Let \(f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}\) be a twice differentiable function such that \(f(n) = 1\) for all \(n \in \mathbb{Z}\).
Which ONE of the following statements is necessarily TRUE?
IIT JAM - 2026,
Answer: B
The necessarily true statement is \(f'(x) = 0\) for infinitely many \(x \in \mathbb{R} \setminus \mathbb{Z}\).
For each integer \(n\), \(f(n) = f(n+1) = 1\), so Rolle's theorem gives a point \(c_n\) strictly between \(n\) and \(n+1\) with \(f'(c_n) = 0\). Each \(c_n\) is a non-integer, and they lie in different intervals, so there are infinitely many.
The other three can fail. With \(f(x) = 1 + \sin(\pi x)\), \(f(n) = 1\) but \(f'(n) = \pi\cos(n\pi) = \pm\pi \neq 0\), so the first option fails; and \(f''(x) = -\pi^{2}\sin(\pi x)\) vanishes only at integers, so the last option fails too. With \(f(x) = 1 + \sin^{2}(\pi x)\), \(f''(x) = 2\pi^{2}\cos(2\pi x)\), which equals \(2\pi^{2} \neq 0\) at every integer, so \(f''(n) = 0\) is not forced.
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