MP SET 2025: State Eligibility Test, Commerce
Text of page 1
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RyP/P/2025/II Question Booklet No.
Subject-COMMERCE
SET A ■a)pr-TT^
25020 5488
Paper II (Optional)
(^^<4 "5lfe-02
"HPT
Subject-Code-02
Name
Tjfhjrof 3ttni 'If fp><^i
3t^shH|ch
<■ ' Candidate should write his/her
Roll No. Roll No. in the given boxes.
^ Tfefl/No. of Printed Pages : 38 ^ ^ TT^/Tota! No. of Questions : 100
Tm : 3 wt ^^ "'JptoMaximum Marks : 200
Time Allowed: 3 Hours to complete both 1st and Ilnd question paper
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In this examination there are two question papers, consistingof 150 objective type questions and each question
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awarded for each correct answer.Unanswered question will not be given any marks. There is no provisions
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PaperI General paper (Q. No. 1-50)
Paper U Question paper on the Subject opted by the examinee (Q. No. 61-150)
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(N)S/02/2025/A
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(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK) (N)S/02/2025/A
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51. Who is the successor of the GATT 51. GATT alk WTR ^
(General Agreement on Tariffs and
Trade)?
(A) (B)
(A) ASEAN (B) IMF
(C) UNCTAD (D) WTO (C) (D)
52, The WTO received its funding in 2022 ■ 52. WTR ^ 2022 ami
from miscellaneous income and yearly ■Rkrq aiPT -wfl ^
contribution from ^members. ■MkKH ^ W faTT I
(A) 161 (B) 162 (A) 161 (B) 162
(C) 163 (D) 164 (C) 163 (D) 164
53. Which theory states that variations in a 53. t felt ^
nation's labour and capital endowments m afk "3^
determine its exports ? ■ fefe ^ t ?
(A) Factor proportions theory (A) a^^qRT fefcT
(B) Product life-cycle theory (B) fefcT
(C) Theory of absolute advantage (C) ^ ^ fera
(D) Mercantilist doctrine (D) ^qfet
54. ^ere was the first SAARC summit 54. ^ fear ^ aiwlRld
held? fen "TO «n ?
(A) Bangladesh (B) India (A) (B)
(C) Pakistan (D) Nepal (C) Rifemr (D)
N(3)S/02/2025/A 1 P.T.O.
Text of page 4
55. The cultural environment of international 55. WIR ^
business comprises of: "I :
(A) Religion, Customs and Manners (A) sfk
(B) Values and Attitudes (B) ^
(C) Customs and Manners (C) PiJIWK
(D) All of the above (D)
56. The following statement defines 56. PiHRriRad i
"A dynamic and multi-dimensional
process of economic integration whereby
national resources become more and
more internationally mobile while
national economies become increasingly
WR 31Tfkl ^^t l"
interdependent."
(A) Mkr
(A) Financial Globalisation
(B)
(B) Cultural Globalisation
(C) Political Globalisation (C)
(D) Economic Globalisation (D) STlfe
57. Which of the following is not a monetary 57. pHHRdRsId "k* "^ftTRT Rlfer -ilRi
policy instrument ? t ?
(A) Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) (A)
Rate
(B) Liquidity Adjustment Facility (B) TRR RWTNh ■^¥^T
(LAF)
(C) #Rfd RTO
(C) Marginal Costing
(D) "ft^ ^
(D) Reverse Repo Rate
N(31S/02/2025/A
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58. Which of the following statements is 58. PHHRrlRsid ^
incorrect ? t ?
(A) The World Bank was established in (A) ^ 1944 "4' ^
1944. sfl 1
(B) The IMF and World Bank often (B)
work together. ^t I
(C) The World Bank group is a family (C) ^ ^
of four international organisations. ^ mR<^k "t I
(D) World Bank was orginally known as (D) ^^ 3?k
the International Bank for
Reconstruction and Development. "4* SIT I
59. Which is the final stage of 59. tTt.37K.-5ft. ^ ■% SKRf^tTTOT
Intemationalisation according to the TTT srfcR WT t ?
EPRG framework ?
(A) T^TIcftT (B) ^
(A) Ethnocentric (B) Regiocentric
(C) Polycentric (D) Geocentric (C) 44<iPstd (D)
60. Which of the following is not a function 60. PdHrdRsId ^ Tftm TJPf WTO
of WTO ? TT t ?
(A) Elimination of discrimination (A)
(B) To foster a multilateral system of (B) alk ^Wld<u| ^
payment and transfer TTt
(C) Resolution of disputes (C) fTTTTf TT TTITH
(D) Combating protection and trade (D) "T'OT afK WIK TTTTsff TT ii=bNdl
barriers ■^FTTT
IM(3)S/02/2025/A P.T.O.
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61. A and B are partners in a firm sharing 61. A sfk B 7 : 5 ^ ^
profits in the ratio of 7 : 5. They admit "QoF "t I
C as a new partner for l/7th share in the ^ C^ 1/7#* fe# ^
profit. The new profit sharing ratio is "3^ #■ ?TTfeT ^ t I
5:3: 1. The sacrificing ratio of A and Bin 5 : 3 : 1 t I A 3k
B will be : B ^ ^ ^ :
(A) 1 :3 (B) 1 : 12 (A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 12
(C) 1 : 36 (D) 2:3 (C) 1 : 36 (D) 2 : 3
62. A company XYZ Ltd. has made an 62. XYZ %. # 31^
investment of ? 16,000 in the shares of ABC %. ^ #* ? 16,000 ^
another company ABC Ltd. The market t I #* ^ 3M ^
value of these shares at present is ? 16,800 t I 3m, XYZ 1^. ^
? 16,800. Now, the accountant of XYZ ^ #* M'(\
Ltd. wants to show that the value of ^ ^ ? 16,000 ^ vm TR
investment in the company's books of ^ 16,800 ^ ^ # ^#TT t,
accounts as ^ 16,800 instead of ^ 16,000,
■q;^ ticticrMii "q?
however, an accounting convention
t I w ^^
restricts him from doing the same. This
mrnr t :
accounting convention is known as :
(A)
(A) Materiality
(B)
(B) Conservatism
(C)
(C) Consistency
(D) "'J'f
(D) Full dislosure
N{3)S/02/2025/A
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63. Poorvi Ltd. has allotted 18000 equity 63. OT 25200 Wm ^^
shares to the applicants of 25200 equity ^ 18000 ^
shares on pro-rata basis. Application tt^ I ^ 10800 3f?ff
money on another 10800 equity shares
^ ^^ -qf I STT^
was refunded. The amount payable on
^^ ^ ? 50 3rfq af?T
the application was ? 50 per share. Aarvi
I ^ ^ 756 af?ff ^
applied for 756 equity shares. The
fen I ^ M
number of shares allotted to Aarvi will
smf ^ :
be :
(A) 108 WM m
(A) 108 Equity Shares
(B) 864 Equity Shares
(B) 864 Tmi ^
(C) 540 Equity Shares (C) 540 3RT
(D) 576 Equity Shares (D) 576 Tm\ 3^
64. The part of net assets of a subsidiary 64. ^^ ^
company, which are not owned directly ^ ilOT, fe 1^
or indirectly by the parent company is (■fe qq
known as : f :
(A) Outsider's liability (A) feif qq qife
(B) Cost of control (B) fe^ qft eiTO
(C) Minority interest (C) fe
(D) Goodwill (D)
N(3)S/02/2025/A P.T.O.
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65. In a particular process, 2800 units were 65. 2800
introduced, out of which 10% units is the "5^ 10% "I I
normal loss. If the actual output is 2100 cliwiqcti 2100 ^
units, then there is ^ I
(A) Normal gain of 420 units (A) 420 ^ WTRT
(B) No any abnormal gain or loss (B) ^ "qi
(C) Abnormal gain of 420 units (C) 420 iWff ^
(D) Abnormal loss of 420 units (D) 420 ^
66. The current ratio is 5 :2 and liquid ratio 66. 31^ 5 : 2 t ^ 31^
is 1 : 1. If the inventory is ^ 1,20,000 1:1 t I ? 1,20,000
then the current liabilities will be :
(A) ? 24,000 (B) ? 1,20,000 (A) ? 24,000 (B) ? 1,20,000
(C) ? 48,000 (D) t 80,000 (C) ? 48,000 (D) ? 80,000
67. "Only scarce people should comprise the 67. "Tim ^
value of human resources." This
statement is covered under which of the ^sirflTT i" ^«i^ Tim
following methods of Human Resource ^ rnHPeiR^d Mr ^ smfe
Accounting ? t ?
(A) Historical Cost Method (A)
(B) Opportunity Cost Method ■ (B) mm WTd
(C) Replacement Cost Method (C) Tifcmm mm
(D) Economic Value Method (D) 3TTfe TJ^ Ml
N(3)S/02/2025/A
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68. The full form of the term TFRS' is : 68. ' ^^
(A) International Financial Reporting •^) t :
System
(A)
(B) International Finance Reporting
Standards (B)■ tttto
(C) International Financial Reporting
(C)
Standards
(D) Indian Financial Reporting System (D) "M#
69 is the examination and 69. ''TT ^
authentication of underlying evidence
which is in support of the accuracy of a
^ ^t I
transaction.
(A) Recording
(B) Posting
(B) tsldtHl/yPci^i
(C) Vouching (C)
(D) Verification (D) ^rqim
70. A unique process of appraising the 70. rH^!^l=hX ^
N
performance of directors, managers or
the performance of management is : "yfen t :
(A) Safety Audit (A)
(B) Systems Audit (B)
(C) Management Audit (C) 31^
(D) Environment Audit (D)
N(3)S/02/2025/A P.T.O.
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71. Which of the following is not included 71. ^^ PdHRrlRdd
in the scope of Business Economics ?
^ "strar t ?
(A) Production and Cost Analysis
(A) Wm
(B) Profit Management
(B)
(C) Demand Analysis and Demand
Forecasting (C) TM 'm
(D) Dividend Planning and Distribution (D) eTPTRT ^
72. In case of an inferior good, the effect of 72. ^^^ ^
change in buyer's income on its demand ^ MRcicfH ^ "3^ ifFT
is t I
(A) Negative (A)
(B) Positive (B)
(C) No effect (C) ^
(D) None of the above (D) ^^
73. A consumer demands 5 units of a 73. t3[^ ? 4 Ijfd ^ ^ 13;^
commodity at a price of? 4 per unit. He ^ 5 iwif ^ t I
^ "3^1 cfit ctilna "EfcSR ? 3
demands 10 units when the price falls to
1^ f 10
? 3 per unit. In this condition price
"t I "5^ R^Ri ^
elasticity of demand is :
(A) 3 (B) 4 (A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 1.5 (C) 2 (D) 1.5
l\l(3)S/02/2025/A 8
Text of page 11
74. Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility 74. wm ^ ^ 313?TR
states that when more and more units of ^
a commodity are consumed, then w\ "sm t,
Marginal Utility : wtor :
(A) Begins to increase (A) ii t
(B) Remains constant (B) wt t
(C) Begins to decrease (C) t
(D) Becomes zero (D) ^
75. Given the fact that Marginal Rate of 75. X y ^^
Substitution between x and y is
diminishing, Indifference curve is : ^tcTT f :
(A) Convex to the origin (A) aik
(B) Concave to the origin (B) ^ 3ik
(C) A straight line (C) ^ ter
(D) None of the above (D) "4* ^ ^
76. When more and more units of a variable 76. ^ aifq^ ^ aite
factor are combined with the fixed factor,
the resulting law is called : t ^ ^t :
(A) Lawof Decreasing Returns to Scale (A) ^
(B) Law of Constant Returns to Scale (B) ^ RRH 3TfdW RR
(C) Law of Increasing Returns to Scale (C) '% RR
(D) Law of Viable Proportion (D) RftRdf 37^ RR
N(3)S/02/2025/A P.T.O.
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77. The costs which do not change with the
change in quantity of output are called : MRciRd ^ t, t:
(A) Fixed costs (A)
(B) Monetary costs (B) Rfe BFT^*
(C) Real costs (C) elFr^'
(D) None of the above (D)
78. When Average Cost is falling, then : 78. 3^^ W1?T trot t, :
(A) MOAC (A) MOAC
(B) MC<AC (B) MC<AC
(C) MC = AC (C) MC = AC
(D) None of the above (D) ^^
1
79. Under 'Collusive Oligopoly' price is 79. ^ 3RT7fe ^
often decided by. TO: "TO tI
(A) The Industry (A)
(B) The Firm (B) ^
(C) Price Leader (C) %
(D) None of the above (D) 34^dd ^^
N(3)S/02/2025/A 10
Text of page 13
80. Which pricing policy should be adopted 80. ^ "ZTT ^^ fitfe
to fix the price of goods and services
according to seasons ? ■cur^y. ?
(A) Differential Pricing (A)
(B) Multiple Pricing (B) ^
(C) Peak Load Pricing (C) qR
(D) Dual Price Pricing (D) ^
81. The lessor should record an asset given
under a finance lease as a :
(A) current liability (A) ^ ^
(B) receivable (B) 3IM ^ ^
(C) property, plant and equipment (C) 13;^* ^
(D) None of the above (D)
82. Which one of the following methods is 82. iyta MrPt ^
based on the time value of money in the rHMPviP^d ^ ^ "3^ ^ WT
selection of a proposal for capital
investment ?
(A)
(A) Pay-back Period method
(B) wwi ^ im ^
(B) Accounting Rate of Return method
(C) wm ^
(C) Average Rate of Return method
(D) "51^
(D) Discounted Cash Flow method
N(3)S/02/2025/A 11 P.T.O.
Text of page 14
83. The cost of one additional unit of 83. M
new capital issued by a company is ^ ^ WTcT ^^
called : ^TRTT :
(A) Opportunity cost (A) WTcT
(B) Specific cost (B)
(C) Marginal cost (C) eTTO
(D) Explicit cost (D) WFT
84. The advantage of assets securitization 84. TrfcPjRTOTir ^ ^ t :
is :
(A) ^M ^
(A) This enables faster recovery of
t I
funds.
(B) The funding cost is comparatively
t I
less.
(C) It converts illiquid assets into liquid
(C) ^ ^ TOT WIrif
assets.
wi t I
(D) All of the above (D) <iM^dd
85. Analysis of working capital is done 85. ^ "sncTT
through : t:
(A) Ratio Analysis (A) ST^qicT ?Rr
(B) Working Capital Forecast (B) =hi4vnd ^
(C) By altering Working Capital
(C) =hl4!^nel HR<d4d
(D) None of the above
(D) ^^
N(3)S/02/2025/A 12
Text of page 15
86. How many countries were included in 86. 311^ ^
Basket of currencies on 1st January, 1981 1 1981 ^
for the valuation of Special Drawing ZfqIRt ^ IViMl ^FTT
Rights (SDR)? «TT ?
(A) 4 (A) 4
(B) 5 (B) 5
(C) 6 (C) 6
(D) 7 ■ (D) 7
87. Which of the following statements is 87. RnrdRsid ^ ^
true ? t?
(A) Pay-back period method measures (A)
the true profitability of a project. RFT ^1
(B) Capital Rationing and Capital (B) Xmf^ CI2TT
Budgeting mean the same thing. ^^ t I
(C) Net Present Value method takes into (C)
account the earnings over the entire
life of the project. t I
(D) Rate of Return method takes into (D) ^ WT
accoimt the time value of money. ■q^ RRdt t I
N(3)S/02/2025/A 13 P.T.O.
Text of page 16
88. The term "High Powered Money" refers 88. ^ f:
to :
(A) ^ "gST ^
(A) Deposits of different countries held "TO "i" I
by International Monetary Fund (B) ^ fern
(IMF). ^ "TO
(B) Low Interest rate loans offered by
the World Bank under its LDC
(C) ^
development programme.
^ "TO
(C) Currency issued by RBI and held by t I
Public and Commercial Banks.
(D) of^ "SRI ^ "TO "W
(D) Reserves kept by Banks with RBI. I
89. Suggestion given by "Sir Roy Harrod" to 89. cR^ ^^ ^
increase International liquidity was : W[ ^ «TT :
(A) Gold production should be
(A) drMKH ^^ ^
increased
(B) Gold should be appreciated (B) ^^ TjfPT
(C) Gold Reserves should be equally (C) Wf ^ RIRH
distributed
«TRT
(D) Gold should be devalued
(D)^^
90. Global Depository Receipts are usually 90. "f^si^IRTR 3nf^rf
denominated in : M^)^ m
^t ?
(A) Renminbi, Euro and US Dollars
(A)
(B) US Dollars
(B) "
(C) Euro and Pound Sterling
(C) ^ "R^* WiPdM
(D) Renminbi (D)
N(3)S/02/2025/A 14
Text of page 17
91. Which of the following is the most 91. riMPdRsld ^
unstable average ? tTTKI t ?
(A) Median (A)
(B) Mode (B)
(C) Arithmetic Average (C)
(D) Harmonic Mean (D) ■pTT«2T
92. The scatter in a series of values about the
average is called : t :
(A) Skewness (A) t^TOTT
(B) Central Tendency (B)
(C) Dispersion (C)
(D) Symmetry (D)
93. A mathematical method for measuring 93. ^ ^
the intensity or the magnitude of linear
■2TT mRhiui ^ ^
relationship between two variables is
OT -"wrf trI t ?
suggested by :
(A) fpRhr
(A) Karl Pearson
(B)
(B) Charles Spearman
(C) Kruskal Wallis (C) aj'Wiet, cTTf^RT
(D) None of the above (D) ^
l\l(3)S/02/2025/A 15 P.T.O.
Text of page 18
94. When a regression coefficient is positive, 94. ndtWR ^ t,
the other would be :
(A) Negative (A)
(B) Zero (B) ^
(C) Positive (C)
(D) None of the above (D) 3^5^ -4* ^ 3^*
95. The term "data processing error" refers 95. "hWtT Ttk"
to; t:
(A) Activities or events related to the (A) "Sfer
sampling process ■qr
(B) Faulty techniques of coding and (B) ^ ^
managing data
(C) Problems with the implementation (C) 37^*^ 3Tf^ ^
of the research process
(D) The unavoidable discrepancy between (D) 3Sk ^RWTT ^ STqfepf
the sample and the population
N(3)S/02/2025/A 16
Text of page 19
96. In business research, the researcher uses 96. "sqirofe
both open-ended and close-ended
questionnaire to collect data. Which of
'{111 ^ yqVi ch<cii
the following statements is correct ?
11 PiHRHR^d ^ ?
(A) Open-ended questions directly
(A) ^
provide quantitative data based on
the researcher's predetermined
qidlcHdi "^TR^ "^51^ f I
response categories.
(B) iifhqFTt ^ srq^
(B) Close-ended questions provide
MldkRch TJqF ^
quantitative data in the participant's
own words.
t I
(C) Open-ended questions provide (C) "m vlcmt ^ ^
qualitative data in the participant's A' TFF ^
own words. f I
(D) Close-ended questions directly (D) "SfwM ^
provide qualitative data in the ^ 71^' |i>J||rRcb "3^
participant's ovm words. t I
97. Sample Design involves the following : 97. yRi'^iiF ferifq [HHldRsid "hMfcT t:
(i) Sampling Unit (i) "STf^
(ii) Size of Sample (ii) ^ 3TOR
(iii) Type of Universe (iii) "^RTI ^ "SFTR
(iv) Sampling Procedure (iv) ^
Which of the following sequences is PdHRrlRsld A'
correct ? t ?
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (A) Q-X (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii) (B) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(C) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv) (C) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(D) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv) (D) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
N(3)S/02/2025/A 17 P.T.O.
Text of page 20
98. Which is correct with relation to
Chi-square test ? t ?
(A) Testing the goodness of fit of a (A) r^d<^i ^
distribution
(B) Testing the significance between (B) ^ ^ ^ ^
two large size samples
(C) Testing the significance between (C) ^ ^ ^
two small size samples
(D) Testing the significance among (D) ^
more than two sample groups H^v=\ "^^FT
99. Which non-parametric test is counterpart
of the one-way ANOVA ? ANOVA ^ 3Tf^ f ?
(A) U-test (A)
(B) H-test (B)
(C) T-test (C)
(D) All of the above (D)
N(3)S/02/2025/A 18
Text of page 21
100. Which of the following sequences 100.
correctly represents the steps of research mRimh ^ wrbr ^
using a quantitative paradigm ? "i" ?
(A) Hypothesis framing, hypothesis (A)
testing, conclusion and reporting.
(B) Establishing a research problem, (B) -mm ^ qRchcrq-ii
hypothesis framing, hypothesis ■Ri^frr, nRctJV^'ii
testing, generalization and conclusion ^ hRuiihI* ^ I
and implementation ofresults.
(C) ^TTOfT ^ ttRk?! wr,
(C) Problem identification, sample
selection, developing a research I
design and field work.
(D) ■^TTTHT ^
(D) Defining a problem, survey of
related studies, sampling, data
collection and data analysis. RiiJtrlNui I
101. 'Unity of Command' principle of
101. ^ '3TT% ^ WT' felR
effective direction means :
^ t :
(A) Subordinates should be responsible
to one superior. (A) smRr^* i\ ^ -sRt
(B) There should be unity amongst bRtt I
subordinates.
(B) 3T#T^* ^ TT^ ^ I
(C) There should be unity amongst
superiors.
(C) 3#iqiiR4|l TT^RT I
(D) A superior can supervise a limited (D) ^Rs?TT ^
number of subordinates.
^ h4<58RT ^ ^1
N(3)S/02/2025/A 19 P.T.O.
Text of page 22
102. From the following which is not the 102. -fkfWT ^ yPdHlRd
component of'Theory Z' propounded by
Prof. William Ouchi ?
(A) Attention to human relations (A) HHcild m
(B) Life time employment (B)
(C) Wholistic concern (C)
(D) Fast evaluation and promotion (D) ^
103. In the Robert Blake and Jane Mouton's 103. "d®!! ^ ^
'Managerial Grid', which leadership style ^ ^
has a low concern for people and a high ^ t ^ "3?qKd ^
concern for production ? ^1^^! ^idl ?
(A) Authority Obedience (A) ^TdT 3TWTTdFT
(B) Impoverished management (B)
(C) Country club management (C) W^I
(D) Organisation Man management (D)
104. The framework for establishing good 104. fwihr a#mRFT ^ ^
corporate governance and accountability WHT ^ '^Nt' ^^
^ W ®IT ?
was originally set up by :
(A) Rowntree Committee (A)^
(B) Cadbury Committee (B) ^Pnld
(C)
(C) Nestle Committee
(D)
(D) Thomten Committee
IM(3)S/02/2025/A 20
Text of page 23
105. A process that is used for identifying and 105. ^
developing internal people -with the 3iiaR<^i vfhft
potential to fill key business leadership ^
positions in the company is called : ^ "aferr
(A) Creation of Highly Talented t:
Personnel (A) "3^ ^ [hhIui
(B) Investing in Human Resource (B) Hidq
(C) Succession Planning (C) "^TRrf^TTO
(D) None of the above (D) ^^
106. Which of the following methods falls 106. fiHroifed ^
under the category of Qualitative Method
of Job Evaluation ? t ?
(A) Ranking method (A) ^
(B) Point-Comparison method (B)
(C) Factor-Comparison method (C)
(D) None of the above (D) , ^ ^
■W{3)S/02/2025/A 21 P.T.O,
Text of page 24
107. In which one of the following levels of 107. ^ ^
worker's participation in management, is PiHPvlRsld t
the role of worker's councils not just
advisory but the management is under a t "qfw ^ frtW ^
moral obligation to accept and implement ^ ^ ^
the unanimous decisions of the council ? ^[ct=h ^ d6d ^lldT ^ ?
(A) Consultative Participation (A) wnta
(B) Associative Participation (B) WnflldT
(C) Administrative Participation (C)
(D) Decisive Participation (D)
108. Which of the following is the modem 108. PHHRrlRsld ^ ^^
view of the concept of conflict ? 371#!^ TO t ?
(A) Conflict is avoidable. (A)^^ ^ ^^ITOT f i
(B) Conflict disrupts the organisation (B) WT ^ TOIT t 3Tk
and prevents optimal performance. 1tot^ ^ "droi t 1
(C) The task of management is to (C) ^ TOf ^ TOn
eliminate conflict. t I
(D) Conflict is inevitable. (D)^ anflwf t I
N(3)S/02/2025/A 22
Text of page 25
109. When in a company employee's 109. "4* PiRKH
performance is evaluated by his
supervisors, peers, customers, suppliers
and subordinates, then such performance ^ ^ %T1" Hs&Ri
evaluation method is called :
(A) 360 Degree Performance Appraisal ■ (A) 360 felt PhrKH
(B) 180 Degree Performance Appraisal (B) 180 felt Rrm
(C) Self-Performance Appraisal (C) ^-PhrKH
(D) Human Resource Accounting System (D) im ot#
110. When in a training, a training centre is 110. ^
setup and actual job conditions are ferr ■§■ afk "^TRrfei
duplicated or simulated, this training is fefeff ^ "^TT fen ^
known as : t fit 3ff^8F[ cH^criidl t :
(A) Classroom training (A)
(B) Apprenticeship training (B)
(C) Lecture (C)
(D) Vestibule Training (D) "3#^
N(3)S/02/2025/A 23 P.T.O.
Text of page 26
111. The following was not a presidency 111. riMfdHslcl ^
Bank : t ?
(A) Bank of Bengal (A) ^^
(B) Bank of Bombay (B) STTP ^
(C) Bank of Punjab (C) 3Tfq)
(D) Bank of Madras (D) aw
112. Source of funds of commercial banks 112. Pinf^Raa
exclude the following ; ^ 'leT ^ini ^ :
(A) Paid up capital (A) "51^
(B) Consultancy services (B) WRkPft
(C) Reserve and surplus (C)
(D) Deposits (D)
113. Which one of the following is not 113. ^ ^
included in an assets structure of f^+^iRiRao ^ 'icl
commercial banks ?
"I ?
(A)
(A) Cash Balances
(B) ^ ^
(B) Current Account Deposits
(C) W 1?^* aRWPT ^^^
(C) Money at call and short notice
(D) Loans and Advances
(D) arfiR
N(3)S/02/2025/A 24
Text of page 27
114. Reserve Bank of India Act was passed 114. "f^ "fe ^ -qifct
in : "TO «ir :
(A) 1934 (B) 1935 (A) 1934 (B) 1935
(C) 1933 (D) 1936 (C) 1933 (D) 1936
115. Repo Rate is the rate at which : 115. te :
(A) Reserve Bank of India lends short (A) ^
term money to the banks t I
(B) Reserve Bank of India lends long (B) ^ ^
term money to the banks ^t I
(C) Reserve Bank of India lends short (C) aw ^
term money to the central
government (D) "gPT % aw
(D) Commercial Banks deposits their ?feTT ^ RRT "W tol ^
cash with Reserve Bank of India t I
116. Capital market instruments does not 116. ii PdMrdndd ^
include which one of the following ? ^W ^t ?
(A) Equity shares (A) ^TOT aT?T
(B) Preference shares (B) af?T
,(C) Warranty (C) a;ifWR
(D) Treasury Bill (D) <hlMMlK
N(3)S/02/2025/A 25 P.T.O.
Text of page 28
117. Which of the following is the regulator 117. rHHPdnsid ^ ^
of money market ?
^t ?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(A)
(B) Ministry of Finance
(B) fer
(C) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(C) Piqqlq ^
(D) Insurance Regulation and
Development Authority (D)^ PciPiqiMd)
118. Which of the following assets is not 118. fHHPdRdd
included in the classification of assets of chJ-MpHqT ^ ^
banking financial companies ? yP^Pdd ■^* ^ ?
(A) Standard Assets (A) TTTTO JH^tPdqT
(B) Sub-standard Assets (B) WTPT^
(C) Doubtful Assets (C) iFlfM
(D) Liquid Assets (D) ^ ^^PdqT
119. Securities and Exchange Board of India 119. "affPifd "q;^' PdPdqq ^ ^ wfit
was established on : if :
(A) 20 April, 1988 (A) 20 1988 ^
(B) 14 April, 1988 (B) 14 1988 ^
(C) 12 April, 1988 (C) 12 aife, 1988 ^
(D) 18 April, 1988 (D) 18 1988
N(3)S/02/2025/A 26
Text of page 29
120. Telebanking is a/an : 120. f I
(A) Automatic Banking Solution (A)
(B) Integrated Banking System (B) OT#
(C) Systematic Automatic Facility (C) WnfW
(D) Banking System Solution (D)
121. In old concept of marketing focus is 121. ^ ^
given : -m t :
(A) On transport (A) -qr
(B) On warehousing (B) "qr
(C) On product (C) m
(D) On customer (D) "q^
122. Normally a wholesaler does not do 122. ^ 13^*
retailing and does not sell directly to
consumers, the exception being : a^q^ t :
(A) Warehouses (A)
(B) Business users (B) wrPiqurf
(C) Transporters (C)
(D) Door-to-door sellers (D) "qr Pdsbqdidi
123. "Product life-cycle yields a product 123. ""^rqiq ^3cqK an^TTftd
oriented picture rather than a market
oriented picture." This statement is : ■qF qiqq t :
(A) True (B) False (A) Rlrq (B)
(C) Irrelevant (D) Uncertain (C) aq^ (D) a^fqf^
N(3)S/02/2025/A 27 P.T.O.
Text of page 30
124. "In a firm price determination starts at 124. ^
higher level and slowly prices drop over
time." It is called : ^ 3ik t i" ^^
(A) Market penetration pricing t:
(B) Market skimming pricing (A)
(C) Service pricing geared to customer's (B) ^
income (C)
(D) Flexible pricing (D)
125. Sales promotion offers : 125. "feRT t:
(A) Incentive to buy (A) ^
(B) Reason to buy (B) ^
(C) Buyer's satisfaction (C) ^
(D) All of the above (D)
126. Buying decision process has some 126. "Rfer ^ "^^R "RT^
sequential stages. Robinson and ^ t I Xf!¥^ RlWf
Associates have called these stages as : ^ ^61 ^ J
(A) Purchase levels (A) ^^
(B) Buyer's activities (B) ^ ^iRifqRRTT
(C) Buy phases (C) ^
(D) Buying preferences (D) ^ "RTSTfecH^
[\l(3)S/02/2025/A 28
Text of page 31
127. Which of the following is a 127. ^
characteristic of services ? t ?
(A) Intangibility (A) 37^?^
(B) Perishability (B)
(C) Ownership (C)
(D) All of the above (D)
128. Which of the following is not included 128. PiHrdHsid
in direct marketing ? ^ruiPdd ^ ^t ?
(A) Tele Marketing (A) M
(B) Male Order Marketing (B) 311^ HlcffdJl
(C) Franchising (C)
(D) Database Marketing (D)
129. Common feature (features) of rural 129. ^ WTT^ Pcivltldl
consumers is (are) : (PdvlNdlil) :
(A) Low per capita income (A) aiFT
(B) Low disposable income (B) PiM 3TT^
(C) Low purchasing power (C) ^ "^if^
(D) All of the above (D) <iMi[dd
130. A firm's decision(s) about its market 130. ^ ^
logistics include : (froH) ^P^Prld t :
(A) Order Processing (A) 311^
(B) Warehousing (B)
(C) Inventory (C)
(D) All of the above (D)
N(3)S/02/2025/A 29 P.T.O.
Text of page 32
131. If the articles of the company do not 131. ^ ^
provide for a larger number, the
minimum number of members required
2013
to complete quorum for a meeting under
the provisions of Companies Act, 2013;
which of the following statements are
correct ? rHHRriR^d ^ -mt ^ 7
(i) If the number of members in a (i) ^ "4*
public company is not more than ^ 1000 ^ aifw t,
1000, quorum shall be 5 members ^ 5 ^ odPcklJId
personally present. ^ ^ Wp ^ I
(ii) If the number of members in a (ii)
public company is more than 1000 ^ 1000 ^
but up to 5000, then the quorum 5000 TO t ^ oqPWJId
shall be 10 members personally 10 ^ ^ ^
present.
(iii) If the number of members in a (iii) ^TT#5ffTO wfl
public company exceeds 5000 then ^ wn 5000 ^ stTto i TO
the quorum shall be 25 members TOfroro ^ 25 TOFTt* ^
personally present ft ^ ftft I
(iv) In a private company, the quorum (iv) oqPcklJld ^
shall be 2 members personally 2 Wsif ^ TOfts# ft ^ ^
present. ft^lt I
Codes : ^•
(A) (i) and (ii) (A) (i) »ik (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii) (B) (i)3lk(iii)
(C) (i) and (iv) (C) (i)3lk(iv)
(D) All of the above (D) "Hft
I\l(3)S/02/2025/A 30
Text of page 33
132. Which of the following is not the 132. PHHRriRsid "^f
objective of the Competition Act, 2002 ? 2002 ^ t ?
(A) To prevent practices having adverse (A) ^ ^
effects on competition.
(B) To prevent competition in the
(B) "sriwRf TR eiMiii I
market.
(C) "OTtelT ^ I
(C) To protect the interest of consumers.
(D) ^^ wMf m
(D) To ensure freedom of trade carried
OHI4K '4* ^n*^ai ^
on by other participants in
marketing in India and make ^rnP^Tild ^ ■ZTT
provision for matters connected ^ yi^'Plch TRPT#* ^
therewith or incidental thereto.
133. In terms of Section-5 of the Limited 133. 2008 ^
Liability Partnership Act, 2008 who is m-5 ^ TETlfRd
not eligible to become a partner in a
limited liability partnership ?
?
(A) An Indian company whether private
(A) ^ ^
or public
3ISRT TfT#5lf^
(B) A foreign company
(B)
(C) A limited liability partnership
(C)
registered in India
(D) A cooperative society
(D)
N(3)S/02/2025/A 31 P.T.d.
Text of page 34
134. If an Indian resident writes a bill of 134. fer# ferat
exchange up on other Indian resident, the ■qr t 4^
payment of which is to be made out of "fen "^TPiT ■§, ^
India, such document is called : 4 ^ t :
(A) Foreign Bill (A) "fer
(B) Inland Bill (B) ^
(C) Inland-Foreign Bill (C)
(D) None of the above (D) ^
135. Which of the following statements is not 135. wFt "SfTHRt a#TfwT, 2013 4
correct regarding to formulation of'One
Person Company' as per the provisions
of the Companies Act, 2013 ? ^ t ?
(A) Only a natural person who is an (A) "qpfe
Indian citizen and resident in India 4 «lRd ^ feRT
shall be eligible to incorporate a ^ "4' '13;^
'One Person Company'.
(B) Only a natural person who is an ■qi^ itm I
Indian citizen resides anywhere in (B) 4 "0^
the world shall be a nominee for the dHlR^h t, 4
sole member of a 'One Person t, 'irq? Rfei
Company'. ■RT^ wq 4 HIRlFhd #11 I
(C) A person can be a member of'One (C) "0^ *13:^
Person Company' and nominee of ^ 3^k ^
another 'One Person Company'. ^ dHlFhd 4 RIOT
(D) Such a company cannot be
f I
incorporated or converted into a (D) RR#T 3tMwt, 2013
company under Section-8 of the !IRr-8 4 cT^ qFRRRt
Companies Act, 2013. ^ RTRI#H ^ felT
Rl^uTi t" 1
N(3)S/02/2025/A 32
Text of page 35
136. Under what condition, a seller is called 136. 3?^ iqshai
an unpaid seller ? ^eeiicii ^ ?
(A) Seller has not received the price of (A) fqstiai ^ "SFd
goods. 131T t I
(B) He has the right to take legal action (B) ^^ ^^
immediately. srteK vsm t I
(C) Received negotiable instrument, but (C) Wwr-'Hez? Tira 13TT ^
was dishonoured. ^ ^ -W t I
(D) All of the above (D)
137. The person appointed to make contract 137. rftot
with third party is called : ^ t" :
(A) Principal (A) 3mFT
(B) Agent (B)
(C) Contractor (C)
(D) Servant (D)
138. Which one of the following is not an 138. PiHRHfecl ^ 37^^
essential element of a valid contract ? ^ t ?
(A) Capacity to contract in the parties (A) 37^^^ SiHcil
(B) Free consent (B) WtIcT
(C) Illegal consideration (C) Mrd4id
(D) Intention to create legal relationship (D) ^^
N(3)S/02/2025/A 33 P.T.O.
Text of page 36
139. Which one is the objective of 139. 2000 ^ fFT
Information Technology Act, 2000 ?
(A) To provide legal recognition for
(A) ^ ^
transactions carried out through
I
electronic means.
(B) ^
(B) Facilitates the electronic filing
of documents with government
"3^^ ^RFTT I
agencies.
(C)
(C) To amend certain Acts, inter alia,
^ ^ I860
the Indian Penal Code, 1860 and
sSk WT 1872 ^
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 t I
(D) All of the above (D) "3^^ -Hnl
140. Which is the characteristic of GST ? 140. -W sfk ^^^ t?
(A) A value-added tax. (A) ^t I
(B) It is levied on most goods and (B) "^1^^ "3^^ fqstiH ^
services sold for domestic
air
consumption.
^FRTT t I
(C) ^ ■3q^te3if ?RT ^
(C) It is paid by consumers.
t i
(D) All of the above P) •3^7^ ^
N(3)S/02/2025/A 34
Text of page 37
141. 'X' and 'Y' are legal heirs of 'Z'. 'Z' 141. 'X' 'Y'; 'Z' ^
died in 2016 and 'X' and 'Y' carry on t I ^ 2016 'Z' ^ ^
t *X' 'Y'
his business without entering into
31^ 'Z' ^ ^
partnership. Status of *X' and *Y' as per
^ f I sTFm 1961 ^
Income Tax Act, 1961 is :
^T^^FIK 'X' 3lk 'Y' t :
(A) A Hindu Undivided Family
(A)
(B) A Firm
(B)
t
(C) An association of persons (C) ^ ^^
(D) Artificial Juridical Person (D) Bqfer
142. If an assessee is engaged in the business 142. ^^
of growing and curing coffee in India, ^ d4^|Rd ^^
then what portion will be agricultural f ^ fern
income in such situation ? "frfq ^brr ?
(A) 100% (A) 100%
(B) 75% (B) 75%
V
(C) 60% (C) 60%
(D) 50% (D) 50%
N|3)S/02/2025/A 35 P.T.O.
Text of page 38
143. 'X' is employed in a private company at 143. 'X'? 80,000 TlfOTF ^ ^ 13;^
a basic salary of? 80,000 per month. He t I "5^
received ? 6,000 per month as House
^^ ^ 6,000 yPdHI^ tecTT t
Rent Allowance. He paid ? 9,000 per
I^ ? 9,000 ^
month as house rent. The exempted
t I iWTT ^ ^ ^ "5^
portion of House Rent Allowance will
WJ #TT :
be :
(A) ^ 6,000
(A) ? 6,000 per month
(B) ? 9,000 per month (B) ? 9,000
(C) ? 8,000 pfer month (C) ^ 8,000 TifdW
(D) ^ 1,000 per month (D) ? 1,000
144. Surcharge is payable by an individual 144. o^Pki "gRI 3#!^ ^ "^klT "I",
when the total income exceeds 'SIH' ^ 1
(A) ? 10 Lakh (B) ? 25 Lakh (A) ^ 10 cTO (B) ? 25
(C) ? 50 Lakh (D) ? 1 Crore (C) ? 50^ (D) ? 1^
145. Gratuity received by a government 145. TTqr ttrt "bwt
employee is (T(^) -t I
(A) Fully taxable (A)
(B) Exempted upto ^ 10,00,000 (B) ? 10,00,000 ^
(C) Exempted upto ? 3,50,000 (C) ? 3,50,000
(D) Fully exempted from tax (D) =b<ti=W
N(3)S/02/2025/A 36
Text of page 39
146. From 1st April, 2019, if the amount of 146. 1 31^,2019
interest paid or payable by bank/co
operative bank/notified post office 'HI^ 3Tf«Ri
scheme during a financial year does not
exceed tax is not deducted at tI
source.
(A) ? 5,000
(A) ? 5,000
(B) ? 10,000 50,000 ^
(B) ? 10,000(? 50,000 in case of senior
citizen)
(C) ^ 40,000(? 50,000 in case of senior (C) ? 40,000 (? 50,000^ ^
citizen)
(D) ? 50,000 (D) ? 50,000
147. Maximum limit of deduction getting in 147. 3TTOT 1961 ^ mi 80 GG
respect of rent paid for residential house, ^ appfe snmfkT ^^ ImFiT
u/s 80 GG of Income Tax Act, 1961, ^ TIM ^ mft ^
is I
(A) ^ 3,000 (B) ^ 5,000 (A) ? 3,000 (B) ? 5,000
(C) ? 10,000 . (D) ^ 15,000 (C) ? 10,000 (D) ? 15,000
148. AB Ltd and XY Ltd. got amalgamated 148. -fera 2021 AB % ^ XY
in December, 2021 to form a new w^fw im ^ rp %
company RP Ltd. The total expenditure
mPTt I tich1c^<u| ^
for the purpose of amalgamation was
? 10 Qiioi 1 ^
? 10 Lakh. The amount of amalgamation
2022-23 A' 0.4>14)<U| ^ ^
expenditure deductible for the assessment
year 2022-23 would be 'ctidlul BkiT 1
(A) ? 10 Lakh (B) ? 5 Lakh (A) ^ 10 (B) r 5
(C) ? 2 Lakh (D) ? 1 Lakh (C) ? 2 (D) ? 1 cIM
N(3)S/02/2025/A 37 P.T.O.
Text of page 40
149. In case of an application made by the 149. ^ 1961
assessee U/S 154 of Income Tax Act, ^ W 154 ^ ^ ^
1961, the assessing officer shall rectify
"t, ^
the order/refuse the rectification
within from the end of the
sffcFT fcrf^ ^
month in which the application is
^ ^ I
received by the Assessing officer.
(A) 6W
(A) 6 months
(B) 1 year (B) 1 ^
(C) 2 years (C) 2^
(D) 4 years (D) 4^
150. Deduction U/S 80 lAC of Income Tax 150. ^ 37mr(
Act, 1961, in respect of eligible start-up 1961 ^ 80 lAC ^
is 100% of the profits and gains derived ^ ^ ^
fi-om such business for. consecutive ^
assessment years. 100 ^f I
(A) 10 (A) 10
(B) 5 (B) 5
(C) 4 (C) 4
, (D) 3 (D) 3
N(3)S/02/2025/A 38
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(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK) N(3)S/02/2025/A/P-39
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(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK) N(3)S/02/2025/A/P-40
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chl4
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Source: Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission. Question paper published by Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission.