TS SET 2014: Paper II, Chemical Sciences

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CCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCC
CCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCC CCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCC
SUBJECT CODE SUBJECT PAPER
A-02-02 CHEMICAL SCIENCES II
HALL TICKET NUMBER
QUESTION BOOKLET NUMBER
OMR SHEET NUMBER
DURATION MAXIMUM MARKS NUMBER OF PAGES NUMBER OF QUESTIONS
1 HOUR 15 MINUTES 100 16 50
This is to certify that, the entries made in the above portion are correctly written and verified.
Candidate’s Signature Name and Signature of Invigilator
Instructions for the Candidates A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦ËMæü$ çÜ*^èþ¯èþË$
1. Write your Hall Ticket Number in the space provided on the 1. D ç³#r ò³O ¿êVæü ÌZ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Ò$ çàÌý sìýMðüsý ¯èþ ºÆæÿ$ Æ>Äæý$ yìþ.
top of this page.
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2. This paper consists of fifty multiple-choice type of questions.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will 3. ç³Èæü {´ëÆæÿ ¿æýÐèþ$$¯èþ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ Ò$Mæü$ CÐèþÓºyæþ$èþ$ ¨. Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$
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discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a {ç³Ôèý²Ë$ {MæüÐèþ$ç³§æþ®ÌZ ÌôýMæü´ùÐèþ#r Ìôý§é HÐðþO¯é óþyéË$ yæþ$r Ðèþ sìý §øçÙç³NÇèþÐðþ$O¯èþ
correct booklet from the invigilator within the period {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°² Ððþ r¯óþ Ððþ$$§æþsìý I§æþ$ °Ñ$ÚëÌZÏ ç³È> ç³ÆæÿÅÐóþæüMæü$°Mìü ÇW C_aÐóþíÜ
of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet §é°Mìü º§æþ$Ë$V> çÜÇV>Y E¯èþ² {ç³Ôèý²ç³{é°² ¡çÜ$Mø yìþ. èþ§æþ¯èþ èþÆæÿ {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$
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Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. A§óþÑ«§æþ V> OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ çÜ Qůèþ$ D {ç³Ôé²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °ÇªçÙtt çÜ¦Ë ÌZ Æ>Äæý$ÐèþÌñý¯èþ$.
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correct response against each item. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ÌZ {ç³ {ç³Ôé² çÜ QÅMæü$ CÐèþÓºyìþ¯èþ ¯éË$Væü$ Ðèþé¢ÌZÏ çÜÆðÿO¯èþ
Example : A B C D {ç³çܵ §æþ¯èþ¯èþ$ çÜ*_ ^óþ Ðèþ颰² »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þø Mìü §æþ ðþÍí³¯èþ Ñ«§æþ V>
where (C) is the correct response.
ç³NÇ ^éÍ.
E§éçßýÆæÿ×ý : A B C D
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Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant 7. _èþ$¢ç³°° {ç³Ôèý²ç³{èþÐèþ$$ _ÐèþÆæÿ C_a¯èþ RêäçܦËÐèþ$$ÌZ ^óþÄæý*Í.
entries, which may disclose your identity, you will render yourself 8. OMR ç³{èþÐèþ$$ ò³O °È~èþ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ çÜ*_ ^èþÐèþËíܯèþ ÑÐèþÆ>Ë$ èþí³µ _ CèþÆæÿ çÜ¦Ë ÌZ
liable to disqualification. Ò$ Væü$Ç¢ ç³#¯èþ$ ðþÍõ³ Ñ«§æþ V> Ò$ õ³Ææÿ$ Æ>Äæý$yæþ V>± Ìôý§é CèþÆæÿ _à²Ë¯èþ$
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the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily
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and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. The
candidate is allowed to take away the carbon copy of OMR Ðésìý° ç³Èæü Væü¨ ºÄæý$rMæü$ ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏMæü*yæþ§æþ$. ç³Èæü ç³NÆæÿ¢Æÿ$$¯èþ èþÆæÿ$Ðéèþ A¿æýÅÆæÿ$¦Ë$
Sheet and used Question paper booklet at the end of the {ç³Ôèý² ç³{é°², OMR ç³{èþ Äñý$$MæüP M>Ææÿ¾¯þ M>ï³° ¡çÜ$Mæü$ÐðþâæýÏÐèþ^èþ$a.
examination. 10. ±Í/¯èþËÏ Ææÿ Væü$ »êÌý ´ëÆÿ$$ sý ò³¯þ Ðèþ*{èþÐóþ$ Eç³Äñý*W ^éÍ.
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12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. 12. èþç³ çÜÐèþ*«§é¯éËMæü$ Ðèþ*Ææÿ$PË èþWY ç³# Ìôý§æþ$.
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CCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCCC
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HE
RE
WR
ITE
NO
T
DO
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6. The correct relationship between 9. Wave function of a particle at some point
vibrational frequency (ν ) and force x has the value ψ , then the probability of
constant (k) is finding the particle between x and x+dx is
proportional to
(A) ( ν )2 α k 2
(A) | ψ | dx
1 3
(B) ( ν ) α (B) | ψ | dx
k 2
(C) | ψ | dx
(C) ( ν )2 α k
(D) | ψ |
1
(D) (ν ) α (k)− 2 10. Give the IUPAC name for the given
structure
7. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation is expressed
H H
as
C C H
⎡ ∂(ΔG / T) ⎤ = − ΔH Cl – H2C C C
(A) ⎢
⎣ ∂T ⎥⎦P T2 H CH2 – CH3
(A) 1– Chloro – 2Z,4Z – heptadiene
⎡ ∂ ( ΔG / T) ⎤ = − ΔE
(B) ⎢ ⎥⎦ V (B) 1– Chloro – 2Z,4E – 2,4 – heptadiene
⎣ ∂T T2
(C) 7– Chloro – 2Z,4E – heptadiene
(C) dG = – SdT+ vdP (D) 1– Chloro – 2E,4Z – 2,4 – heptadiene
(D) dH = Tds + vdP 11. Which of the following amino acid belongs
to neutral category ?
8. The number of radial nodes for a 3s I. Glycine
orbital is II. Arginine
III. Tyrosine
(A) 0
IV. Asparagine
(B) 1
(A) I, II
(C) 2 (B) II, III
(D) 3 (C) III, IV
(D) I, III
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12. The correct decreasing order of the first 16. The major product in the following
ionization energy of the elements
P, S, Cl is reaction is
(A) Cl, S, P
(B) Cl, P, S
OH
(C) P, Cl, S
(D) S, Cl, P
CH3 (i) CO2,
X
(ii) HCl O
13. Which of the following does not obey ||
(iii) (CH3C)2O
18-electron rule ?
(A) [Co(NH ) ]Cl
3 6 3
(B) Fe(CO) OCOCH3
5
(C) Mn(CO) COOCOCH3
5 (A)
(D) Ru(CO)5
14. Zero point energy (Eo )of a harmonic
oscillator is OH
(A) E = h /8 mL
2 2 COOCOCH3
o (B)
(B) E = ½ h ν
o
(C) Eo = 0
2 2
(D) E = 4h / 8 mL OCOCH3
o
15. The ground state term symbol of Li is CO2H
(C)
2
S1
(A)
2
2
P1 ⎛ OH ⎞
(B) ⎜ ⎟
2
⎜ C ⎟ O
1 (D) ⎜ || ⎟
S1
(C)
2
⎜⎜ O ⎟⎟
⎝ ⎠2
1
(D) D2
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17. The catalyst produced by treating TiCl4 20. The isoelectronic compound with
with (C2H5)3Al is
naphthalene is
(A) Wilkinson’s catalyst
(B) Ziegler – Natta catalyst
(C) ZSM – 5 catalyst (A)
2–
(D) [PdCl ] catalyst
4
18. Electronic configuration of Gd+3 is
(B)
7 10
(A) [Rn] 4f (B) [Rn] 4f
7
(C) [Xe] 4f (D) [Xe] 4f10
19. The most stable conformer is (C)
O
Br
(A)
Cl (D)
Br
21. According to MO theory, the strength of
−
bonding in O +2 , O2 and O 2 in follows the
(B)
order :
Cl −
(A) O +2 > O > O 2
2
Br
−
(C) (B) O 2 > O > O +2
2
Cl
−
Cl (C) O2 > O 2+ > O 2
−
(D) (D) O > O 2 > O +2
2
Br
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24. The major product in the following
22. What is the point group of trans
reaction is
1, 2-dichloro ethene ?
(A) C2v (B) C2h
(C) D (D) D
2h 2d
(i) Δ
+ PhSO2CH = CHSO2Ph X
23. The major product in the following (ii) Na/Hg,CH3OH
reactions is
CH2CO2H (i) 2SOCl2
X (A)
(ii) 2 CH2 N2
CH2CO2H
(iii) NH3 − H2O, Ag2O
CH2CH2CO2H
(B) SO2Ph
(A)
CH2CH2CO2H
CO2H
(B)
(C) SO2Ph
CO2H
SO2Ph
(C)
(D) SO2Ph
CH2CH2CONH2
(D) SO2Ph
CH2CH2CONH2
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25. Number of B – B bonds present in 28. The major product in the following
tetraborane, B4H10 is
(A) 1 reaction is
(B) 2
(C) 3 O2N COCl + (CH3)3Sn
(D) 4
Ph CH 2 PdCl/PPh3, 18 hr
26. The metal atom present in Wilkinson’s
catalyst is X
(A) W
O
(B) Rh
(C) Pt (A) O 2N C – CH 3
(D) Ir
27. The following two compounds are O
(B) O 2N C – Ph
OH
O
O
and (C)
HO C
OH H
OH
O
(D) O2N C CH (CH 3) 3
O
HO
29. The gas released by PS-II in
OH H photosynthesis process that occurs in
green plants is
(A) C(3) epimers
(A) O
2
(B) C(2) epimers
(B) N
2
(C) Different configuration at C(2) (C) CO
(D) Mesomers (D) CO2
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30. For a Co3+ octahedral complex, the mean 33. The reagent ‘A’ in the following reaction is
pairing energy is 17400 cm–1 and Δ 0 is
24700 cm–1 . The CFSE of the complex in
Dq units is CH2OH
HO O CH2OH
O
(A) 0 Dq OH A HO
HO OH OCH3
(B) – 6 Dq HO OH
(C) – 24 Dq + 2P
(A) CH3I / Ag2O
(D) – 12 Dq + 3p
O O
|| ||
(B) CH3 − C − O − C− CH3 / pyridine
31. The number of degrees of freedom at water
(l) water (g) equilibrium is (C) CH3 OH / H
+
(A) 0 O O
|| ||
(B) 1 (D) CH3 − C − O − C− CH3 / OH−
(C) 2
34. Which of the following reactions is an atom
(D) 3
economy reaction ?
32. The molar partition function (Q) for system (A) Claisen condensation
of distinguishable independent molecules (B) Friedel Crafts reaction
is related to the molecular partition (q) as
(C) Diels Alder reaction
N
(A) Q = q (D) Perkin reaction
(B) Q = Nq 35. Which of the following solvents is an
environmentally benign ?
⎛ ∂lnq ⎞ (A) Acetone
(C) Q = RT ⎜ ⎟
⎝ ∂lnv ⎠ (B) Acetic acid
N (C) Water
q
(D) Q =
N (D) Tetrahydro furan
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36. In the given nuclear fission reaction
38. An alkaloid containing
235 1
92 u + 0 n ⎯⎯→ 144 1
56 Ba + X + 2 0 n
N-methylpiperidine moiety exhibits
indentify X from the following
Narcotic analgesic activity is
92
(A) 36 Kr (A) Atropine
90
(B) 36 Kr (B) Nicotine
91
(C) 35 Br (C) Morphine
(D) 89
35Br (D) Quinine
37. Which among the following has a bond CH 2 O O
39. S exhibits in its NMR
order equal to 1 ? CH2 O O
I. O 2−
(A) Two singlets
II. O22 − (B) Two doublets
III. O (C) Two triplets
2
IV. F (D) One singlet
2
The correct combination is 40. Camphor belongs to
(A) Acyclic monoterpene
(A) I, II
(B) Monocyclic monoterpene
(B) I, IV
(C) Bicyclic monoterpene
(C) II, IV
(D) Acyclic sesquiterpene
(D) III, IV
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41. The number of ESR lines obtained for 44. The rate constant of a diffusion controlled
reaction (kD) is related to the viscosity of
hydrogen atom due to hyperfine coupling is
the medium ( η ) in the following manner
(A) 1 (A)
K Dαη
(B) KDαη−1
(B) 2
(C) KD αη2
(C) 3
(D) KDαη−2
(D) 4
45. How many types of enolates are possible
42. Which of the following is a hard acid-soft by treating ethylmethylketone with a
base ?
base pair ?
(A) La
+3
and OH
– CH2 CH3
H3C C Base
⎯⎯ ⎯→ Enolates
(B) Co
+2 −2 O
and SO 3
(C) Pt+2 and PO 34 − (A) One
+3 – (B) Two
D) La and CN
(C) Three
43. According to Debye-Huckel theory of (D) Four
strong electrolytes the electrophoretic
46. Indicate the types of pericyclic reactions
effect which reduces the velocity of the
in the following conversions.
ions is due to
hν Δ
7 – Dehydrochotesterol → [X] → Vitamin D
(A) Interionic attraction
(A) Electrocyclic reactions
(B) Solvation of ions
(B) Sigmatropic shifts
(C) Ion pair formation
(C) Electrocyclic and sigmatropic shift
(D) Viscosity of the solvent (D) Cycloadditions
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47. Strongest super acid among the 49. The correct statement regarding
adsorption of gases on solid surfaces is
following is
(A) Langmuir and BET equations are
applicable to monolayer adsorption
(A) SbF in HI
5 (B) Langmuir and BET equations are
applicable to multilayer adsorption
(B) SbF in HF
5 (C) Langmuir equation is applicable to
monolayer adsorption and BET
(C) SbCl in HI equation is applicable to multilayer
5
adsorption
(D) SbCl in HCl (D) Langmuir equation is applicable to
5
multilayer adsorption and BET
equation is applicable to monolayer
adsorption
48. The coordination number of iron in
cytochrome ‘C’ is 50. According to band theory of solids, the
donor band in a n-type semiconductor is
(A) 4 (A) close to valence band of parent
material
(B) 5
(B) close to conduction band of parent
material
(C) 6
(C) mixed with valence band of parent
(D) 3 material
(D) mixed with conduction band of parent
material
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Space for Rough Work
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Source: Telangana State Eligibility Test. Question paper published by Telangana State Eligibility Test.