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Indian Politics Questions and Answers

31.

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment was made in the light of the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee Report that was set up by which government?

Exam Year(s)

DSSSB - 2023,

Answer: B

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) was made in the light of the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, which was set up by the Indira Gandhi government in 1976 to study changes to the Constitution. The amendment added the words socialist, secular and integrity to the Preamble and added the Fundamental Duties.

Charan Singh, Morarji Desai and Lal Bahadur Shastri were prime ministers in other years, and the committee was not set up by their governments. The second option is the answer.

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Answer: D

The incorrect statement is that a no-confidence motion can be moved by any member of the Rajya Sabha. A motion of no confidence in the Council of Ministers can be moved only in the Lok Sabha, because the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha and not to the Rajya Sabha.

The other statements are correct: the Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on a money bill and cannot initiate, reject or amend it, the Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha can criticise the government but cannot remove it. The fourth option is the answer.

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33.

Under the anti-defection amendment, who has the final authority to decide if a member of a House has become subject to disqualification under this law?

Exam Year(s)

DSSSB - 2023,

Answer: A

Under the anti-defection law, in the Tenth Schedule, the presiding officer of the House (the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha) decides whether a member has become subject to disqualification. Decisions of the presiding officer can be reviewed by the courts.

The Prime Minister, the President and the Chief Election Commissioner do not decide on defection disqualification of members of a House. The first option is the answer.

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34.

Which of the following statements regarding 'collective responsibility' of the Indian Executive is true. 1-The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible for the Lok and Rajya Sabha. 2-It implies that a vote of no confidence even against a single minister leads to the resignation of the entire Council of Ministers. 3-It also indicates that if a minister does not agree with a policy or decision of the cabinet, he or she must either accept the decision or resign.

Exam Year(s)

DSSSB - 2023,

Answer: D

Statements 2 and 3 are true. Collective responsibility means that if a vote of no confidence is passed against the Council of Ministers, even in the form of defeat of one minister, the whole Council resigns together, and that a minister who disagrees with a decision of the cabinet must accept it or resign.

Statement 1 is wrong, because the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha only, and not to the Rajya Sabha. So the correct choice is 'Only 2 and 3', which is the fourth option.

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35.

Who among the following can appoint a special officer for linguistic minorities under Article 350 B of the Constitution?

Exam Year(s)

DSSSB - 2023,

Answer: A

The officer is appointed by the President.

Article 350B provides for a Special Officer for linguistic minorities, who is appointed by the President.

The Vice President, Parliament and the Prime Minister have no such power under this Article.

Article 350B was added by the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956. The Special Officer investigates all matters relating to the safeguards for linguistic minorities and reports to the President, who places the reports before Parliament and sends them to the states concerned.

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36.

Under which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution are the citizens given Fundamental Rights?

Exam Year(s)

DSSSB - 2023,

Answer: B

The Fundamental Rights are given under Articles 12-35.

Part III of the Constitution, from Article 12 to Article 35, deals with Fundamental Rights, starting with the definition of the State.

Articles 12-15, 25-28 and 29-30 cover only some of them: equality, religion, and cultural and educational rights respectively.

Part III, which begins with the definition of the State in Article 12, runs up to Article 35. It covers the right to equality, the right to freedom, the right against exploitation, the right to freedom of religion, cultural and educational rights and the right to constitutional remedies.

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37.

The Supreme Court of India has issued a landmark ruling and declared privacy a fundamental right since ________.

Exam Year(s)

DSSSB - 2023,

Answer: D

The date is 24 August 2017.

On 24 August 2017, in Justice K. S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court unanimously held that the right to privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21.

The 2010 dates and 11 August 2017 are not the date of the judgment.

The judgment overruled the earlier decisions in M. P. Sharma and Kharak Singh, which had denied that privacy was a fundamental right. The court held that privacy is part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and of the freedoms in Part III as a whole. The date of the judgment is 24 August 2017.

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38.

Which Article of the Constitution has the provision of appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court with regards to criminal matters?

Exam Year(s)

DSSSB - 2023,

Answer: A

The Article is Article 134.

Article 134 gives the Supreme Court appellate jurisdiction in criminal matters from High Court judgments. Article 135 deals with the jurisdiction of the Federal Court, Article 136 with special leave to appeal and Article 137 with review of judgments.

So only Article 134 deals with criminal appeals.

Article 134 gives the Supreme Court appellate jurisdiction in criminal matters, for example when the High Court has reversed an acquittal and sentenced the accused to death. Article 132 covers constitutional questions in civil and criminal cases, and Article 133 covers civil appeals.

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39.

Who resolves disputes that may arise between two states?

Exam Year(s)

DSSSB - 2023,

Answer: A

Disputes between two states are resolved by the Supreme Court of India.

Article 131 gives the Supreme Court original jurisdiction in disputes between the Union and states or between two or more states.

High Courts, subordinate courts and district courts do not have this jurisdiction.

Article 131 gives the Supreme Court original and exclusive jurisdiction over disputes between the Government of India and one or more states, between the Union and a state against other states, and between two or more states, where the dispute involves a question of law or fact on which a legal right depends.

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40.

As of March 2022, who is the Lok Sabha Speaker?

Exam Year(s)

DSSSB - 2023,

Answer: A

As of March 2022, the Lok Sabha Speaker was Om Birla.

Om Birla was elected Speaker of the 17th Lok Sabha in June 2019 and held the office in March 2022. Sumitra Mahajan was the Speaker of the 16th Lok Sabha.

M Thambidurai was a Deputy Speaker earlier, and Piyush Goyal is a minister.

Om Birla, a Bharatiya Janata Party member from Kota in Rajasthan, was elected Speaker on 19 June 2019 and was still in office in March 2022. Sumitra Mahajan, his predecessor, served from 2014 to 2019. So the Speaker as of March 2022 was Om Birla.

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