÆæÿ$.
invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and 9. ç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆ>Óèþ Ò$ OMR ç³{é°² èþç³µ°çÜÇV> ç³Èæü ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$yìþMìü CÐéÓÍ.
must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. The Ðésìý° ç³Èæü Væü¨ ºÄæý$rMæü$ ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏMæü*yæþ§æþ$. ç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆæÿ$Ðéèþ A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦Ë$
candidate is allowed to take away the carbon copy of OMR
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Sheet and used Question paper booklet at the end of the
examination. 10. ±Í/¯èþËÏ Ææÿ Væü$ »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þ Ðèþ*{èþÐóþ$ Eç³Äñý*W ^éÍ.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. ÌêVæüÇ£æþÐþ$ sôýº$ÌýÞ, M>ÅÍMæü$ÅÌôýrÆÿË$, GË[M>t°Mü ç³ÇMæüÆ>Ë$ Ððþ$$§æþËVæü$¯èþÑ ç³ÈæüVæü¨ÌZ
11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. Eç³Äñý*W ^èþyæþ °õÙ«§æþ .
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. èþç³ çÜÐèþ*«§é¯éËMæü$ Ðèþ*Ææÿ$PË èþWY ç³# Ìôý§æþ$.
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HE
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LAW
Paper – III
1. The Constitution of India is Federal in 3. Autre fois Acquit is related to
Character because
(A) Self-incrimination
(A) The Head of the State is elected by
an electoral college consisting of the (B) Ex-post facto law
elected members of both the Houses
(C) Double Jeopardy
of Parliament and elected members of
the Legislative Assemblies of States (D) Retrospective operation
(B) There is distribution of power between
the Centre and the States 4. After the judgment of the Supreme Court
(C) The Amendment of the Constitution in Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India, the
can be made only by the procedure provision of Art. 31C means that
laid down in the Constitution
(A) All Directive Principles supersede the
(D) The Governors of the States are
Fundamental Rights
appointed by the President
(B) No Directive Principle can supersede
2. Match List – I with List – II and select the
the Fundamental Right
correct answer from the codes given below
List – I List – II (C) The Directive Principle contained in
I. Pith and substance 1. What cannot be Art. 39 (b) and (c) supersede the
done directly cannot Fundamental Rights guaranteed by
be done indirectly Articles 14 and 19
II. Territorial nexus 2. Incidental
(D) The Directive Principle contained in
encroachment on
Art. 39 (a) Supersede the Fundamental
the field of another
legislation is Rights
permissible
5. “The students be acquainted with basics
III. Repugnancy 3. Subject of legislation
must have territorial of all religions, the values inherited therein
connection with the and also a comparative study of
State philosophy of all religions does not offend
IV. Colourable 4. A situation in which Art. 28” was recommended in the case of
legislation a law made by (A) Commissioner, Hindu Religions
Union is in conflict Endowment v. Lakshmindra Tirtha of
with a law made by
Shirur Mutt
State
Code : (B) Aruna Roy v. Union of India
I II III IV
(A) 2 4 3 1 (C) Vineet Narain v. Union of India
(B) 4 2 1 3 (D) T.M.A. Pai Foundation v. State of
(C) 4 3 2 1 Karnataka
(D) 2 3 4 1
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6. Choose the correct answer based on the 9. Who described ‘Administrative law’ as a
statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). study of the pathology of power in a
developing society ?
Assertion (A) : In Waman Rao v. Union
of India, the 9 th (A) I.P. Massey
Schedule to the Indian
Constitution was (B) S.P. Sathe
upheld as valid. (C) M.P. Jain
Reason (R) : The power of the (D) Upendra Baxi
Parliament to amend the
Constitution is plenary. 10. It is a principle of fundamental importance
that justice should not only be done, but it
Code : should manifestly and undoubtedly be
(A) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong seen to be done. Who said this ?
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct (A) Lord Acton
(C) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct (B) Lord Diplock
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(C) Lord Hewart
7. Art. 329-A of the Constitution of India was (D) Lord Halsbury
struck down as invalid in the case of
(A) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of 11. It is a well established principle that the
Kerala principles of natural justice do not apply to
(B) Waman Rao v. Union of India (A) Judicial function
(C) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (B) Quasi-judicial function
(D) Indira Sawhney v. Union of India (C) Legislative function
8. In the case of a member of either House (D) Administrative function
of Parliament becoming subject to any of
the disqualifications mentioned in 12. The Lokpal and Lok Ayuktas Act was
Clause (1) of Article 102, the President enacted in the year
shall obtain the opinion of
(A) 2011
(A) The Council of Ministers
(B) 2012
(B) The Supreme Court
(C) 2013
(C) The Speaker of the House
(D) The Election Commission (D) 2014
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13. In which one of the following writs the 15. “Jurisprudence is as big as law – and
principle of resjudicata is not applicable ? bigger”, who said this ?
(A) Habeas corpus (A) Dennis Lloyd
(B) Michael Freeman
(B) Quo warranto
(C) Karl Llewellyn
(C) Mandamus
(D) Julius Stone
(D) Certiorari
16. A positive right corresponds to
14. Match the item from List I with an item with
(A) a positive duty
List II and choose the correct answer from
the code : (B) a negative duty
(C) an imperfect duty
List – I List – II
(D) a perfect duty
I. Maneka Gandhi v. 1. Policy bias
17. Identify the pair of jural correlatives from
Union of India the following
II. Fertilizer 2. Continuing (A) Right - Liability
Corporation mandamus (B) Liberty - Duty
Kaamgar Union v. (C) Power – No-right
Union of India
(D) Immunity - Disability
III. Gullapalli 3. Post-decisional 18. Which theory says that a corporation has
Nageswara Rao v. hearing all the characteristics which a natural
APSRTC person has ?
(A) Purpose theory
IV. Vineet Narain v. 4. Liberalisation of
Union of India locus standi (B) Concession theory
(C) Fiction theory
Code :
(D) Realist theory
I II III IV
19. The term ‘no-right’ was invented by
(A) 4 2 3 1 (A) Salmond
(B) 3 4 1 2 (B) Glanville Williams
(C) 3 2 1 4 (C) Fitzgerald
(D) 2 3 4 1 (D) Hohfeld
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20. “Moral judgments can not be established 23. In which of the following offences, the
or defended by rational argument, evidence preparation for committing that offence,
or proof” has been the contention of alone becomes liable for punishment ?
(A) Positivists (A) Possession of counterfeit coins and
(B) Naturalists government stamps
(C) Sociological jurists (B) Robbery
(D) Realists (C) Grievous Hurt
21. Stare decisis means (D) Rioting
(A) an erroneous decision
24. Which of the following statements is false
(B) to stand by earlier decision with regard to the offence of criminal
(C) to depart from earlier decision conspiracy ?
(D) to disregard earlier decision (A) Conspiracy is a substantive offence
22. Two statements are given below. One is (B) There must be meeting of two or more
Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). persons for doing an illegal act
Examine these two statements carefully (C) The gist of the criminal conspiracy
and select the answers to these items must be to break the law
using the codes given below.
(D) It is absolutely necessary that all the
Assertion (A) : Custom is superior to conspirators should participate from
legislation. the inception to the end of conspiracy
Reason (R) : Custom is followed 25. Which of the following periods during
since times immemorial.
which a married woman shall die
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true unnaturally to attract the provisions of
and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) ‘dowry death’ ?
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true (A) First 7 years of marriage
but (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A) (B) First 10 years of marriage
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false (C) First 15 years of marriage
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true (D) Any time after marriage
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26. Which of the following judgments had 29. ‘A’, a Revenue Officer, is entrusted with
addressed the plight of a victim of sexual public money and under a legal obligation
assault causing her to remain in Persistent to pay it into Government Treasury,
Vegetative state for more than three dishonestly appropriates the money. What
decades ? is the offence committed by ‘A’ ?
(A) Arun Garg v. State of Punjab (A) Criminal breach of trust
(B) Tukaram v. State of Maharashtra (B) Criminal misappropriation
(C) Bharwada Bhoginbhai v. State of
(C) Theft
Gujarath
(D) Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v. (D) Cheating
Union of India
30. How many exceptions are recognized to
27. Which of the following Sections of the the offence of ‘Defamation’ under the
Indian Penal Code, 1860 was declared as Indian Penal Code, 1860 ?
unconstitutional and void by the Supreme
(A) 5
Court in Mithu v. State of Punjab ?
(B) 8
(A) Sec. 304 – A
(B) Sec. 303 (C) 9
(C) Sec. 304 – B (D) 10
(D) Sec. 498 – A 31. Environmental Impact Assessment is
28. Match the following offences and legal made mandatory for development
provisions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. activities involving investments of
(A) 10 crores
List – I List – II
Legal Provisions Offences (B) 50 crores
I. 383 1. Theft (C) 100 crores
II. 391 2. Robbery (D) 25 crores
III. 378 3. Dacoity
32. Hazardous waste management is
IV. 390 4. Extortion governed by which of the following
Code : Conventions ?
I II III IV
(A) Stockholm Convention
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) Rio Convention
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 2 3 1 (C) Kyoto Protocol
(D) 4 2 1 3 (D) Basel Convention
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33. Match the following : 35. The Rule of ‘absolute liability’ was laid
down by the Supreme Court of India in the
List – I List – II
following case
I. Sustainable 1. Rio Declaration
(A) Ryland v. Fletcher
development
(B) M.C. Mehta (Sriram Food and
II. Migratory species 2. Stockholm Fertilizer Co.) v. Union of India
of wild animals Conference
(C) M.C. Mehta (C.N.G. Fuel) case v.
III. Climate change 3. Bonn Convention Union of India
IV. Human centric 4. Kyoto Protocol (D) Vellore Citizens Forum v. Union of
approach to India
sustainable
development 36. The Air (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act 1981 was passed by the
Code : Parliament by exercising the power under
I II III IV one of the following
(A) 2 3 4 1 (A) Article 252 of the Constitution of India
(B) 1 3 2 4 (B) Article 253 of the Constitution of India
(C) 2 4 3 1 (C) Article 250 of the Constitution of India
(D) 2 3 1 4 (D) Article 246 of the Constitution of India
34. By virtue of the Supreme Court’s order in 37. What is the period of notice required to be
Centre for Environmental Law WWF v. served upon the Central Government for
Union of India in 2000 no forest, National
filing a criminal complaint by any person,
Park or Sanctuary can be dereserved
under the provisions of the Environment
without the approval of
(Protection) Act, 1986 ?
(A) The State Government
(A) Not less than 30 days
(B) The Central Government
(B) Not less than 60 days
(C) The State Government after approval
by Central Government (C) Not less than 90 days
(D) The Supreme Court (D) Not less than 6 months
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38. Consider the following statements 42. MFN Clause means
1. Custom begins where usage ends (A) Most Favourite Nation Clause
2. Usage should always precede a
(B) Must Favoured Nation Clause
custom
3. Usage must always become a custom (C) Most Favoured Nation Clause
4. Usage represents the twilight stage of (D) Major Favourite Nation Clause
custom
Which of the statements given above are 43. Assertion (A) : Only States may be
correct ? parties in cases before
(A) 2 and 3 the ICJ.
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4 Reason (R) : Non-parties may have
access to the Court with
(D) 1 and 4
the prior approval of the
39. Which of the following theories is Secretary-General.
applicable to recognition ?
(A) Dualism theory (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is a
(B) Declaratory theory correct explanation of (A)
(C) Clean slate theory (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(D) Functional necessity theory a correct explanation of (A)
40. What ends when extradition begins ? (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(A) Asylum (D) (A) is false but (R) is true
(B) Immunity
44. In the case concerning the legality of the
(C) Privilege
threat or use of Nuclear Weapons the
(D) Repatriation
International Court of Justice gave
41. A decision of the International Court of advisory opinion at the request of
justice has a binding effect on
(A) U.N. Security Council
(A) Parties alone in that particular case
(B) The states in similar situations (B) U.N. General Assembly
(C) National courts in similar (C) World Health Organization
circumstances
(D) U.N. Educational and Cultural
(D) Interveners who are not original
parties in the particular case Organization
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45. Match List – I with List – II and select the 48. Dastane v. Dastane is a case decided by
correct answer using the code given the Supreme Court relating to
below the lists : (A) Adultery
List – I List – II (B) Desertion
Judicial decision Principle (C) Cruelty
I. Reparations case 1. Estoppel (D) Impotency
II. Certain expenses 2. Recognition 49. The substantial Amendment to the Indian
case Divorce Act, 1869 by which cruelty
III. Temple of 3. Peace keeping simpliciter as a ground for Divorce for
preah vihear case operations Christian wife has been made in the year
(A) 2000
IV. Aromtzazu Mendi 4. International
case personality of (B) 2001
UNO (C) 2011
Code : (D) 2010
I II III IV 50. Under the Hindu Adoption and
(A) 4 3 1 2 Maintenance Act, a married woman can
(B) 4 1 3 2 (A) adopt a child without the consent of
(C) 2 1 3 4 the husband
(D) 2 3 1 4 (B) adopt a child with the consent of the
husband
46. In which of the following cases the (C) adopt if she is a widow
Supreme Court ruled that “right to marry is
not an absolute right” ? (D) cannot adopt a child
(A) Mr. X v. Hopsital Z
(B) Vijaya Kumari v. Devabalan 51. “A husband does not divorce his wife as a
mark of respect” – The observation is
(C) Margaret Palai v. Savitri Palai made by
(D) Chitnis v. Chitnis (A) Justice Rajendra Babu in Danial Latifi
Case
47. Which of the following is not a valid ground
for a Muslim wife to take divorce ? (B) Justice Y.V. Chandrachud in
Shabana Begum Case
(A) Adultery
(C) Justice Gajendra Gadkar in Narasu
(B) Cruelty Appa Mali
(C) Adultery as cruelty (D) Justice P.A. Chowdary in Sareetha v.
(D) Impotency Venkata Subbaiah
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52. A relationship between two persons who 55. Which Article of the International Covenant
on Civil and Political Rights sets out the
live or have, at any point of time, lived
Protection by law of the Right to life ?
together in a shared household, when they
are related by consanguinity, marriage, or (A) A. 21
through a relationship in the nature of (B) A. 7
marriage, adoption or are family members (C) A. 6
living together as a joint family is called
(D) A. 27
(A) a domestic partnership
56. For the purposes of the Convention on the
(B) a live-in relationship Rights of the Child, a Child means every
(C) a domestic relationship human being below the age of
(D) a shared household (A) 14 years
(B) 16 years
53. Identify the case in which the court has
(C) 18 years
emphasized that Art. 44 of the Indian
Constitution seeks to divest religion from (D) 21 years
social relations and personal law 57. In the convention on status of Refugees,
(A) Stainislaus v. State of M.P. 1951, a refugee is a person who on
account of which of the following grounds
(B) John Vallamottam v. Union of India
is away from his/her previous home.
(C) Md. Hanif Qureshi v. State of Bihar (A) religion, race, caste, sex or place of
(D) Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India birth
(B) caste, religion, nationality, membership
54. On which of the following issues has the
of a social group or basis of political
NHRC issued guidelines ? opinion
(A) Measures to improve Police-Public (C) race, colour, sex, language, religion,
relations political or other opinion, national or
(B) Rights of persons with Mental Illness social origin, property, birth or other
status
(C) Rights of Transgenders
(D) race, religion, political opinion, age,
(D) Housing rights colour or place of birth
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Answer questions Nos. 58 to 61 based on the 58. The juvenile justice system has as its
analysis of the following paragraph : object
(A) Punishment of juveniles
Differences between Juvenile Justice System
(B) Adoption of adversarial system in
and Criminal Justice System are as under :-
dealing with child crimes
FIR and Charge – sheet in respect of juvenile
offenders is filed only in ‘serious cases’, where (C) To detain juveniles until they are
adult punishment exceeds 7 years. A Juvenile reformed
in conflict with the law is not “arrested”, but (D) To reform the juveniles and pay way
“apprehended”, only in case of allegations of for their rehabilitation and honest living
a serious crime. Once apprehended, the
police must immediately place such juvenile 59. A juvenile in conflict with law can be
under the care of a Welfare Officer, whose (A) only arrested
duty is to produce the juvenile before the (B) only apprehended
Board. Thus, the police do not retain pre-trial (C) detained in jail during inquiry by Board
custody over the juvenile. Under no
(D) can never be arrested or apprehended
circumstances is the juvenile to be detained
in a jail or police lock-up, whether before, 60. The primary object of ‘juvenile justice’
during or after the Board inquiry. Grant of bail system is to
to juveniles in conflict with the law is the Rule.
(A) find guilt or innocence of the juvenile
The JJ Board conducts a child-friendly
“inquiry” and not an adversarial trial. This is (B) investigate the underlying social or
not to say that the nature of the inquiry is non- familial causes of alleged crime
adversarial, since both prosecution and (C) both the above
defence submit their cases. Instead, the (D) none of the above
nature of the proceedings acquires a child-
friendly colour. The emphasis of criminal trials 61. The method of conducting inquiry into an
is to record a finding on the guilt or innocence allegation against a child on the ground
of the accused. In case of established guilt, that he committed a crime, is by nature
the prime object of sentencing is to punish a (A) adversarial
guilty offender. The emphasis of juvenile (B) non-adversarial
‘inquiry’ is to find the guilt/innocence of the
(C) inquisitorial
juvenile and to investigate the underlying
social or familial causes of the alleged crime. (D) child friendly
Thus, the aim of juvenile sentencing is to
62. Identify the case in which ‘negligence’ is
reform and rehabilitate the errant juvenile. The
recognized as a specific tort
adult criminal system does not regulate the
activities of the offender once he/she has (A) Rylands v. Fletcher
served the sentence. Since the JJ system (B) Dann v. Hamilton
seeks to reform and rehabilitate the juvenile, (C) Donoghue v. Stevenson
it establishes post-trial avenues for the (D) Ashby v. White
juvenile to make an honest living.
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63. Last Opportunity Rule is applicable in the 66. Qui facit per alium facit per se relates to
context of (A) strict liability
(A) Remoteness of damages (B) absolute liability
(B) Negligence (C) vicarious liability
(C) Composite negligence (D) penal liability
(D) Contributory negligence
67. In which of the following cases, the Bhopal
64. Which of the following statement is true Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims)
as to the application of the doctrine of ‘res Act was challenged and its validity was
ipsa loquitur’ ? upheld by the Supreme Court ?
(A) the plaintiff must prove that the (A) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India
defendant was negligent (B) Union Carbide Corporation v. Union
of India
(B) the burden of proof is on the plaintiff
to establish the defendant’s (C) Charanlal Sahu v. Union of India
negligence (D) Indian Council for Enviro-Legal Action
(C) the onus of proof is shifted throwing v. Union of India
on the defendant the task of proving
68. The Consumer Protection Act intends to
that he was not negligent
protect the interests of
(D) the plaintiff must prove that there was
(A) traders and consumers
no negligence on his part
(B) consumer of goods only
65. Assertion (A) : The consequences of (C) consumer of services only
a wrongful act may be (D) both consumer of goods and
endless or there may consumer of services
be consequences of
consequences. 69. Match List – I with List – II and select the
Reason (R) : The test of reasonable correct answer using the code given
below the lists :
foresight is usually
followed to determine List – I List – II
remoteness of I. Implied condition 1. Goods
damages. II. Implied warranty 2. Title
Code : III. Unpaid seller’s right 3. Possession
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true IV. Shares 4. Lien
and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) Code :
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true I II III IV
but (R) is not the correct explanation (A) 3 2 4 1
of (A)
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false (C) 2 4 1 3
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true (D) 3 1 4 2
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70. The doctrine of ‘Indoor Management’ is 73. Ultra vires of the company means
invoked
(A) an action outside the prospectus
(A) to protect the outsiders against the
company (B) an action outside memorandum of
association
(B) to protect the insiders against the
company (C) an action outside articles of
(C) to protect the company itself association
(D) to protect the promoters of the (D) an action outside the purview of
company promoters
71. Which of the following endorsement does 74. A minor can be
not exclude the right of further negotiation
I. made a partner with the consent of all
by X ?
the partners
(A) “Pay the contents to X only”
II. admitted to the benefits of partnership
(B) “Pay X for my use”
with the consent of all the partners
(C) “Pay X or order for the account of Y”
III. minor share is liable for the acts of firm
(D) “Pay X”
IV. minor is not personally liable for the
72. Which is/are the NOT the promissory acts of firm
note /notes if A signs the instruments in
Select the correct answer using the code
the following terms ?
given below :
I. I promise to pay B or order Rs. 1,000
(A) I, II and III are correct
II. I promise to pay B Rs. 1,000 ten days
after my marriage with C (B) III, IV and I are correct
III. I promise to pay B Rs. 100 and all (C) II, III and IV are correct
other sums which shall be due to him
(D) I and III are correct
IV. I promise to pay B Rs. 1,000 and to
deliver to him my black horse on 75. Which is not a negotiable instrument ?
1st January next
(A) Promissory note
(A) I and II are correct
(B) Currency note
(B) II, III and IV are correct
(C) Cheque
(C) I, III and IV are correct
(D) Bill of exchange
(D) I, II and III are correct
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Source: Telangana State Eligibility Test. Question paper published by Telangana State Eligibility Test.