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Preamble and Salient Features Questions and Answers

11.

By virtue of the principles of separation of powers incorporated under the Indian Constitution, which one of the following is impermissible ?

Exam Year(s)

Kerala PSC KAS - 2020,

Answer: D

The answer is Both A) and C).

The Indian Constitution does not separate powers rigidly, but the Supreme Court has held that one organ of the state may not assume functions that essentially belong to another (Ram Jawaya Kapur v. State of Punjab, 1955), and that the legislature may delegate subsidiary law-making but not its essential legislative functions, such as laying down policy (In re Delhi Laws Act, 1951).

Delegation of legislative powers in general is permissible, which is why delegated legislation is so common, so option B describes something allowed, not forbidden.

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12.

Which among the following province secured highest representation in the Constituent Assembly of India as on 31st December 1947 ?

Exam Year(s)

Kerala PSC KAS - 2025,

Answer: A

Among the four options, the province with the highest representation was Madras.

After Partition, the reorganised Constituent Assembly's figures as on 31 December 1947 gave Madras 49 seats, against Bihar 36, Bombay 21 and West Bengal 19.

The United Provinces actually had more members than Madras (55), but it is not among the options, so of those offered Madras is the highest. Bihar is the usual trap, since it comes second among the four.

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13.

With reference to the principle of Rule of law, consider the following statements :

i. It is the supreme manifestation of human civilization and culture.
ii. It is an animation of the historical law.
iii. It mandates that power must be unaccountable, governance progressively just and equal.
iv. It is based on the principles of freedom, equality, non-discrimination, fraternity, accountability and non-arbitrariness.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

Exam Year(s)

Kerala PSC KAS - 2025,

Answer: D

Statements i and iv are correct, so the answer is Only (i and iv).

i is correct: the rule of law is regarded as a supreme expression of civilised society, in which the law, not the will of rulers, governs. iv is correct: it rests on freedom, equality, non-discrimination, fraternity, accountability and non-arbitrariness.

iii is wrong: the rule of law requires that power be accountable, not unaccountable. ii is wrong: the rule of law is a living principle of governance, not merely an expression of historical law. Every option that includes ii or iii is therefore wrong.

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14.

Which of the following is described as a "novel feature" in the Indian Constitution ?

Exam Year(s)

KPSC KAS - 2020,

Answer: B

The "novel feature" is the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Dr B. R. Ambedkar described the Directive Principles in Part IV as a novel feature of the Constitution. Borrowed from the Irish Constitution, they are instructions to the state to build a welfare society, not enforceable in courts but fundamental in the governance of the country.

Fundamental Rights and the right to constitutional remedies, which Ambedkar called the heart and soul of the Constitution, were not described this way. Fundamental Duties were added only in 1976.

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15.

Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India makes the provision of Tribes Advisory Councils ?

Exam Year(s)

MPPSC Forest Service - 2023,

Answer: A

Tribes Advisory Councils are provided for in the Fifth Schedule.

The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Paragraph 4 requires every state with Scheduled Areas to set up a Tribes Advisory Council of up to 20 members, three-fourths of them Scheduled Tribe members of the state assembly, to advise on tribal welfare.

The Sixth Schedule provides autonomous district councils for tribal areas of the four north-eastern states, the Seventh divides legislative subjects, and the Eighth lists the official languages.

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16.

Who was the first nominated Deputy Chairman of the Constituent Assembly ?

Exam Year(s)

MPPSC State Service - 2021, MPPSC Forest Service - 2021,

Answer: D

The first nominated Deputy Chairman was Frank Anthony.

At the first sitting of the Constituent Assembly on 9 December 1946 the temporary Chairman, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, proposed that Frank Anthony be nominated to assist him as Deputy Chairman, and the motion was carried (Constituent Assembly Debates, 9 December 1946). This was a temporary post for the opening sitting; the Assembly's permanent Vice-Presidents came later.

H. C. Mukherjee and V. T. Krishnamachari were the Assembly's Vice-Presidents, which is the trap, and T. T. Krishnamachari was a member who served on the Drafting Committee. None of them was the Deputy Chairman nominated by Dr. Sinha.

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17.

K.M. Munshi was related to :

Exam Year(s)

MPPSC State Service - 2024, MPPSC Forest Service - 2024,

Answer: B

K.M. Munshi was related to the Constitution Draft Committee.

Kanaiyalal Maneklal Munshi was one of the members of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly, chaired by B.R. Ambedkar, and contributed especially to the chapter on Fundamental Rights. He later founded the Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan.

The Public Accounts Committee is a parliamentary committee, there was no separate 'Preamble Committee', and the Hindu Code Bill was piloted by Ambedkar as Law Minister.

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18.

In which meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India did Jawaharlal Nehru laid down the objective resolution ?

Exam Year(s)

MPPSC State Service - 2022, MPPSC Forest Service - 2022,

Answer: D

The Objectives Resolution was moved at the fifth sitting.

The Constituent Assembly first met on 9 December 1946. Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution on 13 December 1946, which an account from the Nehru Centre counts as the fifth day of the Assembly's sittings. The Assembly then postponed the debate and adopted the resolution on 22 January 1947.

The second, third and fourth sittings were taken up with procedure and the election of the permanent president, so they are not the answer.

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19.

The National Anthem was adopted by the Constituent Assembly in

Exam Year(s)

Northern Coalfields Limited - 2020, NCL Technician - 2020,

Answer: C

The National Anthem was adopted on 24th January 1950.

On 24 January 1950, at the last session of the Constituent Assembly, the President, Dr Rajendra Prasad, announced that Jana Gana Mana would be the National Anthem, and the same session adopted Vande Mataram as the National Song, with equal honour. Dr Rajendra Prasad was also elected the first President that day.

24 November 1949 is close to Constitution Day, 26 November 1949, when the Constitution was adopted, which makes it the trap. 24 May 1949 and 24 June 1950 carry no such event.

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20.

Match the following features of the Indian Constitution from their adoptions :

FeaturesAdoptions
A. FederalismI. Canada
B. Fundamental DutiesII. Former Soviet Union
C. Directive Principles of State PolicyIII. Ireland
D. Judicial ReviewIV. US

Choose the correct answer :

Exam Year(s)

Punjab Civil Service - 2018,

Answer: A

The correct match is A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV.

  1. Federalism with a strong Centre, often called a quasi-federal structure, was modelled on Canada.
  2. Fundamental Duties, added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976 on the Swaran Singh Committee's advice, were inspired by the Constitution of the former Soviet Union.
  3. The Directive Principles of State Policy came from the Constitution of Ireland, which had taken them from Spain.
  4. Judicial review, like the Fundamental Rights, came from the US Constitution.

The other options swap these sources, for example putting Directive Principles against the USSR or judicial review against Canada, so they are wrong.

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